Neoplasia Principles and Oncogenes Flashcards

1
Q

What are 3 features that distinguish NEOPLASIA from hyperplasia or repair?

A

IRREVERSIBLE
UNREGULATED
MONOCLONAL (neoplastic cells derived from single mother cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can clonality of cells be determined to differentiate between NEOPLASIA and HYPERPLASIA/REPAIR? (2) Which chromosome are these two genes on?

A
  1. G6PD ISOFORMS - Maintained 1:1 ratio in POLYCLONAL HYPERPLASIA, not maintained ratio - only 1 isoform in MONOCLONAL NEOPLASIA
  2. ANDROGEN RECEPTOR ISOFORM

Both present on X-chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Ddx of an ENLARGED LYMPH NODE (Proliferation of lymphocytes)?

A
  1. Metastatic Cancer
  2. Reactive Hyperplasia - Lymph node enlargement in response to an infection
  3. Lymphoma (only tumor of the lymph node)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pt has an enlarged lymph node. Biopsy shows lymphocytic proliferation. Light chain study shows a Kappa:Lambda ratio of 20:1. What is my diagnosis?

A

STEP 1: Lymphocytic proliferation: 3 Ddx - Metastatic cancer, Reactive hyperplasia, and lymphoma
STEP 2: K:L ratio >6:1 = MONOCLONAL PROLIFERATION of B-lymphocytes

Diagnosis = LYMPHOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can clonality of B-lymphocytes be determined?

A

Ig LIGHT CHAIN PHENOTYPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What differentiates a POLYCLONAL HYPERPLASIA of B cells versus MONOCLONAL NEOPLASIA of B cells?

A

POLYCLONAL HYPERPLASIA: Normal kappa:lambda ratio - 3:1

MONOCLONAL NEOPLASIA: kappa:lambda > 6:1 (usually 20:1) OR inverted ratio (kappa:lambda = 1:3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following neoplasias are monoclonal: BENIGN neoplasia or MALIGNANT neoplasia?

A

BOTH are monoclonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main distinguishing character of BENIGN tumors vs MALIGNANT tumors?

A

BENIGN: Absolutely do NOT metastasize
MALIGNANT: Have the POTENTIAL to metastasize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the most common cancers by INCIDENCE in adults?

A
  1. BREAST/PROSTATE
  2. LUNG
  3. COLORECTAL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the most common cancers by MORTALITY in adults?

A
  1. LUNG - Less common than breast/prostate BUT highest mortality BECAUSE of lack of early detection (NO PRACTICAL SCREENING MECHANISM) - Presents clinically LATE
  2. BREAST/PROSTATE
  3. COLORECTAL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many divisions occur from the SINGLE MUTATED CANCER CELL (monoclonal proliferation) before clinical symptoms arise?

A

30 DIVISIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between DYSPLASIA and CANCER?

A

Dysplasia: REVERSIBLE accumulation of mutations
Cancer: IRREVERSIBLE accumulation of mutations, grows unregulated and # of mutations increases with each division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of a PAP SMEAR?

A

To detect dysplastic precursor (CIN - cervical intraepithlial neoplasia I, II, III) before it becomes carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of a MAMMOGRAPHY?

A
  1. To detect ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) before it invades the BV and lymph - Calcifications often seen within DCIS
  2. To detect invasive carcinoma (>1cm) before it becomes clinically palpable (>2cm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of a PSA and DRE?

A

To detect prostate carcinoma before it spreads
Prostate carcinoma arises on the POSTERIOR PERIPHERAL aspect and is thus clinically silent (unlike BPH which arises in the center and compresses on urethra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of a HEMOCCULT TEST and COLONOSCOPY?

A
  1. To detect colonic adenoma before it progresses into colonic carcinoma (Adenoma-carcinoma sequence)
  2. To detect carcinoma before it spreads and shows clinical Sx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is AFLATOXIN? What is the associated cancer?

A

AFLATOXIN = CHEMICAL TOXIN released by ASPERGILLUS that contaminated stored rice/grains

HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pt had chemotherapy. 5 years later, pt develops LEUKEMIA/LYMPHOMA. What is the most likely cause?

A

ALKYLATING AGENT DRUG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 2 most common carcinogens that increase the risk of SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF THE OROPHARYNX?

A

ALCOHOL

TOBACCO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ALCOHOL is a carcinogen that increases the risk of which cancers?

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF OROPHARYNX
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF UPPER ESOPHAGUS
PANCREATIC CARCINOMA [Alcoholism -> Pancreatitis]
HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA [Alcoholism -> Cirrhosis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you test for ARSENIC POISONING?

A

Clip the fingernails and sometimes remove the hair - ARSENIC can be found in the hair [HAIR and FINGERNAILS = derivatives of skin]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ARSENIC is a carcinogen that increases the risk of which 3 carcinomas?

A
  1. SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF THE SKIN [Determine As poisoning by removing fingernails/hair - skin derivatives]
  2. LUNG CANCER [As - present in cigarette smoke]
  3. LIVER ANGIOSARCOMA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ASBESTOS exposure increases the risk of which 2 carcinomas?

A
  1. LUNG CARCINOMA

2. MESOTHELIOMA (Cancer that arises in the mesothelial cells of the pleura)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is ASBESTOS exposure more likely to lead to LUNG CANCER or MESOTHELIOMA?

A

LUNG CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most carcinogenic component of CIGARETTE SMOKE?

A

POLYCYCLIC HYDROCARBONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CIGARETTE SMOKE increases the risk of which 5 carcinomas?

A
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF OROPHARYNX
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF ESOPHAGUS
LUNG CARCINOMA 
RENAL CELL CARCINOMA 
BLADDER CARCINOMA 
(Urothelium - lines kidneys, ureters, bladders; cigarette smoking = most carcinogenic component enters blood, filtered, concentrated in urine and entire urothelial system is bathed in smoke)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are NITROSAMINES? Which carcinoma does this increase the risk of?

A

CARCINOGEN found in smoked foods - Associated with STOMACH CARCINOMA
Responsible for high rate of stomach carcinoma in Japan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which type of STOMACH CARCINOMA (Intestinal type OR diffuse type) are NITROSAMINES associated with?

A

INTESTINAL TYPE STOMACH CARCINOMA - 3 risks: Chronic h.pylori gastritis + nitrosamines + Blood type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is NAPHTHYLAMINE? Which carcinoma is it most associated with?

A

NAPHTHYLAMINE - Derived from cigarette smoke

Most associated with UROTHELIAL CARCINOMA OF BLADDER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the carcinogen present in PLASTIC PIPES? (History/Epidemiological Study: Occupational exposure of this carcinogen resulted in a HIGH INCIDENCE of which cancer?)

A

PVC - POLYVINYL CHLORIDE

LIVER ANGIOSARCOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Occupational exposure of Ni, Cr, Be, or SILICA increases the risk of which carcinoma?

A

LUNG CARCINOMA

32
Q

CHINESE MALE or AFRICAN INDIVIDUAL with an EBV infection is most at risk for developing which carcinoma?
What other carcinomas is EBV infection related to?

A

NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA-Chinese male/Individual in Africa [NECK MASS - very early metastasis to the localized lymph nodes]
Also associated with BURKITT LYMPHOMA + LYMPHOMA (in AIDS pt)

33
Q

Which carcinoma is HHV-8 infection most related to? What are the 3 most common pt populations

A

KAPOSI SARCOMA = Low-grade malignant proliferation of endothelial cells
OLD EASTERN EUROPEAN MALES, AIDS, Tx RECIPIENTS

34
Q

Which carcinoma is HBV and HCV most associated with?

A

HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA

35
Q

Which carcinoma is HLTV-1 infection most associated with?

A

ADULT T-CELL LEUKEMIA/LYMPHOMA

36
Q

Which carcinomas are HIGH RISK HPV (16,18,31,33) most associated with?

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA OF VULVA/ ANUS/ CERVIX

ADENOCARCINOMA OF CERVIX

37
Q

IONIZING RADIATION increases the risk of which 3 carcinomas? How does ionizing radiation do this?

A

AML
CML
Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

Ionizing radiation generates OH free radicals in the water within tissue -> Damages DNA -> Accumulation of mutations -> Carcinoma

38
Q

What is the most common source of NON-IONIZING RADIATION? Which 3 carcinomas does this increase the risk of? How?

A

UVB Sunlight -> Results in formation of TOO MANY PYRIMIDINE DIMERS in DNA (normally excised by restriction endonuclease) -> Increases risk of:

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
BASAL CELL CARCINOMA
MELANOMA OF SKIN

39
Q

Which genetic disorder results in a predisposition to SQUAMOUS CELL/BASAL CELL CARINOMA/MELANOMA OF SKIN with exposure to UVB sunlight (NON-IONIZING RADIATION)?

A

XERODERMA PIGMENTOSUM: Deficiency of RESTRICTION ENDONUCLEASE - that is involved in nucleotide excision repair (nicking the pyrimidine dimers formed by sunlight)

40
Q

What are the 5 possible categories of PROTO-ONCOGENES?

A
  1. GROWTH FACTOR
  2. GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR
  3. SIGNAL TRANSDUCER
  4. NUCLEAR REGULATORS
  5. CELL CYCLE REGULATORS
41
Q

How does a proto-oncogene mutation result in CANCER?

A

Proto-oncogene normally is essential for cell growth and differentiation. Mutation of proto-oncogene -> ONCOGENE

ONCOGENE = undifferentiated cell growth

42
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 1: What mutation causes an ASTROCYTOMA?

A

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA
ASTROCYTOMA = Over-expression of Growth factor PLATELET-DERIVED GROWTH FACTOR B (PDGFB) -> Results in an AUTOCRINE LOOP

AUTOCRINE LOOP: PDGFB binds to PDGFB-R on astrocytes -> Signals to nucleus -> overgrowth of astrocytes (uncontrolled growth)

43
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 2: What mutation causes a SUBSET OF BREAST CARCINOMA?

A

BREAST CARCINOMA (subset) = AMPLIFICATION of EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR (ERBB2 [HER2/NEU])

44
Q

Which medication is indicated for breast carcinomas that overexpress HER2/neu epidermal GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR?

A

TRASTUZUMAB = anti-Her2/neu mAb

45
Q

What mutation is associated with MEN2A, MEN2B, and SPORADIC MEDULLARY CARCINOMA of the THYROID?

A

Point mutation in RET (TYROSINE KINASE RECEPTOR = NEURAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR) of neural crest cell origin

46
Q

What is MEN2A? What is MEN2B? What is MEN1? What is the inheritance pattern of all 3 of these?

A

MEN1= 3P’s - PANCREATIC ADENOMAS, PITUITARY ADENOMAS, PARATHYROID

MEN 2A = 2P’S - PARATHYROID + PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA + MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THYROID
MEN2B = 1P - PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA + MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THYROID + MUCOSAL NEUROMAS (Oral/intestinal ganglioneuromatosis)

All AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT: “Men think that they’re dominant”

47
Q

Pt presents with PARATHYROID ADENOMA and PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA. Why is it important to do a RET testing?

A

Do RET testing to test for MEN2A

If RET is +, do a PROPHYLACTIC THYROIDECTOMY BEFORE a medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (FATAL) presents!

48
Q

Pt presents with PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA and ORAL GANGLIONEUROMATOSIS. Why is it important to do a RET testing?

A

Do RET testing to test for MEN2B

If RET is +, do a PROPHYLACTIC THYROIDECTOMY BEFORE a medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (FATAL) presents!

49
Q

Which MEN syndrome is associated with MARFAN?

A

MEN2B = PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA + MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THYROID + MUCOSAL NEUROMA

50
Q

What mutation is associated with GI STROMAL TUMOR?

A

Point mutation in KIT = stem cell GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR

51
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 3: What mutation is associated with a very BROAD range of carcinomas [eg. colonic adenocarcinoma], melanomas, and lymphomas?

A

Point mutation in RAS-gene family protein (=GTP-binding protein SIGNAL TRANSDUCER molecule)

52
Q

Explain the biochemistry of how RAS over-activation can result in an oncogenic transformation to cancer.

A

INACTIVE Ras: Ras-GDP
ACTIVE Ras: Ras-GTP -> Can transduce signal to nucleus (Do NOT want too much signal to be transduced to the nucleus)

GTP-ase associated protein (GAP) closely linked to Ras: Hydrolyzes and inactivates Ras-GTP to Ras-GDP

GAP mutation -> Ras persistently in ACTIVE form [Ras-GTP] -> Excessive signal transduction to nucleus -> CANCER

53
Q

What mutation DEFINES CML and adult form of ALL (poor prognosis)?

A

t(9;22) translocation with BCR -> Results in mutation and overexpression of ABL (=TYROSINE KINASE SIGNAL TRANSDUCER)

54
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 4: What mutation is associated with BURKITT LYMPHOMA?

A

t(8;14) translocation with IgH = heavy chain (Chrom14) and c-Myc (Chrom 8) -> Mutation and over-expression of c-MYC (=NUCLEAR TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR)

55
Q

What mutation is associated with NEUROBLASTOMA?

A

Amplification of N-MYC (NUCLEAR TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR)

N-myc for Neuroblastoma

56
Q

What mutation is associated with LUNG CARCINOMA (small cell) - associated with lambert-eaton, SIADH, cushing?

A

Amplification of L-myc (=NUCLEAR TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR)

Lung for L-myc

57
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 5: What is the mutation associated with MANTLE CELL LYMPHOMA?

A

t(11;14) translocation of Cyclin D1 (=CELL CYCLE REGULATOR) on Chrom 11 with IgHeavy chain locus on Chrom 14 -> Massive overexpression of cyclin D1 = CHECKPOINT ALLOWS G1 -> S phase transition
**G1->S phase is the most regulated step of the cell cycle

58
Q

Which mutation (HINT: cell cycle regulator) is most commonly associated with MELANOMA?

A

Amplification of CDK4 (cyclin dependent kinase)

59
Q

How does a proto-oncogene mutation result in CANCER?

A

Proto-oncogene normally is essential for cell growth and differentiation. Mutation of proto-oncogene -> ONCOGENE

ONCOGENE = undifferentiated cell growth

60
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 1: What mutation causes an ASTROCYTOMA?

A

ASTROCYTOMA = Over-expression of Growth factor PLATELET-DERIVED GROWTH FACTOR B (PDGFB) -> Results in an AUTOCRINE LOOP

AUTOCRINE LOOP: PDGFB binds to PDGFB-R on astrocytes -> Signals to nucleus -> overgrowth of astrocytes (uncontrolled growth)

61
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 2: What mutation causes a SUBSET OF BREAST CARCINOMA?

A

BREAST CARCINOMA (subset) = AMPLIFICATION of EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR (ERBB2 [HER2/NEU])

62
Q

Which medication is indicated for breast carcinomas that overexpress HER2/neu epidermal GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR?

A

TRASTUZUMAB = anti-Her2/neu mAb

63
Q

What mutation is associated with MEN2A, MEN2B, and SPORADIC MEDULLARY CARCINOMA of the THYROID?

A

Point mutation in RET (TYROSINE KINASE RECEPTOR = NEURAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR) of neural crest cell origin

64
Q

What is MEN2A? What is MEN2B? What is MEN1? What is the inheritance pattern of all 3 of these?

A

MEN1= 3P’s - PANCREATIC ADENOMAS, PITUITARY ADENOMAS, PARATHYROID

MEN 2A = 2P’S - PARATHYROID + PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA + MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THYROID
MEN2B = 1P - PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA + MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THYROID + MUCOSAL NEUROMAS (Oral/intestinal ganglioneuromatosis)

All AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT: “Men think that they’re dominant”

65
Q

Pt presents with PARATHYROID ADENOMA and PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA. Why is it important to do a RET testing?

A

Do RET testing to test for MEN2A

If RET is +, do a PROPHYLACTIC THYROIDECTOMY BEFORE a medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (FATAL) presents!

66
Q

Pt presents with PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA and ORAL GANGLIONEUROMATOSIS. Why is it important to do a RET testing?

A

Do RET testing to test for MEN2B

If RET is +, do a PROPHYLACTIC THYROIDECTOMY BEFORE a medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (FATAL) presents!

67
Q

Which MEN syndrome is associated with MARFAN?

A

MEN2B = PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA + MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THYROID + MUCOSAL NEUROMA

68
Q

What mutation is associated with GI STROMAL TUMOR?

A

Point mutation in KIT = stem cell GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR

69
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 3: What mutation is associated with a very BROAD range of carcinomas [eg. colonic adenocarcinoma], melanomas, and lymphomas?

A

Point mutation in RAS-gene family protein (=GTP-binding protein SIGNAL TRANSDUCER molecule)

70
Q

Explain the biochemistry of how RAS over-activation can result in an oncogenic transformation to cancer.

A

INACTIVE Ras: Ras-GDP
ACTIVE Ras: Ras-GTP -> Can transduce signal to nucleus (Do NOT want too much signal to be transduced to the nucleus)

GTP-ase associated protein (GAP) closely linked to Ras: Hydrolyzes and inactivates Ras-GTP to Ras-GDP

GAP mutation -> Ras persistently in ACTIVE form [Ras-GTP] -> Excessive signal transduction to nucleus -> CANCER

71
Q

What mutation DEFINES CML and adult form of ALL (poor prognosis)?

A

t(9;22) translocation with BCR -> Results in mutation and overexpression of ABL (=TYROSINE KINASE SIGNAL TRANSDUCER)

72
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 4: What mutation is associated with BURKITT LYMPHOMA?

A

t(8;14) translocation with IgH = heavy chain (Chrom14) and c-Myc (Chrom 8) -> Mutation and over-expression of c-MYC (=NUCLEAR TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR)

73
Q

What mutation is associated with NEUROBLASTOMA?

A

Amplification of N-MYC (NUCLEAR TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR)

N-myc for Neuroblastoma

74
Q

What mutation is associated with LUNG CARCINOMA (small cell) - associated with lambert-eaton, SIADH, cushing?

A

Amplification of L-myc (=NUCLEAR TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR)

Lung for L-myc

75
Q

PROTO-ONCOGENE CLASS 5: What is the mutation associated with MANTLE CELL LYMPHOMA?

A

t(11;14) translocation of Cyclin D1 (=CELL CYCLE REGULATOR) on Chrom 11 with IgHeavy chain locus on Chrom 14 -> Massive overexpression of cyclin D1 = CHECKPOINT ALLOWS G1 -> S phase transition
**G1->S phase is the most regulated step of the cell cycle

76
Q

Which mutation (HINT: cell cycle regulator) is most commonly associated with MELANOMA?

A

Amplification of CDK4 (cyclin dependent kinase)