Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PATH > Neoplasia > Flashcards

Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

New growth

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Loss of normal growth control; cells start doing their own thing, “transformed”

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Parasitic and autonomous qualities

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Study of neoplasms (tumors)

A

`Oncology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the spectrum of neoplasia?

A

Benign -> locally aggressive -> intermediate malignant -> malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 anatomic components of tumors?

A

Parenchyma
Stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neoplastic cells; determines how a tumor is named

A

Parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Supporting CT and vasculature

A

Stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Degree of resemblance of tumor cells to parent cells

A

Differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dedifferentiated or undifferentiated

A

Anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

More resemblance between tumor cells and parent cells

A

Well differentiated (“low grade”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Little resemblance between tumor cells and parent cells

A

Poorly differentiated (“high grade”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does increased/abnormal DNA replication lead to (“poorly differentiated”)?

A

Pleomorphism
Nuclear hyperchromatism
Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
Atypical nuclei
Numerous and atypical mitoses
Prominent nucleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is seen under the microscope in precancerous epithelial tissues undergoing dysplasia?

A

Disorderly maturation, pleomorphism, mitotic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A microscopic, potentially reversible, altered growth or maturation pattern

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dysplastic changes involving the full thickness of the epithelium

A

Carcinoma in-situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In epithelial tissues (cervix, oral mucosa), it is precancerous and may progress to malignancy

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In bone lesions, it does NOT imply a precancerous state, just altered growth

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Arises from surface epithelium (Squamous-
skin, larynx, tongue; Transitional- bladder,
ureter, renal pelvis)

A

Papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Still a pre-invasive (precancerous) state, so
not cancer

A

Carcinoma in-situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Benign tumor of glandular epithelium; can have many variants

A

Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Known as the most advanced stage of dysplasia

A

Carcinoma in-situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Named for appearance- finger-like epithelial
projections overlying cores of vascular fibrous CT

A

Papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characterized by adenomatous papillary processes that extend into cystic spaces, as in cystadenoma of the ovary

A

Papillary cystadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clinical appearance, anatomic site, or cell type (root word) + “oma”

A

Benign epithelial tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most often named by tissue of origin

A

Benign mesenchymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fibrous tissue (benign mesenchymal)

A

Fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Disorganized tissue at unexpected site (non-neoplastic)

A

Choristoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Skeletal muscle (benign mesenchymal)

A

Rhabdomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Root word anatomically or cellularly + “Carcinoma”

A

Malignant epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the notable malignant -oma exceptions?

A

Lymphoma
Melanoma
Mesothelioma
Seminoma
Glioblastoma
Hepatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cartilaginous (benign mesenchymal)

A

Chondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bone (benign mesenchymal)

A

Osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Smooth muscle (benign mesenchymal)

A

Leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fat (benign mesenchymal)

A

Lipoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma (salivary), fibroadenoma (breast)- only fibrous portion is neoplastic

A

Benign mixed tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vessels (benign mesenchymal)

A

Angioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Synonym of malignant

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A mass that projects above a mucosal surface

A

Polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Neoplasm with cells derived from more than 1 germ layer, totipotent cells

A

Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Disorganized tissue native to the site (non-neoplastic generally)

A

Hamartoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the notable non-neoplastic -oma exceptions?

A

Granuloma (group of macrophages)
Hematoma (bruise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

From squamous epithelium (skin, mouth, esophagus, vagina) or areas of squamous metaplasia (bronchi or cervix)

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Marked by production of keratin

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

From urinary tract epithelium

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Glandular origin; includes tumors of GI, mucosa, endometrium, pancreas

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The root word anatomically/cellularly +
“Sarcoma

A

Malignant mesenchymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Often shows desmoplasia

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cartilaginous (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fibrous (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Fibrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Smooth muscle (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Leiomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bone (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Skeletal muscle (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Vessels (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Angiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which one is correctly matched?
a. chondroma, non-neoplastic collection of tissue not native to the site
b. angioma, malignant tumor of blood vessels
c. pleomorphic adenoma, a high-grade malignancy of glandular epithelium
d. rhabdomyoma, benign tumor of skeletal muscle

A

d. rhabdomyoma, benign tumor of skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fat (malignant mesenchymal)

A

Liposarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Burkitt lymphoma
Hodgkin disease/lymphoma
Wilm’s tumor

A

Eponyms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name some words often added to describe variants of a tumor’s appearance under the microscope

A

Cystic, papillary, tubular, solid, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Benign or malignant?
Clinical presentation:
Non-cancerous
Slow growing
Local, does not spread, may cause local damage
Surgically removable
Survivable - good prognosis

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth is slow (months to years)

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Benign or malignant?
Clinical presentation:
Cancerous
Rapid growth
Invade and destroy adjacent tissue
Metastasis = defining feature
Can cause death - poor prognosis

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Benign or malignant?
Microscopic:
Well-differentiated
Normal mitoses
Encapsulation

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the hallmark of malignancy?

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Benign or malignant?
Microscopic:
Well to poorly differentiated (or anaplastic)
Atypical mitoses
Non-encapsulated

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth affected by hormones, blood supply, pressure constraints

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth is variable, may be rapid

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benign or malignant?
Local invasion is destructive and no capsule

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth may outgrow blood supply, leading to necrosis

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benign or malignant?
Local invasion beyond anatomic tissue boundaries

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benign or malignant?
Local invasion capsule at periphery

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Benign or malignant?
Crosses over anatomical boundaries (ex: nose up to brain)

A

Malignant

37
Q

What percentage of newly diagnosed malignant tumors have clinically evident metastases?

A

30% (early detection is important!)

37
Q

What does the capacity of metastasis depend on?

A

Tumor type

37
Q

In what ways does malignancy spread?

A

Seeding in body cavities
Lymphatic spread
Hematogenous (blood) spread
Paths of least resistance

38
Q

What type of malignancy spread?
Ovarian cancer

A

Seeding in body cavities

38
Q

What type of malignancy spread?
Lung and liver are common vsecondary sites

A

Hematogenous (blood) spread

38
Q

More anaplastic, larger tumor = _______ likely to spread

A

more

38
Q

What type of malignancy spread?
Sarcomas

A

Hematogenous (blood) spread

38
Q

What type of malignancy spread?
Batson’s venous plexus - along vertebral column, potential spread to jaw

A

Path of least resistance

38
Q

What type of malignancy spread?
Carcinomas

A

Lymphatic spread

39
Q

What type of malignancy spread?
Neural spread

A

Path of least resistance

40
Q

What are the steps of neoplasm formation?

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression

40
Q

Genetic changes are heritable with the
accumulation of mutations leading to
characteristic features of cancer; however,
actual inherited cancers are ____________

A

infrequent

40
Q

Cancer is a _________ disorder- mostly from acquired random mutations during regular ______ ___________ (Bad luck!) or from environmental exposure

A

genetic; cell division

41
Q

Cancer is a _____________ process. It does not just happen from one time of “bad luck”

A

multi-step

41
Q

What step of neoplasm formation?
Carcinogen exposure causing genetic damage and single cell (“monoclonal”) growth

A

Initiation

42
Q

Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Increase growth

A

Proto-oncogenes

43
Q

What step of neoplasm formation?
Additional genetic damage over time leads to heterogenous population of cells (visible clinically)

A

Promotion

43
Q

Name 3 carcinogens that can cause a neoplasm to form

A

Chemicals
Radiant energy
Microbial agents (ex: viruses like HPV, EBV)

43
Q

What step of neoplasm formation?
Evolution and selection of more aggressive tumors capable of metastasis that are less responsive to treatment

A

Progression

44
Q

Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill cells with unrepaired genetic damage

A

Tumor cell/host cell interaction genes

44
Q

What kind of cancers do children usually get?

A

Leukemia, lymphoma, sarcoma, CNS tumor

44
Q

What are the 4 major classes of cancer genes that control growth?

A

Proto-oncogenes
Tumor suppressor genes
Apoptosis regulation genes
Tumor cell/host cell interaction genes

45
Q

Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Stop cell growth and help in DNA repair

A

Tumor suppressor genes

45
Q

What is the classic example of a tumor suppressor gene?

A

TP53 (aka p53)

46
Q

Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Determine cell death

A

Apoptosis regulation genes

46
Q

Name the 4 hallmarks of cancer highlighted in class

A

Self-sufficiency in growth signals (oncogenes)
Insensitivity to growth inhibition (tumor suppressor genes)
Evasion of apoptosis (apoptosis regulation genes)
Evasion of immune system (tumor cell/host interaction genes)

47
Q

The immune system (cell-mediated) helps prevent what?

A

Tumor formation/progression

47
Q

Has the overall death rate increased or decreased?

A

Decreased (less smoking, earlier detection, better tx)

47
Q

What is the evidence that the immune system helps prevent tumor formation and progression?

A

Increased frequency of cancer in immunocompromised (ex: congenital, transplant, AIDS)

48
Q

What is the target and indication of Herceptin?

A

Target = HER2/neu
Indication = breast cancer

48
Q

Uses endogenous or synthetic substances to improve or restore immune system function to fight cancer

A

Immunotherapy

48
Q

What is the target and indication of Rituximab?

A

Target = CD20
Indication = B-NHL

49
Q

What is the target and indication of Certuximab?

A

Target = EGFR
Indication = Head, neck, oral cancer

49
Q

Has the overall incidence rate increased or decreased for women and men?

A

Increased for women
Stable for men

49
Q

What does epidemiology help with?

A

Preventing and reducing disease burden
Improving tx
Reducing cost
Predicting needs for resource allocation

49
Q

The majority of cancers are inherited.
About 1/3 of newly diagnosed malignancies have already metastasized.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

A

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

50
Q

Studying who (Age, gender) gets a tumor,
where they live (environmental risk
factors) and their family (genetic factors,
acquired predisposing conditions) helps identify etiology and pathogenesis

A

Epidemiology

50
Q

The branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health

A

Epidemiology

51
Q

What can help identify cancer risk factors?

A

Studying populations, habits, diets, and environmental exposures

52
Q

Which state has the highest incidence of new cancer cases and deaths in the US?

A

KY

52
Q

Name environmental exposures that are associated with increased cancer risk

A

Occupational
Chronic sun exposure
Smoking
Alcohol
Obesity
Oncogenic viruses (HPV)

53
Q

T/F: Older people are more likely to get cancer

A

TRUE

54
Q

What should you closely follow for early cancer detection?

A

Precursor (precancer/premalignant) lesions

54
Q

Risk for?
Oral, vulvar, and penile leukoplakia

A

Risk for squamous cell carcinoma

55
Q

Risk for?
Smoking induced squamous metaplasia
Dysplasia of bronchial mucosa

A

Risk for bronchogenic carcinoma

55
Q

Risk for?
Endometrial hyperplasia and dysplasia

A

Risk for endometrial carcinoma

56
Q

Risk for?
Villous adenoma of colon

A

Risk for colorectal carcinoma

57
Q

Are benign tumors premalignant?

A

Generally no

58
Q

Symptoms not related to tumor spread or hormone production

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

59
Q

Name the tumor effects on host

A

Location is crucial
Hormone production
Bleeding + infedction
Intestinal complications

60
Q

Affects 10-15% of cancer patients

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

61
Q

May indicate underlying neoplasm

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

62
Q

Can be lethal and can mimic metastatic disease

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

63
Q

Diverse and associated with many tumors

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

64
Q

Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Progressive loss of body fat and lead body mass with weakness, anorexia, and anemia

A

Cachexia

64
Q

Name the 4 Paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Cachexia
Hypercalcemia
Cushing syndrome
Hypercoagulability

65
Q

Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
High metabolic rate

A

Cachexia

65
Q

Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Caused by tumor and host cytokines, not due to tumor’s nutritional demands

A

Cachexia

66
Q

Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Due to release of PTHrP, TGF-a (activates osteoclasts and active vitamin D)

A

Hypercalcemia

67
Q

Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Ectopic ACTH production

A

Cushing syndrome

68
Q

Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Venous thrombosis and nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis

A

Hypercoagulability

69
Q

Estimates aggressiveness based on cytologic differentiation

A

Grading

69
Q

Goes from I - IV in order of increasing anaplasia

A

Grading

70
Q

Which has greater clinical value, grading or staging?

A

Staging

71
Q

Size of primary tumor and extent of regional and distant spread

A

Staging

71
Q

What does TNM system measure/stand for?

A

T = tumor size (1-4)
N = regional nodal involvement (0-3)
M = metastasis (0,1)

72
Q

TNM system

A

Staging

73
Q

AJC system (0-IV)

A

Staging

74
Q

Describe the diagnostic process

A

Chief complaint/history/exam
Analyze and form differential dx
Gather more data (imaging, bloodwork, biopsy)
Final dx
Tx
Re-eval, analyze

75
Q

What is required for a lab diagnosis of cancer?

A

Detailed clinical findings
Adequate, representative, properly preserved biopsy

76
Q

What do you put biopsied samples in?

A

Formalin

77
Q

What are the sampling approaches?

A

Cytologic smear
Biopsy

78
Q

What are the 2 types of cytologic smears?

A

Direct scraping
Fine needle aspiration

79
Q

Which type of cytologic smear?
Good for superficial fungal and herpes infections

A

Direct scraping

80
Q

Which type of cytologic smear?
Good for readily palpable lesions (breast, thyroid, lymph node, salivary gland)

A

Fine needle aspiration

81
Q

Which sampling approach?
Incisional (part of the tissue) or excisional (all abnormal tissue)

A

Biopsy

82
Q

____________ assistance ensures accurate sampling for internal lesions. Name a few examples

A

Ex: mammogram-guided, CT-guided, ultrasound-guided

83
Q

Routine samples are _________ fixed and embedded in paraffin wax (FFPE) for routine H&E staining.
This same tissue block can later be used for additional ______-based molecular tests (FISH, IHC, PCR etc.)

A

formalin; DNA

84
Q

Useful to determine the cellular differentiation of poorly differentiated tumor cells

A

Immunohistochemistry

85
Q

Useful in diagnosis of lymphomas to determine lineage (B or T cell) and differentiation stage and in treatment of B-cell lymphomas

A

Immunohistochemistry

86
Q

Requires fresh tissue (no formalin!)

A

Flow cytometry

87
Q

Helps classify leukemia and lymphoma

A

Flow cytometry

88
Q

What are the serologic markers for tumors?

A

PSA
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Alpha-fetoprotein

89
Q

Which serologic marker for tumors?
Low sensitivity and low specificity

A

PSA

90
Q

Which serologic marker for tumors?
Cancers of colon, pancreas, stomach, and breast

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

91
Q

Which serologic marker for tumors?
Hepatocellular carcinomas, yolk sac remnants

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

92
Q

Which serologic marker for tumors?
Not good for early detection, but GREAT for detecting reccurrences

A

PSA, CEA, and alpha-fetoprotein

93
Q

Uses body fluids that contain tumor cells or their products for screening, detecting, and monitoring cancer

A

Liquid biopsy

94
Q

Can detect monoclonality in lymphoid malignancies

A

PCR

95
Q

Translocations and gene amplification

A

FISH/PCR

96
Q

Name the 4 molecular techniques for molecular diagnosis

A

Prognostic and therapeutic monitoring
Residual disease
Hereditary predisposition (BRCA 1)
Targeted therapy

97
Q

Which molecular technique?
Tumors from different sites with similar mutations can be given similar drugs

A

Targeted therapy

98
Q

Rapid sequencing on entire genome

A

Genomics

99
Q

Can identify driver and passenger mutations that help target treatment

A

Genomics

100
Q

Epigenetic modifications genome-wide

A

Epigenomics

101
Q

Microarray quantifies all RNAs expressed

A

Transcriptomics

102
Q

Measure all proteins simultaneously

A

Proteomics

103
Q

Test all of the cell’s metabolites

A

Metabolomics

104
Q

T/F: RNA is easier to work with than DNA

A

FALSE, DNA is easier to work with

105
Q

Currently developing methods to sequence several hundred _____ _________ to detect mutations in as few as 5% of tumor cells

A

key genes

106
Q

Used to identify changes in DNA copy number

A

DNA arrays

107
Q

In the future, may be used to predict drug efficacy

A

Epigenomics

108
Q

In the future of cancer diagnostics, there will be a paradigm shift to classify tumors based on _____________ and associated therapeutic _________, rather than on morphology or cell origin

A

mutation; targets

109
Q

Optimal diagnosis and management combines what?

A

Histopathology + molecular diagnostic techniques

PATH (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions