Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PATHO I > Neoplasia > Flashcards

Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

The cells in the neoplasm are derived from a single […]

A

The cells in the neoplasm are derived from a single cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neoplastic cells are transformed cells that result in heritable genetic changes that are passed down to their […]

A

Neoplastic cells are transformed cells that result in heritable genetic changes that are passed down to their progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Benign neoplasms are typically innocent as they are […] meaning they are similar to their normal ancestor cell

A

Benign neoplasms are typically innocent as they are well-differentiated meaning they are similar to their normal ancestor cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Malignant neoplasms are the same as […] and may be “well-differentiated” but typically […] is present

A

Malignant neoplasms are the same as cancer and may be “well-differentiated” but typically anaplasia is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

[…], or loss of normal cellular features, is a hallmark of malignancy

A

Anaplasia, or loss of normal cellular features, is a hallmark of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[…] tumors remain localized, can be surgically removed, and rarely cause serious disease

A

Benign tumors remain localized, can be surgically removed, and rarely cause serious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

[…] tumors destory & invade local tissues and can metastasize

A

Malignant tumors destory & invade local tissues and can metastasize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Expansive mitotic figures is a feature of […] tumors

A

Expansive mitotic figures is a feature of malignant tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Carcinoma […] means there is dysplasia throughout the entire epithelium

A

Carcinoma in-situ means there is dysplasia throughout the entire epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Carcinoma in-situ is a non-invasive form of malignancy as the neoplasm has not invaded underlying […]

A

Carcinoma in-situ is a non-invasive form of malignancy as the neoplasm has not invaded underlying basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The suffic […] means swelling

A

The suffic -oma means swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The prefix […] is added if the tumor is malignant and of epithelial origin

A

The prefix carcin- is added if the tumor is malignant and of epithelial origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The prefix […] is added to a malignant tumor name if of mesenchymal origin

A

The prefix sarc- is added to a malignant tumor name if of mesenchymal origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

[…] is a benign tumor that originates from totipotent cells which means it maintains a variety of tissues/cells

A

Teratoma is a benign tumor that originates from totipotent cells which means it maintains a variety of tissues/cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Adenomas of the pituitary islets can be fatal due to […]

A

Adenomas of the pituitary islets can be fatal due to hyperinsulinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Carcinoma of the adrenal cortex can be fatal due to […]

A

Carcinoma of the adrenal cortex can be fatal due to hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A […] is not a tumor but a developmental anomaly that is the same tissue but in increased proportions

A

A hamartoma is not a tumor but a developmental anomaly that is the same tissue but in increased proportions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A […] is a mass of normal tissue in an abnormal location (e.g., pancreas-like nodule in the small intestine)

A

A choristoma is a mass of normal tissue in an abnormal location (e.g., pancreas-like nodule in the small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

[…] has highest mortality for stomach cancer

A

Japan has highest mortality for stomach cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[…] has highest mortality for breat cancer

A

United States has highest mortality for breat cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

[…] has highest mortality for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Africa has highest mortality for hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

[…] has highest mortality for lung and bronchial cancers

A

Kentucky has highest mortality for lung and bronchial cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ultraviolet radiation causes […] dimers in DNA leading to mutations of protooncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

A

Ultraviolet radiation causes pyrimidine dimers in DNA leading to mutations of protooncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[…] is the most carcinogenic ultraviolet light

A

UVB is the most carcinogenic ultraviolet light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

[…] causes double-strand and single-strand breaks in nucleic acids

A

Ionizing radiation causes double-strand and single-strand breaks in nucleic acids Cells in mitosis or G2 phase are most sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

[…] is a natural plant and microbial procarcinogen that is linked to increased rates of hepatocellular carcinoma in Africa

A

Aflatoxin B1 is a natural plant and microbial procarcinogen that is linked to increased rates of hepatocellular carcinoma in Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The principal targets of genetic damage in carcinogenesis are normal […]

A

The principal targets of genetic damage in carcinogenesis are normal regulatory genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Growth-promoting protooncogenes are […] genes

A

Growth-promoting protooncogenes are dominant genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Growth-inhibiting cancer suppressor genes are […] genes

A

Growth-inhibiting cancer suppressor genes are recessive genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

hereditary defects in DNA mismatch repair lead to […]

A

hereditary defects in DNA mismatch repair lead to hereditary non-polyposis colon carcinoma (HNPCC) syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hereditary defects in nucleotide excision repair lead to […]

A

Hereditary defects in nucleotide excision repair lead to xeroderma pigmentosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Defects in the repair of double-strand DNA breaks is associated with both […] and […] genes in breast cancer

A

Defects in the repair of double-strand DNA breaks is associated with both BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes in breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RecQ helicase mutations are found in which syndromes?

A

Bloom’sWerner’s Rothmund-Thomson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Signs of an hereditary cancer syndrome include:

A

Early age of onsetTumors in 2 or more close relativesMultiple or bilateral tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

[…] genetic mutation is associated with retinoblastoma

A

RB genetic mutation is associated with retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

[…] gene mutation is associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

p53 gene mutation is associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

[…] is associated with an inherited predisposition to melanoma

A

p16INK4A is associated with an inherited predisposition to melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

[…] gene mutation is associated with an inherited predisposition to familial adenomatous polyposis/colon cancer

A

APC gene mutation is associated with an inherited predisposition to familial adenomatous polyposis/colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

[…] are associated with inherited predisposition to neurofibromatosis 1 & 2

A

NF1 & NF2 are associated with inherited predisposition to neurofibromatosis 1 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

[…] are associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer

A

BRCA1 & BRCA2 are associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

[…] are associated with an increased risk of multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 & 2

A

MEN1 & RET are associated with an increased risk of multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

[…] are associated with an increased risk of hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer

A

MSH2, MLH1, MSH6 are associated with an increased risk of hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

[…] is associated with an increased risk of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome

A

PATCH is associated with an increased risk of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

[…] occur in non-germline tissues and are NOT heritable

A

Somatic mutations occur in non-germline tissues and are NOT heritable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

[…] are heritable mutations that will affect the egg or sperm and, as a result, the offspring

A

Germline mutations are heritable mutations that will affect the egg or sperm and, as a result, the offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chronic ulcerative colitis can lead to […]

A

Chronic ulcerative colitis can lead to colorectal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

[…] gene mutation is involved in the autosomal recessive cancer syndrome, Bloom syndrome

A

BLM gene mutation is involved in the autosomal recessive cancer syndrome, Bloom syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ataxia-telangiectasia is associated with the gene […]

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia is associated with the gene ATM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most (~90%) of cancers arise from the […]

A

Most (~90%) of cancers arise from the epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fibro- means […]

A

Fibro- means fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Myxo- means […]

A

Myxo- means myxoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Chondro- means […]

A

Chondro- means cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Osteo- means […]

A

Osteo- means osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lipo- means […]

A

Lipo- means fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Chordo- means […]

A

Chordo- means notochord remnants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Leiomyo- means […]

A

Leiomyo- means smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Rhabdomyo- means […]

A

Rhabdomyo- means striated muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Schwanno- means […]

A

Schwanno- means nerve sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neurilemmo- means […]

A

Neurilemmo- means nerve sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Neurofibro- means […]

A

Neurofibro- means nerve sheath (endoneurium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hemangio- means […]

A

Hemangio- means blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Lymphangio- means […]

A

Lymphangio- means lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Glomangio- means […]

A

Glomangio- means glomus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Synovio- means […]

A

Synovio- means synovium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mesothelio- means […]

A

Mesothelio- means mesothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Meningio- means […]

A

Meningio- means arachnoid granulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Lympho- means […]

A

Lympho- means lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Chorio- means […]

A

Chorio- means placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pheochromocyto- means […]

A

Pheochromocyto- means adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

[…] may be reversible if they do not involve the entire thickness of epithelium

A

Dysplastic cells may be reversible if they do not involve the entire thickness of epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the steps of carcinogenesis? (Basics)

A

Normal cell –> carcinogen-induced mutationPrecursor cell w/ stem cell-like propertiesAdditional mutations –> cancer progenitor cellAdditional mutations & subclones –> genetically heterogeneous cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

[…] is overexpressed in ~80% of squamous cell carcinomas of the lung

A

ERBB1 is overexpressed in ~80% of squamous cell carcinomas of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

[…] is overexpressed in ~30% of breast cancers

A

HER2 (ERBB2) is overexpressed in ~30% of breast cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

[…] is an anti-HER2 antibody treatment for HER2+ breast cancer

A

Herceptin is an anti-HER2 antibody treatment for HER2+ breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mutant RAS oncogenes lose their […] activity leading to constitutively activate

A

Mutant RAS oncogenes lose their GTPase activity leading to constitutively activate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When ABL is translocated from […] to Chromsome 22

A

When ABL is translocated from Chromosome 9 to Chromsome 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

[…] translocation from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22 results in an oncogene

A

ABL translocation from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22 results in an oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ABL gene translocation from chromosome 9 to chromsome […] results in an oncogene

A

ABL gene translocation from chromosome 9 to chromsome 22 results in an oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ABL translocation from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22 results in ABL fusion with […] resulting in an ABL that cannot be inhibited by regulatory proteins and has potent tyrosine kinase activity that activates RAS

A

ABL translocation from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22 results in ABL fusion with BCR resulting in an ABL that cannot be inhibited by regulatory proteins and has potent tyrosine kinase activity that activates RAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The […] is diagnostic for CML and certain AML

A

The Philadelphia chromosome BCR-ABL fusion is diagnostic for CML and certain AML

81
Q

[…] is a normal protein transcription factor that acts as a protooncogene as it binds DNA to induce the transcription of growth-related genes and falls, normally, after cell division begins

A

MYC is a normal protein transcription factor that acts as a protooncogene as it binds DNA to induce the transcription of growth-related genes and falls, normally, after cell division begins

82
Q

How does MYC oncogene relate to Burkitt Lymphoma (B cell tumor)?

A

t(8;14) translocation (MYC goes from 8 –> 14)MYC is placed on Chr 14 downstream from Ig heavy chain geneMYC leads to overexpression of B cell

83
Q

[…], a cyclin, is overexpressed in many cancers including breast, esophagus, liver and some lymphomas

A

Cyclin D, a cyclin, is overexpressed in many cancers including breast, esophagus, liver and some lymphomas

84
Q

[…], a cyclin, is amplified in many cancers including sarcomas, melanomas, and glioblastomas

A

CDK4, a cyclin, is amplified in many cancers including sarcomas, melanomas, and glioblastomas

85
Q

p57, p27, and p21 are functionally […] in many cancers

A

p57, p27, and p21 are functionally down-regulated in many cancers

86
Q

If the RB protein is absent or non-functional, there is no brake on transcription of […] genes

A

If the RB protein is absent or non-functional, there is no brake on transcription of S phase genes

87
Q

What is the Knudson’s Two-Hit Hypothesis?

A

Development of retinoblastoma requires “two-hits”Hereditaroy retinoblastoma –> inherited RB gene mutation + somatic mutationNon-heridatory retinoblastoma –> one RB gene mutates + second RB gene mutates

88
Q

At least one component of […], a cancer suppressor gene, is mutated in most of pancreatic cancers and colon cancers

A

At least one component of TGF-β, a cancer suppressor gene, is mutated in most of pancreatic cancers and colon cancers

89
Q

> 70% of human cancers have mutations in their […] gene, a tumor suppressor gene, seen mutated in Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

> 70% of human cancers have mutations in their p53 gene, a tumor suppressor gene, seen mutated in Li-Fraumeni syndrome

90
Q

Overexpression of BCL2 leads to inhibition of […] resulting in a lack of apoptosis

A

Overexpression of BCL2 leads to inhibition of BAX resulting in a lack of apoptosis

91
Q

Overexpression of […] leading to inhibition of BAX resulting in a lack of apoptosis

A

Overexpression of BCL2 leading to inhibition of BAX resulting in a lack of apoptosis

92
Q

In melanomas, […] can be mutated leading to a decrease in caspase cascade activity

A

In melanomas, APAF-1 can be mutated leading to a decrease in caspase cascade activity

93
Q

Why are follicular lymphomas involving BCL2 overexpression slow growing?

A

BCL2 overexpression prevents cell deathThere is no excessive cell proliferation (slow growing)

94
Q

[…] prevents RB phosphorylation and so the G1 –> S phase brake is maintained

A

CDKN1A prevents RB phosphorylation and so the G1 –> S phase brake is maintained

95
Q

[…] has a short half-life due to being associated with MDM2 which helps target it for destruction. When activated by cell stress, it is released to direct cell cycle arrest or apoptosis

A

p53 has a short half-life due to being associated with MDM2 which helps target it for destruction. When activated by cell stress, it is released to direct cell cycle arrest or apoptosis

96
Q

p53 has a short half-life due to being associated with […]which helps target it for destruction. When activated by cell stress, it is released to direct cell cycle arrest or apoptosis

A

p53 has a short half-life due to being associated with MDM2which helps target it for destruction. When activated by cell stress, it is released to direct cell cycle arrest or apoptosis

97
Q

β-catenin binds […]

A

β-catenin binds E-cadherin

98
Q

In quiescent cells, APC forms a destruction complex that degrades […]

A

In quiescent cells, APC forms a destruction complex that degrades β-catenin

99
Q

Loss of APC activity (in malignant cells) prevents the degradation of […], which results in constitutive transcription of cell cycle proteins

A

Loss of APC activity (in malignant cells) prevents the degradation of β-catenin, which results in constitutive transcription of cell cycle proteins

100
Q

RB is active when […] and will serve as a S phase brake by binding to E2F

A

RB is active when hypophosphorylated and will serve as a S phase brake by binding to E2F

101
Q

[…] RB is inactive and releases E2F leading to progression in S phase

A

Hyperphosphorylated RB is inactive and releases E2F leading to progression in S phase

102
Q

[…] phosphorylates RB protein that guards G1/S checkpoint

A

CDK4 phosphorylates RB protein that guards G1/S checkpoint

103
Q

[…] activates CDK4 which phosphorylates RB which guards G1/S phase

A

Cyclin D activates CDK4 which phosphorylates RB which guards G1/S phase

104
Q

[…] is a malignant neoplasm of epithelium with a glandular appearance.

A

adenocarcinoma is a malignant neoplasm of epithelium with a glandular appearance.

105
Q

[…] cancer will kill the most women in the U.S. in 2023

A

lung/bronchial cancer will kill the most women in the U.S. in 2023

106
Q

You are given a biopsy report describing the findings from a lesion you removed from a patient last week. There was a technical glitch, and the final diagnosis is missing from the bottom of the report, but based on the description of the lesion, you know it is malignant. Which of the following terms did you most likely see that enabled you to make this inference?

A

Anaplasia

107
Q

Which commonly diagnosed cancers in the U.S. this year, starting with the most common, will affect males?

A

Prostate > lung/bronchial > colorectal

108
Q

A 38 yo female is diagnosed with CIN III lesion of the cervix, which is synonymous with carcinoma in situ. What does carcinoma in situ mean?

A

Complete epithelial dysplasia confined by basement membrane

109
Q

[…] is a gene involved in the characteristic t(9;22) translocation in CML

A

ABL is a gene involved in the characteristic t(9;22) translocation in CML

110
Q

[…] is amplified as double minutes in neuroblastoma

A

MYC is amplified as double minutes in neuroblastoma

111
Q

[…] gene mutation results in loss of GTPase activity, constitutively activating the protein and signalling cell proliferation

A

RAS gene mutation results in loss of GTPase activity, constitutively activating the protein and signalling cell proliferation

112
Q

[…] is known as guardian of the genome; mutated in Li Fraumeni syndrome

A

p53 is known as guardian of the genome; mutated in Li Fraumeni syndrome

113
Q

[…] is an inhibitor of epithelial cell proliferation; mutations of this pathway are seen in virtually all pancreatic cancers

A

TGF-β is an inhibitor of epithelial cell proliferation; mutations of this pathway are seen in virtually all pancreatic cancers

114
Q

[…] is an antioncogene that controls the transition to S-phase and interacts with transcription factor E2F

A

RB is an antioncogene that controls the transition to S-phase and interacts with transcription factor E2F

115
Q

[…] is an anti-apoptotic protein that is overexpressed due to translocation to chromosome 14

A

BCL2 is an anti-apoptotic protein that is overexpressed due to translocation to chromosome 14

116
Q

[…] genetic mutation is seen in familial cases of colorectal cancer; normal function is to degrade excess β-catenin

A

APC genetic mutation is seen in familial cases of colorectal cancer; normal function is to degrade excess β-catenin

117
Q

[…] is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

A

t(9;22) is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

118
Q

[…] is associated with Burkitt lymphoma

A

t(8;14) is associated with Burkitt lymphoma

119
Q

[…] is associated with follicular lymphoma

A

t(14;18) is associated with follicular lymphoma

120
Q

[…] is a virus that is endemic to Japan and Caribbean and results in leukemia in ~1% of patients after 20-30 years

A

HTLV-1 is a virus that is endemic to Japan and Caribbean and results in leukemia in ~1% of patients after 20-30 years

121
Q

For HTLV-1, a virus that causes leukemia, the […] protein is most likely responsible for CD4+ cell transformation

A

For HTLV-1, a virus that causes leukemia, the TAX protein is most likely responsible for CD4+ cell transformation

122
Q

HBV has a strong association with the formation of […] with 90% of patients displaying viral integrations within their genome

A

HBV has a strong association with the formation of hepatocellular carcinoma with 90% of patients displaying viral integrations within their genome

123
Q

The HBV element […] is a transcriptional activator that helps to lead to hepatocellular carcinoma

A

The HBV element HBx is a transcriptional activator that helps to lead to hepatocellular carcinoma

124
Q

[…] is associated with Burkitt Lymphoma in Africa

A

EBV is associated with Burkitt Lymphoma in Africa

125
Q

In EBV, […] activates host genes such as Cyclin D that help lead to Burkitt Lymphoma

A

In EBV, EBNA-2 activates host genes such as Cyclin D that help lead to Burkitt Lymphoma

126
Q

In EBV, […] mimics B-cell activation and activates BCL-2 to help facilitate the formation of Burkitt Lymphoma

A

In EBV, LMP-1 mimics B-cell activation and activates BCL-2 to help facilitate the formation of Burkitt Lymphoma

127
Q

HPV types […] and […] are associated with squamous cell cancers of the cervix

A

HPV types 16 and 18 are associated with squamous cell cancers of the cervix

128
Q

HPV proteins […] and […] are responsible for HPV-related cancers (e.g., cervical cancer)

A

HPV proteins E6 and E7 are responsible for HPV-related cancers (e.g., cervical cancer)

129
Q

HPV protein […] is responsible for binding of RB

A

HPV protein E7 is responsible for binding of RB

130
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma is associated with the virus, […] in those who have concomitant HIV infection

A

Kaposi Sarcoma is associated with the virus, HHV-8 in those who have concomitant HIV infection

131
Q

[…] is a bacteria that can facilitate the formation of gastric carcinoma and gastric lymphoma (MALT zone)

A

H. pylori is a bacteria that can facilitate the formation of gastric carcinoma and gastric lymphoma (MALT zone)

132
Q

[…] leads to chronic gastritis leading to lymphoid follicle hypertrophy due to chronic T cell activation which leads to B cell proliferation and B cell tumor

A

H. pylori leads to chronic gastritis leading to lymphoid follicle hypertrophy due to chronic T cell activation which leads to B cell proliferation and B cell tumor

133
Q

[…] is expressed in 90% of cancers as it functions to increase telomere repeats

A

Telomerase is expressed in 90% of cancers as it functions to increase telomere repeats

134
Q

[…] is a telomere lengthening strategy that is independent of telomerase as it amplifies large blocks of DNA at chromosome ends

A

ALT is a telomere lengthening strategy that is independent of telomerase as it amplifies large blocks of DNA at chromosome ends

135
Q

Tumor cells are typically limited to […] in size unless they get vascularized

A

Tumor cells are typically limited to 1-2 mm in size unless they get vascularized

136
Q

[…] is a anti-angiogenesis factor helping to minimize tumor vascularization

A

Thrombospondin-1 is a anti-angiogenesis factor helping to minimize tumor vascularization

137
Q

[…] is an angiogenesis inhibitor that is derived from plasminogen

A

Angiostatin is an angiogenesis inhibitor that is derived from plasminogen

138
Q

[…] is an angiogenesis inhibitor that is derived from collagen

A

Endostatin is an angiogenesis inhibitor that is derived from collagen

139
Q

[…] is an angiogenesis inhibitor derived from transthretin

A

Vasculostatin is an angiogenesis inhibitor derived from transthretin

140
Q

[…], a tumor suppressor gene, increases the synthesis of thrombospondin-1 so if it is mutated, this synthesis will not occur and the anti-angiogenesis factor will not be present for inhibition of vascularization

A

p53, a tumor suppressor gene, increases the synthesis of thrombospondin-1 so if it is mutated, this synthesis will not occur and the anti-angiogenesis factor will not be present for inhibition of vascularization

141
Q

[…] is an angiogenic factor that is under the control of RAS oncoprotein and is induced by hypoxia-inducible factor-1 (HIF-1)

A

VEGF is an angiogenic factor that is under the control of RAS oncoprotein and is induced by hypoxia-inducible factor-1 (HIF-1)

142
Q

[…] is an angiogenic factor stored in the ECM and released by proteolytic cleavage of ECM as the tumor invades local tissue

A

FGF is an angiogenic factor stored in the ECM and released by proteolytic cleavage of ECM as the tumor invades local tissue

143
Q

Pituitary adenomas have been observed to shrink as they grow within the sella turcica leading to progressive compression of […] resulting in necrosis

A

Pituitary adenomas have been observed to shrink as they grow within the sella turcica leading to progressive compression of blood supply resulting in necrosis

144
Q

The most common sites of hematogenous spread of cancer include the […] and the […]

A

The most common sites of hematogenous spread of cancer include the liver and the lungs

145
Q

[…], a type of cancer, see lymphatic spread (metastasis)

A

Carcinomas, a type of cancer, see lymphatic spread (metastasis)

146
Q

[…], a type of cancer, sees hematogenous spread (metastasis)

A

Sarcomas, a type of cancer, sees hematogenous spread (metastasis)

147
Q

What are the (4) steps of invasion of ECM?

A

Detachment of tumor cells from each otherAttachment of tumor cells to matrix componentsDegradation of ECMMigration of tumor cells

148
Q

[…], a cell adhesion molecule, that is typically lost in epithelial cell cancers due to mutation of β-catenin

A

E-cadherin, a cell adhesion molecule, that is typically lost in epithelial cell cancers due to mutation of β-catenin

149
Q

Carcinoma cells have […] receptors all around the cell membrane to help attach to matrix components of ECM

A

Carcinoma cells have laminin receptors all around the cell membrane to help attach to matrix components of ECM

150
Q

[…], a cell adhesion molecule, is usually deficient in cancer cells to help them detach from ECM for invasion

A

Fibronectin, a cell adhesion molecule, is usually deficient in cancer cells to help them detach from ECM for invasion

151
Q

[…] and […] are two MMPs typically seen in tumor cells to help degrade the ECM

A

Cathepsin D and Type IV collagenase are two MMPs typically seen in tumor cells to help degrade the ECM

152
Q

[…] is a wasting syndrome associated with loss of body fat and lean body mass accompanied with weakness, anorexia, and anemia. This syndrome is seen in patients with cancer.

A

Cancer cachexia is a wasting syndrome associated with loss of body fat and lean body mass accompanied with weakness, anorexia, and anemia. This syndrome is seen in patients with cancer.

153
Q

Cancer cachexia is correlated with size and extent of […]

A

Cancer cachexia is correlated with size and extent of metastasis

154
Q

The most common paraneoplastic syndrome is […] that is due to ACTH production

A

The most common paraneoplastic syndrome is Cushing Syndrome that is due to ACTH production

155
Q

50% of […] patients will note Cushing Syndrome due to ACTH

A

50% of small cell carcinoma of the lung patients will note Cushing Syndrome due to ACTH

156
Q

The tumor […] details the aggressiveness or level of malignancy

A

The tumor grade details the aggressiveness or level of malignancy

157
Q

The tumor […] details the current extent of tumor spread

A

The tumor stage details the current extent of tumor spread

158
Q

Grading a neoplasm describes level of […] in increasing grading (e.g., Grade I, II, III, or IV)

A

Grading a neoplasm describes level of anaplasia in increasing grading (e.g., Grade I, II, III, or IV)

159
Q

The “T” in TNM grading represents the […]

A

The “T” in TNM grading represents the primary tumor

160
Q

The “N” in TNM grading describes […]

A

The “N” in TNM grading describes regional lymph node involvement

161
Q

The “M” in the TNM grading describes […]

A

The “M” in the TNM grading describes metastases

162
Q

The […] cancer grading system considers TNM but divides tumor stages into stages (e.g., 0 to IV)

A

The AJC cancer grading system considers TNM but divides tumor stages into stages (e.g., 0 to IV)

163
Q

When compared with grading […] has greater prognostic value for cancer diagnosis

A

When compared with grading staging has greater prognostic value for cancer diagnosis

164
Q

[…] is a monoclonal antibody that looks for thyroid cancers

A

Thyroglobulin is a monoclonal antibody that looks for thyroid cancers

165
Q

[…] is a monoclonal antibody that evaluates for melanoma and neural tumors

A

S100 is a monoclonal antibody that evaluates for melanoma and neural tumors

166
Q

[…] is a monoclonal antibody that evaluates for smooth and skeletal muscle cancer

A

Actin is a monoclonal antibody that evaluates for smooth and skeletal muscle cancer

167
Q

[…] can be used as monoclonal antibodies to evaluate for lymphomas/leukemias

A

CD markers can be used as monoclonal antibodies to evaluate for lymphomas/leukemias

168
Q

[…] can be used with monoclonal antibodies to evaluate for breast cancer

A

Estrogen receptors can be used with monoclonal antibodies to evaluate for breast cancer

169
Q

[…] is a commonly used diagnostic marker for prostate cancer

A

PSA is a commonly used diagnostic marker for prostate cancer

170
Q

[…] along with PSA are used to help diagnose prostate cancer

A

Prostatic acid phosphatase along with PSA are used to help diagnose prostate cancer

171
Q

[…] is a diagnostic marker for carcinomas of the lungs, pancreas, stomach, breast, and colon

A

CEA is a diagnostic marker for carcinomas of the lungs, pancreas, stomach, breast, and colon

172
Q

[…] is commonly evaluated for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

A

Calcitonin is commonly evaluated for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

173
Q

[…] is a common marker used to evaluate for trophoblastic tumors and choriocarcinoma

A

hCG is a common marker used to evaluate for trophoblastic tumors and choriocarcinoma

174
Q

[…] is used to evaluate for hepatoma, non-seminomatous testicular germ-cell tumors

A

AFP is used to evaluate for hepatoma, non-seminomatous testicular germ-cell tumors

175
Q

Edema is an abnormal accumulation of […] caused by a variety of conditions

A

Edema is an abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid caused by a variety of conditions

176
Q

Increased […] pressure and/or diminished […] osmotic pressure results in increased movement of water into the interstitium

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure and/or diminished colloid osmotic pressure results in increased movement of water into the interstitium

177
Q

[…] describes the pressure exerted by an fluid onto the wall of an enclosed space (e.g., vasculature)

A

Hydrostatic pressure describes the pressure exerted by an fluid onto the wall of an enclosed space (e.g., vasculature)

178
Q

[…] results in local increases in intravascular pressure that lead to edema restricted to the distal portion of the affected leg

A

Deep venous thrombosis results in local increases in intravascular pressure that lead to edema restricted to the distal portion of the affected leg

179
Q

What are (3) factors that lead to edema in patients with CHF?

A

Reduced CO –> venous congestion –> increased capillary hydrostatic pressureReduced CO –> hypoperfusion of kidneys –> RAAS –> Na+ & H2O retentionFluid increase –> inability of heart to increase CO –> increased fluid retention, increased venous hydrostatic pressure –> worsening edema

180
Q

Decreased […], as seen in nephrotic & hepatic syndromes, will lead to decreased plasma osmotic pressure and edema

A

Decreased albumin, as seen in nephrotic & hepatic syndromes, will lead to decreased plasma osmotic pressure and edema

181
Q

Decreased albumin, as seen in nephrotic & hepatic syndromes, will lead to decreased plasma […] pressure and edema

A

Decreased albumin, as seen in nephrotic & hepatic syndromes, will lead to decreased plasma osmotic pressure and edema

182
Q

Why is edema not corrected by the kidneys when the precipating factor is low albumin?

A

Kidneys increase Na+ & H2O retentionEdema is due to reduced plasma oncotic pressure Decreased pressure –> decreased velocity –> increased fluid leakage

183
Q

[…] edema sees no residual indentation following the application of pressure at the site of swelling

A

Nonpitting edema sees no residual indentation following the application of pressure at the site of swelling

184
Q

[…] edema sees residual indentation following application of pressure to the site of swelling

A

Pitting edema sees residual indentation following application of pressure to the site of swelling

185
Q

[…] is a type of non-pitting edema that results from lymphatic obstruction

A

Lymphedema is a type of non-pitting edema that results from lymphatic obstruction

186
Q

[…] is a type of non-pitting edema seen in thyroid disease

A

Myxedema is a type of non-pitting edema seen in thyroid disease

187
Q

[…] edema is commonly seen in hyperthyroidism

A

Pretibial edema is commonly seen in hyperthyroidism

188
Q

Brain edema is a severe life-threatening condition as the brain can herniate through the […], if severe, resulting in death

A

Brain edema is a severe life-threatening condition as the brain can herniate through the foramen magnum, if severe, resulting in death

189
Q

Increased intracranial pressure can result in the brain stem vascular supply becoming compressed resulting in death due to disrupted […] that control respiration

A

Increased intracranial pressure can result in the brain stem vascular supply becoming compressed resulting in death due to disrupted medullary centers that control respiration

190
Q

Primary lymphedema, in which a person is born with poor lymphatic flow, is a characteristic of […] syndrome

A

Primary lymphedema, in which a person is born with poor lymphatic flow, is a characteristic of Turner syndrome

191
Q

Lymphedema is characterized by a […] rich, protein rich fluid that fills the interstiitial space

A

Lymphedema is characterized by a lipid rich, protein rich fluid that fills the interstiitial space

192
Q

[…] are minute hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces that occur due to low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia) or defective platelet function

A

Petechiae are minute hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces that occur due to low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia) or defective platelet function

193
Q

[…] are slightly larger hemorrhages (than petechiae) that result from trauma, thrombocytopenia, or defective platelet function

A

Purpura are slightly larger hemorrhages (than petechiae) that result from trauma, thrombocytopenia, or defective platelet function

194
Q

[…] are large subcutnaeous hematomas (e.g., bruises)

A

Ecchymoses are large subcutnaeous hematomas (e.g., bruises)

195
Q

A redish hue of ecchymosis is due to […] content

A

A redish hue of ecchymosis is due to hemoglobin content

196
Q

The purple-blue-green color of ecchymosis is due to enzymatic degradation of hemoglobin leading to […]

A

The purple-blue-green color of ecchymosis is due to enzymatic degradation of hemoglobin leading to bilirubin

197
Q

The yellow-green color seen in ecchymosis is due to […]

A

The yellow-green color seen in ecchymosis is due to hemosiderin

198
Q

What are the main abnormalities (3) that lead to thombosis? (Virchow’s Triad)

A

Endothelial injuryStasis or turbulent blood flowHypercoagulability of blood

PATHO I (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions