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Patho > Neoplasm > Flashcards

Neoplasm Flashcards

1
Q

Front

A

Back

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2
Q

What age group is commonly affected by Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Adolescents or young adults. It is more common in children (‘Burkitt’ lymphoma).

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3
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

t(8;14)—translocation of c-myc (8) and heavy-chain Ig (14).

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4
Q

What is a characteristic microscopic finding in Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

‘Starry sky’ appearance due to sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed ‘tingible body’ macrophages.

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5
Q

What infection is often associated with Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV).

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6
Q

What are the common sites of involvement in Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Jaw lesion in endemic form in Africa; pelvis or abdomen in sporadic form.

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7
Q

What is the common age group for Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL)?

A

Usually older adults, but 20% occur in children.

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8
Q

What genetic mutations are associated with DLBCL?

A

Mutations in BCL-2 and BCL-6.

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9
Q

What is the significance of DLBCL?

A

It is the most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults.

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10
Q

What is the common age group for Follicular Lymphoma?

A

Adults.

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11
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Follicular Lymphoma?

A

t(14;18)—translocation of heavy-chain Ig (14) and BCL-2 (18).

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12
Q

What are the clinical features of Follicular Lymphoma?

A

Indolent course with painless ‘waxing and waning’ lymphadenopathy. BCL-2 normally inhibits apoptosis.

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13
Q

What is the typical demographic for Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

Adult males are more commonly affected than adult females.

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14
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

t(11;14)—translocation of cyclin D1 (11) and heavy-chain Ig (14). CD5+.

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15
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

Very aggressive, typically presenting with late-stage disease.

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16
Q

What is Marginal Zone Lymphoma associated with?

A

Chronic inflammation (e.g., Sjögren syndrome, chronic gastritis due to H. pylori).

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17
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Marginal Zone Lymphoma?

A

t(11;18).

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18
Q

What is the treatment approach for Marginal Zone Lymphoma?

A

May regress with H. pylori eradication.

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19
Q

What infection is associated with Primary CNS Lymphoma?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV).

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20
Q

What conditions are commonly linked with Primary CNS Lymphoma?

A

HIV/AIDS (it is considered an AIDS-defining illness).

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21
Q

What are common symptoms of Primary CNS Lymphoma?

A

Variable: confusion, memory loss, seizures. CNS mass often appears as a single ring-enhancing lesion on MRI in immunocompromised patients.

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22
Q

How is Primary CNS Lymphoma differentiated from Toxoplasmosis?

A

Through CSF analysis or other lab tests.

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23
Q

What causes Adult T-cell Lymphoma?

A

HTLV (associated with IV drug use).

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24
Q

What are the common presentations of Adult T-cell Lymphoma?

A

Cutaneous lesions; common in Japan, West Africa, and the Caribbean.

25
Q

What are other features of Adult T-cell Lymphoma?

A

Lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia.

26
Q

What are the common features of Cutaneous T-cell Lymphoma?

A

Heterogeneous neoplasms affecting skin ± blood, lymph nodes, or viscera. Most common subtype is mycosis fungoides.

27
Q

What is characteristic of Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Erythematous patches favoring sun-protected areas that progress to plaques, then tumors.

28
Q

What is Sézary syndrome?

A

A leukemic form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

29
Q

Front

A

Back

30
Q

What is the overproduced immunoglobulin in Multiple Myeloma?

A

IgG (most common) > IgA > light chains.

31
Q

What does the M spike represent in Multiple Myeloma?

A

Overproduction of Monoclonal immunoglobulin.

32
Q

What are the clinical features of Multiple Myeloma?

A

CRAB: hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions (‘punched out’).

33
Q

What are some complications of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Increased infection risk, 1° amyloidosis (AL).

34
Q

What is found on bone marrow biopsy in Multiple Myeloma?

A

> 10% monoclonal plasma cells with clock-face chromatin and intracytoplasmic inclusions.

35
Q

What is a characteristic finding on peripheral blood smear in Multiple Myeloma?

A

Rouleaux formation (RBCs stacked like poker chips).

36
Q

What immunoglobulin is overproduced in Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?

A

IgM (macroglobulinemia because IgM is the largest Ig).

37
Q

What are the clinical features of Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?

A

Anemia, ‘B’ symptoms, lymphadenopathy, hyperviscosity (e.g., blurred vision, headache), peripheral neuropathy.

38
Q

What is seen on fundoscopy in Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?

A

Dilated, tortuous retinal veins (sausage link appearance).

39
Q

What is found on bone marrow biopsy in Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?

A

> 10% monoclonal lymphoplasmacytic cells with IgM inclusions.

40
Q

What characterizes Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)?

A

M spike (<3 g/dL) without CRAB findings.

41
Q

What is the risk of progression in MGUS?

A

1%-2% per year risk of progression to Multiple Myeloma.

42
Q

Front

A

Back

43
Q

What is the most frequent leukemia in children?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (ALL) is the most frequent in children.

44
Q

What genetic abnormalities are associated with ALL?

A

t(12;21) is associated with a better prognosis

45
Q

What are the key features of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

A

Peripheral blood and bone marrow show ↑↑↑ lymphoblasts; TdT+ (marker of pre-T and pre-B cells); CD10+ (marker of pre-B cells).

46
Q

Which condition can ALL spread to?

A

ALL can spread to the CNS and testes.

47
Q

What age group is most affected by chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

A

CLL is most common in adults aged ≥60 years.

48
Q

What is a hallmark finding in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) peripheral blood smears?

A

Smudge cells (Crushed Little Lymphocytes).

49
Q

What condition can Richter transformation lead to?

A

CLL/SLL can transform into an aggressive lymphoma

50
Q

What mutation is associated with hairy cell leukemia?

A

Hairy cell leukemia is associated with BRAF mutations.

51
Q

What staining is positive in hairy cell leukemia?

A

TRAP stain (Tartrate-Resistant Acid Phosphatase) is positive in hairy cell leukemia.

52
Q

What are the clinical findings in hairy cell leukemia?

A

Massive splenomegaly

53
Q

What are the hallmark features of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?

A

AML is associated with Auer rods

54
Q

What is the most common age of onset for AML?

A

Median onset for AML is 65 years.

55
Q

What is the genetic abnormality in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)?

A

t(15;17) translocation is characteristic of APL.

56
Q

What treatment is used for acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)?

A

All-trans retinoic acid (vitamin A) and arsenic trioxide induce differentiation of promyelocytes.

57
Q

What genetic abnormality defines chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

A

CML is defined by the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)

58
Q

What are the hallmark findings in CML?

A

Dysregulated production of mature and maturing granulocytes (e.g.

59
Q

What phase can CML progress to?

A

CML may accelerate to AML or ALL in a “blast crisis.”

Patho (2 decks)

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