Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pathological Processes > Neoplasia > Flashcards

Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general definition of a neoplasm?

Is it reversible?

A

An abnormal growth of cells that persists after the initial stimulus is removed
No, it is irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of a “malignant neoplasm”

A

An abnormal growth of cells that persists after the initial stimulus is removed AND invades surrounding tissue with potential to spread to distant sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Any malignant neoplasm is known as what more commonly?

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a metastasis?

A

A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site to a new NON-CONTIGUOUS site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can metastases spread around the bodywork new sites?

A

In the blood, lymphatics or in fluid body cavities (pleura, peritoneal/ pericardial cavities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is dysplasia?

Is it reversible?

A

Dysplasia is a PRE-neoplastic alteration in which cells show disordered tissue organisation or altered differentiation
Yes it is reversible- makes it different from neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do benign and malignant neoplasms appear different to the naked eye?

A

Benign tumours: grow in confined local area and so have a pushed outer margin

Malignant tumours: irregular outer margin and shape, may show areas of necrosis and ulceration on the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do benign neoplasms differ from malignant neoplasms under a microscope?

A

Benign neoplasms:
Cells closely resemble parent tissue i.e. They ware well differentiated

Malignant neoplasms:
Range from well to poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name given to cells with no resemblance to any tissues?

A

Anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In terms of differentiation, benign tumours are what compared to malignant?

A

Benign tumours are well differentiated

Malignant tumours range from well to poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Worsening differentiation causes individual cells to have what features?

A

Increasing nuclear size
Increasing nuclear o cytoplasmic ratio
Increased nuclear staining (hyperchromasia)
More mitotic figures
Increasing variation in size and shape of cells and nuclei (pleomorphism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In terms of differentiation, what is the difference between a high grade and a low grade tumour?

A

High grade- poor differentation

Low grade- well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are three features of poorly differentiated tissue and the grades that they relate to?

A

Grade 1. Tubules
Grade 2. Mitoses
Grade 3. Nuclear pleomorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Neoplasia is caused by an accumulation of what?

A

Mutations in somatic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Approximately how much of cancer risk is determined by external factors?

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mutations in somatic are caused by what?

Cell proliferation in these mutated cells is caused by what?

A

Initiators

Promotors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name some main initiators of mutations

Can these initiators ever act as promotors?

A

Chemicals
Infections
Radiation

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What process is followed by initiation and promotion during the formation of a neoplasm?

What happens during this process?

A

Progression

Expansion of monoclonal populations and the accumulation of yet more mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do we know that neoplasms are monoclonal?

A

From a study of C-linked gene for G6P- one heat stable and one heat liable version

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do we mean when we say that a cell colony is monoclonal?

A

We mean that all the cells originate from a single founding cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Genetic alterations affect what type of genes?

A

Proto-oncogenes

Tumour suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When proto- oncogenes become abnormally activated they are called what?

What formation do these genes favour?

A

Oncogenes

Neoplastic formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The organised system for naming neoplasms take into account what?

A

The neoplasm’s site of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Benign neoplasms end in what?

A

-oma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Malignant neoplasms end in what?
- carcinoma (epithelial) | - sarcoma (stromal)
26
Malignant neoplasm of blood-forming cells is called what?
Leukaemia
27
Malignant neoplasm of lymphocytes is known as what?
Lymphoma
28
What is the name given to malignant neoplasms of plasma cells?
Myeloma
29
What does the "stage" of neoplasms relate to? | Give the meaning of stages I-IV
Stage is a measure of tumour burden I- small, at primary stage II- bigger but still at primary stage III-regional spread IV- wide spread, enormous tumour burden
30
What are the two most lethal features of a malignant neoplasm?
Invasion | Metastasis
31
What 3 things (+ one bonus) must malignant cells do to get from a primary site to a secondary site?
1. Grow and invade at primary site 2. Enter a transport system and lodge at secondary site 3. Colonisation: Grow at secondary site and form a new tumour (4.at all points the cells must evade immune destruction)
32
What three important alterations dues invasion into surrounding tissue involve? What are these three changes together called?
Adhesion Proteolysis (stromal) Motility Epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT)
33
Which cells contribute to the "cancer niche" to aid the invasion by neoplastic cells?
Stroma Fibroblasts Endothelial cells Inflammatory cells
34
What is the name given to the spread of neoplastic cells via fluid in body cavities?
Transcoelomic spread
35
What is considered to be the greatest barrier to successful formation of metastasis?
Colonisation (many malignant cells lodge at secondary sites but die or faint to grow into clinically detectable tumours)
36
What is the name given to surviving microscopic deposits that fail to grow?
Micrometastases
37
Why do relapses occur in clinically "disease free" patients?
Micrometastases can lay dormant for years for a change in the micro environment and a chance to then proliferate
38
What determines the site of the secondary tumour?
1. Regional drainage- can predict based on anatomy | 2. "Seed and soil" phenomenon - the niche at the secondary site
39
Blood bourne metastases are often spread where? | Why?
Lung, bone, liver and brain | These organs have a rich blood supply
40
Which neoplasms most frequently spread to bone?
``` Breast Bronchus Kidney Thyroid Prostate ```
41
The likelihood of a metastasis is related to what?
The size of the primary neoplasm
42
How can the effects a neoplasm has on the host be defined?
Local (benign) - Primary - Secondary Systemic - Burden - Hormones - Miscellaneous
43
Name four local effects of primary and secondary neoplasms
1. Direct invasion and destruction of normal tissue 2. Ulceration at a surface leading to bleeding 3. Compression of adjacent structures 4. Blocking tubes and orifices
44
Name some systemic effects of neoplasms on the host
Tumour burden- weight loss, decreased appetite, malaise, immunosuppression Hormone secretion- Hyperthyroidism Cushing's disease Miscellaneous: Skin problems Fever Finger clubbing
45
The cause of neoplasia is based on both ________ and _________ factors
Intrinsic | Extrinsic
46
Malignant neoplasms caused by 2-napthylamine showed what three things in relation to carcinogenesis?
1. There is a long delay (sometimes years) between exposure and malignant neoplasm onset 2. The risk of cancer depends on the total carcinogen dosage 3. There is sometimes organ specificity
47
Is the sequence in which carcinogens are administered relevant/important? Why?
Yes, it is critical | Initiators must be given first, followed by promoters- need both for long periods, not just one or both for short period
48
What does the Ames test show?
That initiators are mutagens while promoters cause prolonged proliferation in target tissues
49
In the Ames test, how does the number of colonies relate to the mutagenicity of carcinogens?
The greater the number of colonies, the more mutanogenic the carcinogen
50
Why does the Ames test require the addition of rat liver extract?
For the cleavage of pro-carcinogens into carcinogens by Cytochrome P450
51
A compound that acts as an initiator and a promotor is known as what?
A complete carcinogen
52
What is radiation (broadly)?
Any type of energy passing through space
53
Give some examples of radiation
UV light | Ionising radiation- X-rays, nuclear radiation (alpha,beta,gamma)
54
Does radiation damage DNA directly or indirectly? | How?
Both Direct: Altered bases misreading- point mutations single/double strand DNA breaks - chromosomal abnormalities Indirect: Free radicals
55
How do infections act as carcinogens both directly and indirectly?
Directly: Affect genes that control cell growth Indirect: Chronic tissue injury (regenerated tissue acts as promoter or causes new mutations from replication errors)
56
Give an example of an infection that is directly carcinogenic How does it has this effect?
HPV | Expresses E6 and E7 proteins that inhibit p53 and pRb
57
Give an example of an infection that is an indirect carcinogen How does it have this effect?
Hepatitis (B and C) | Cause chronic cell injury ad regeneration
58
How can the "two hit" hypothesis be used to explain the difference between familial cancers and those in the general population?
Familial cancers: 1st hit- germline mutation 2nd hit: somatic mutation Sporadic cancer: 1st hit: somatic mutation 2nd hit: somatic mutation
59
How many "hits" are needed in order for tumoursupressor genes to cause neoplastic growth?
Two hits- inactivate both alleles
60
How many "hits" are needed for proto-oncogenes to cause neoplastic growth?
One hit | Only one allele needs to be activated
61
Which was the first human oncogene to be discovered?
RAS
62
What does the RAS proto-oncogene encode?
A small G protein that relays signals into the cell and eventually pushes the cell past the cell cycle restriction point
63
How does mutant RAS exert its damaging effects?
By encoding a protein that is always active and therefore produces a constant signal to pass though the cell cycle's restriction point
64
Give some examples of proto-oncogenes
``` HER2 PDGF RAS BCL2 CYCLIN D ```
65
Give an example of a tumour suppressor gene
TP53
66
Xeroderma Pigmentisum (XP) is due to mutations in what genes?
DNA repair - Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)
67
What genes are mutated in the inherited cancer syndrome HNPCC? What does this lead to?
Mismatch repair genes Microsatellite instability
68
Which genes are mutated in the inherited cancer syndrome that promotes breast and ovarian cancer development? What does this lead to?
Double-strand break repair genes Chromosomal instability
69
Cancer evolves by what three stages?
Initiation Promotion Progression
70
Cancer mutations affect which six hallmark cellular behaviours?
1. Self-sufficiency in growth factors 2. Resistance to growth stop signals 3. No limit to no. Of cell divisions 4. Sustained ability to induce new blood vessels 5. Resistance to apoptosis 6. Ability to invade and produce metastases
71
Which four cancers account for 50% of all new cancers worldwide?
Breast Lung Bowel Prostate
72
Tumour stage is a measure of what? | What is the commonest way of measuring tumour stage?
The malignant neoplasm's overall burden | TNM staging system
73
Explain how the TNM staging system works and how this corresponds to stages I,II,III and IV
T= Tumour size N=Lymph node metastases (regional) M=Metastasise in the blood (distant) Stage I = local disease Stage II = advanced local disease Stage III= regional mets. Stage IV= advanced disease, distant mets.
74
What is the name of the staging system used for lymphoma?
Ann Arbor
75
Explain the staging used in the Ann Abor system for classifying lymphoma
Stage I- lymphoma in a single node region Stage II- two separate regions node regions on the same side of the diaphragm Stage III- two separate node regions on different sides of the diaphragm Stage IV- diffuse/disseminated lymphoma, involving one or more extra-lymphatic organ(s)
76
Staging is a powerful indicator of what?
Survival
77
Give an example of a staging system used for colorectal cancer and how it is classified based on these stages
Dukes Dukes' A- Invasion into but not through the bowel Dukes' B- Invasion through the bowel wall Dukes' C- Involvement of lymph nodes Dukes' D- Distant metastases
78
What is meant by tumour "grade"?
Tumour grade is the degree of differentiation in a neoplasm
79
Typically, how does grading correspond to differences in the differentation of neoplams?
G1: well-differentiated G2: moderately differentiated G3: poorly differentiated G4: undifferentiated, anaplastic
80
Staging of cancer is important for what?
Planning treatment and estimating progress
81
What is the name given to the system that is used to stage breast carcinoma?
Bloom-Richardson system
82
How does the Bloom-Richardson system categorise different stages of breast cancer?
Uses 3 criteria: 1- Tubule formation 2- Number of mitoses 3- Nuclear pleomorphism
83
What are the broad treatment methods for cancer?
Surgery!!!!! this is the curative treatment Radiotherapy Chemotherapy Hormone therapy Treatment targeted to molecular alterations Immune therapy
84
What is the purpose of using fractionated doses of radiation during radiotherapy?
To minimise damage to healthy/surrounding tissue
85
How does radiotherapy work?
The ionising radiation targets cells that are rapidly proliferating (especially in G2) by causing DNA damage and triggering apoptosis

Pathological Processes (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions