Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What is oncology?

A

The study of tumours and neoplasms.

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2
Q

What is a benign neoplasm?

A

An abnormal growth of cells that persists after the stimulus has been taken away, but does not spread and invade other sites - it remains localised.

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3
Q

What can dysplasia exhibit, microscopically?

A

Pleomorphism.
Hyperchromatic nuceli.
Large nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio.

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4
Q

How can the functions of neoplasms, relating to their tissue of origin be used to determine its ability to spread to distant sites?

A

If it has a function that is closely related to its tissue of origin, then it is more likely to be benign.
If its function is severely different to its tissue of origin, then it is more likely to be metastatic.

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5
Q

What does it mean for a tumour to be monoclonal?

A

The cells within the tumour have all been derived from one precursor cell that has incurred genetic damage.

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6
Q

What genes can be affected to facilitate proliferation?

A

Growth promoting proto-oncogenes.
Growth inhibiting tumour suppression genes.
Genes regulating apoptosis.
Genes involved in DNA repair.

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7
Q

How could proto-oncogene mutations form a neoplasm?

A

They usually stimulate the cell to continue within the cell cycle, driving proliferation.
Mutations usually increase or gain functions.
A mutation can form an oncogene which can be transcribed to form an oncoprotein, which can stimulate the cells to continue proliferating.
Dominant so requires 1 mutation.

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8
Q

How can a mutation in a tumour suppression gene form a neoplasm?

A

Normal function is to inhibit cells from continuing in the cell cycle, preventing proliferation.
A mutation is usually a loss of function.
This facilitates the failure to inhibit growth, allowing the cells to continue to proliferate.
Recessive so requires 2 mutations.

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9
Q

How can a mutation in an apoptosis regulating genes form a neoplasm?

A

These usually stimulate cells to undergo apoptosis.
Mutations can result in enhanced survival of cells.

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10
Q

How can a mutation in DNA repair genes form a neoplasm?

A

These usually stop the cell cycle and send the cell into G0, stimulating their repair via DNA repair mechanisms.
Mutations in these are usually loss of function mutations.
They inhibit the cells ability to recognise and repair genes, allowing them to acquire mutations and not be repaired - furthering progression.
It is a state referred to as mutator phenotype, showing genetic instability.

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11
Q

Define invasion.

A

The breach of the basement membrane with progressive infiltration and destruction of surrounding tissues.

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12
Q

Define metastasis.

A

The spread of a metastatic neoplasm to distant sites within the body, that are discontinuous from the primary tumour.

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13
Q

Which bones do metastatic bone diseases usually occur in, and what can the signs and symptoms be?

A

The axial skeleton.
They can be asymptomatic but it is usually painful.
They can often be seen with fractures, or under X-rays as osteolytic lesions or osteoscelortic metastases.

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14
Q

What are osteolytic lesions?

A

They are areas of a decrease in bone density due to the destruction of bone tissue.

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15
Q

What are osteosclerotic metastases?

A

They are areas of increases in bone density due to increased production of disorganised bone.

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16
Q

How are tumours usually recognised by the immune system, and how can they evade the immune system?

A

They are recognised as non-self cells and presented to CD8+ T cells by APCs MHC Class I molecules.
This stimulates the formation of cytotoxic T cells which destroy the tumour cells.
Immunosuppressed patients have a weakened formation of cytotoxic T cells.
They can evade the hosts immune system by:
- The loss or reduction of the expression of MHC molecules.
- Expression of certain factors, from the tumour cells, that suppress the immune system.
- Failure to produce a tumour antigen.

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17
Q

What is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome, and what are the processes for its formation?

A

Hypercalcaemia.
Osteolysis, induced by primary bone lesions or secondary metastases.
Production of calcaemic humoral substances by extraosseous neoplasm - hormones.

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18
Q

What is SIADH, where does it occur from, and what is the primary sign?

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.
Commonly from small cell lung cancer.
Hyponatraemia.

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19
Q

What are some miscallaneous symptoms of neoplasms?

A

Peripheral or cerebral neuropathies.
Skin problems - pruritis or abnormal pigmentation.
Fever.
Clubbing.
Myositis.
Hypoglycaemia.

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20
Q

What causes Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and what types of cancer can there be an increased risk of?

A

A mutation in the TP53 tumour suppressor gene - loses control over when the cell divides.
Breast and bone cancer.
Brain tumours.
Adrenal gland carcinoma.

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21
Q

Who is eligible for genetic testing?

A

Strong family history of cancer.
An inherited faulty gene that has been detected in a relative.

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22
Q

What does a positive genetic test mean?

A

It means that there is a mutation within a gene that increases the risk of a cancer, but does not mean that they have cancer or will necessarily mean that they will develop cancer.

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23
Q

What are the advantages of genetic testing?

A

Advantages:
- Lifestyle modifications can be made to decrease the risk of a cancer developing.
- Can help prepare a person for if a cancer will develop.
- Medications can be taken to reduce the risk of developing some cancer types.
- Have regular screening to detect the cancer at an earlier stage.
- Can be educated about the signs and symptoms for the development of certain cancers they are predisposed to, to detect the cancer at an earlier stage.
- Can have risk-reducing surgery.

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24
Q

What are the disadvantages of genetic testing?

A

It can cause unnecessary stress and anxiety as they may never develop the cancer.
The surgery/ medication taken to decrease the risk of developing the cancer can have a negative effect on their health.
Can increase life-insurance cost.

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25
Q

Can children undergo genetic testing, and for what cancers MAY this be beneficial for?

A

Those that are under 18 are not usually allowed to undergo genetic testing, unless they have consent from the parents and want to have it, they are mentally capable of making the decision, and they understand the benefits and risks of being tested.
It may be beneficial for cancers that develop before the age of 18, such as retinoblastoma.

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26
Q

How does HPV cause cancer, and what type of cancer is it linked to?

A

The virus invades the cell and utilises the cell’s DNA machinery to make more virus particles.
It synthesises E6 and E7 proteins.
The E6 protein inhibits p53 proteins, which mean that the cell no longer undergoes apoptosis.
The E7 protein inhibits retinoblastoma proteins, which allows the cell to continue in the cell cycle.
It is linked to cervical cancer.

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27
Q

Is there a method of preventing HPV?

A

The HPV vaccine, which is given to 11-13 year old children.

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28
Q

What does the retinoblastoma gene do?

A

It is a tumour suppression gene, which the protein formed from it inhibits the cell from continuing within the cell cycle.
It does this by inhibiting the cell from moving through the G1/S cell cycle checkpoint.

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29
Q

What is the RAS gene and what does it do?

A

The RAS gene is a proto-oncogene.
When activated, via the binding of growth factors, the G-protein then stimulates the production of cyclin D1, which activates CDK, which phospohrylates RB proteins, to allow cells to move past the G1/S checkpoint.

It is seen to be mutated in 90% of pancreatic adenocarcinomas.

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30
Q

What do proto-oncogenes encode?

A

Growth factors.
Growth factor receptors.
Plasma membrane signal transducers - RAS.
Intracellular kinases - BRAF.
Transcription factors.
Cell cycle and apoptosis regulators.

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31
Q

What is Xeroderma Pigmentosa, and what can it cause?

A

It is an autosomal recessive disease.
Two mutations in one of the 7 DNA nucleotide excision repair genes.
Most frequently causes skin cancer, due to the sensitivity to UV light.

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32
Q

What is Lynch Syndrome/ Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC) syndrome?

A

It is an autosomal dominant disorder.
Genetic mutation in the DNA mismatch repair genes.
Associated with colon cancer, usually before the age of 50.

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33
Q

What are the 4 proteins involved in mismatch repair?

A

MSH2.
MSH6.
MLH1.
PMS2.

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34
Q

What is familial breast carcinoma?

A

It is a mutation in one of the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes.
Leads to a deficiency in the repair of double strand DNA breaks.
It can also be found in sporadic malignant neoplasms.

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35
Q

Outline the two methods of administering radiation therapy.

A

It can be external or internal.
External beam radiation = firing high doses of radiation at the site in the body where the cancer is located.
Internal radiation therapy = placing a radioactive substance inside the body of the patient. This can be local or systemic.

36
Q

What is a lifetime dose limit?

A

It is the maximum amount of radiation exposure a person can have to a certain tissue or organ.
After this amount, it is likely that significant damage will be done to it. Radiation can, itself, induce neoplasia.

37
Q

What are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A

Nausea and vomiting.
Headaches.
Hair loss.
Weakened immune system - they are more prone to infections.
Constipation or diarrhoea.
Bruising or bleeding - chemotherapy can destroy platelets. The bleeding, with destruction of RBCs, can lead to anaemia.

38
Q

What is local and what is systemic internal radiation therapy?

A

Local = brachytherapy - seeds, ribbons or capsules are placed in or close to the tumour.
Systemic = radioactive substances are distributed throughout the body, such as giving radioactive iodine to treat certain types of thyroid cancer.

39
Q

What is bio-marker testing for?

A

It is precision medicine.
Markers of certain tumours (that can be proteins, genes or biomarkers) are tested for to see which are present and how to best treat them.
It can prevent certain side effects from arising, due to not using sub-optimal treatment.

40
Q

What is immunotherapy?

A

It is the use of drugs to improve the reaction of the immune system, in response to the neoplasm.
It does this by helping to detect and helping to destroy the cancerous cells.

41
Q

What can be tested for to show that the immune system is responding to the cancer, and how does immunotherapy use this information?

A

Tumour infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs).
Immunotherapy acts to increase the effectiveness and numbers to destroy the cancer.

42
Q

What are the 5 types of immunotherapy?

A

Immune checkpoint inhibitors - allows immune cells to respond more strongly.
T-cell transfer therapy - selected T-cells are proliferated to aid in the destruction of cancer cells.
Monoclonal antibodies - proteins that bind to antigens on the cancer, allowing them to be identified and destroyed.
Immune system modulators.
Treatment vaccines.

43
Q

What are treatment vaccines?

A

They are vaccines that can either strengthen the natural immune system or introduce a virus that targets the cancer cells, that the healthy cells are not permanently destroyed by.

44
Q

Who are screening programmes aimed at, and what are their goals?

A

Meant for healthy people with no symptoms at all.
Attempts to detect cancers as early as possible when the chance of cure is the highest.

45
Q

What are the benefits of screening?

A

Can detect a problem early, before they have any symptoms.
Administration of treatment earlier may lead to a better prognosis.
Can reduce the chance of developing the cancer, if it can test for dysplasia.
Can help people make more informed decisions around their health.

46
Q

What are the drawbacks of screening?

A

It can lead to over-diagnosis.
It is not 100% accurate, there can be false negatives and false positives.
They can be uncomfortable tests for the patient to endure.
It can lead to extreme anxiety over something that may never have been clinically relevant.
They can still go on to develop the condition, even if they test negative.
The results can lead to difficult personal decisions, such a terminating a pregnancy.

47
Q

What can the results of a screening test be?

A

Inconclusive - they have to have the test again.
Negative - there is a low risk of having the condition, but does not mean that they will not develop the condition.
Positive - there is a high risk of having the condition, and a further test will be offered to confirm this.

48
Q

Why may there be a false negative or false positive result?

A

Random error.
Sampling error.

49
Q

What is sensitivity in a screening programme?

A

It is the ability of the screening test to identify people that have the condition as positive.

50
Q

What is specificity for the screening programme?

A

The ability for the screening programme to identify those who do not have the condition as negative.

51
Q

What makes a good screening programme?

A

It is not too invasive and is safe to administer.
It is cost effective.
It have both specificity and selectivity.
It is widely available for those who require it.
It is a continuous programme and not a one-off.
The condition testing for is significant.
There is treatment for the condition.
It must be able to detect the disease earlier than a patient with signs and symptoms, and lead to a better outcome.

52
Q

What does the cervical screening programme entail?

A

It is a smear test for those between 25 and 64.
Cells are taken from the cervix and tested for HPV.
If negative, no further tests are required.
If positive, then the cells are assessed under the microscope.
Aims to look for dysplasia, not neoplasia.

53
Q

What are some potential future development of the cervical screening programme?

A

The test can be taken at home, preventing the need for the patient to travel and reducing the uncomfortableness.
Extending recall intervals - increasing the length of time between screens.

54
Q

Who is the abdominal aortic aneurysm screening programme aimed at, and how is it performed?

A

Men who are over the age of 65.
Ultrasound of the abdomen.

55
Q

What are the types of AAA?

A

Saccular - the aneurysm bulges on one side.
Fusiform - the aneurysm bulges on both sides.
Mycotic - the aneurysm is caused by a bacterial infection.

56
Q

What are the outcomes of a positive AAA screen?

A

3 - 4.4cm = yearly surveillance.
4.5 - 5.5cm = 3 month surveillance.
5.5 - 7cm = referred to a consultant vascular surgeon.
> 7cm = urgent referral to a consultant vascular surgeon.

57
Q

How can you measure the performance of a screening programme?

A

The incidence recorded.
The mortality.
The proportion of diseases/ cancers that develop between screens.

58
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

This is where there appears to be an increase in length for which the patient stays alive, but it is only due to diagnosing them earlier. They die at the same time.

59
Q

What is length time bias?

A

It is where cancers that have a slow development are diagnosed using the screening programme more easily, and those are the ones that usually have the best prognosis and so gives the appearance that the screening programme is improving prognosis.

60
Q

What is cancer-specific survival and relative survival?

A
61
Q

What is disease-free survival?

A

The percentage of people that had cancer but no longer experience any symptoms, a certain period after treatment.

62
Q

What do the terms cured and remission mean?

A
63
Q

What is PDL1 and what cancer is PDL1 associated with?

A

It is a ligand that binds to T-Cell PD-1 receptors to prevent the recognition of the cancer cell as non-self.
It is widely expressed.

64
Q

Outline some systemic therapies for malignant melanomas.

A

Targeted therapies, such as anti-BRAF drugs (dabrafenib and trametinib).
Immunotherapies, such as PD-1 receptor blockers so that the PDL1 cannot be recognised, and PDL1 inhibitors (nivolumab and pembrolizumab).

65
Q

Pitfalls of anti-BRAF and immunotherapy drugs?

A

Anti-BRAF = tumour resistance can develop with 6 months, and so multiple drugs are used in combination.
Immunotherapy = drug resistance and side effects.

66
Q

State some different types of lung markers.

A

EFGR, BRAF, ALK, Ros1, Kras, etc.

67
Q

What type of molecule is an EFGR, how is it detected and what mutations does it lead to?

A

It is an oncogene that is detected by PCR.
Mutations lead to activation of the tyrosine kinase signalling pathways, that result in cell differentiation and proliferation.

68
Q

How are EFGR oncogenes mutated, treated, and what is the pitfall?

A

Mutated through deletion on chromosome 7.
Anti-EFGR tyrosine kinase inhibitors, such as Gefitinib.
Drug resistance can build up within 12-24 months.

69
Q

Outline the adenocarcinoma sequence of colon cancer.

A
70
Q

What cancers are osteosclerotic lesions often associated with?

A

Prostate metastatic cancers.

71
Q

What type of molecule is an ALK, how is it mutated and detected and what does mutations it lead to?

A

Anaplastic lymphoma kinase is an oncogene, insulin receptor.
They are mutated through fusion of genes - inversion and translocation.
Activation of downstream signals and cell proliferation and survival.

72
Q

Who are ALK mutations commonly seen in and what drugs are used to treat them?

A

Lung cancer in people that are young and have never smoked.
Treated with ATP kinase inhibitors, such as Crizotinib.
These can develop drug resistance.

73
Q

Outline some tumour suppression lung cancer molecular markers.

A

p53 and RB1 - both seen in small cell carcinoma.

74
Q

What are some growth factors frequently seen that are produced by cancers and what do they do?

A

PDGF - platelet derived growth factor allows for angiogenesis and stromal proliferation.
TGF-beta - transforming growth factor allows for angiogenesis, suppression of immune response and production of extracellular matrix.

75
Q

What is the suffix for anti-EGFR drugs, what is an example, and what cancers are they used to treat?

A

‘-tinib’, such as afatinib.
Expressed on epithelial cells, and so is seen in adenocarcinomas and squamous cell carcinomas.

76
Q

What ethnicities are EDFR mutations for lung cancer often seen in?

A

60% of Asians with lung cancer.
10-15% of white people with lung cancer.

77
Q

How are ALK lung markers detected?

A

Immunohistochemistry, FISH or PCR.

78
Q

What are ROS1 mutations caused by, and what is the function of it?

A

Gene re-arrangement.
It is an RTK insulin receptor.

79
Q

How are ROS1 mutations detected, and what is given to treat them?

A

Detected by immunohistochemistry, FISH or PCR.
Crizotinib is given to treat them, an ATP kinase inhibitor.

80
Q

What types of lung cancer are KRAS mutations seen in, and what predisposes someone to them?

A

They are seen in 25% of adenocarcinomas.
Smoking has been seen to increase the risk of mutations in these genes.

81
Q

How are KRAS mutations detected and what is the treatment for them?

A

They are detected using PCR.
They are treated using anti-KRAS drugs.

82
Q

What types of mutations are KRAS mutations?

A

Amino acid substitutions - seen on codon 12, 13 and 61.

83
Q

How do neoplastic cells mutate to stay alive?

A

Mutate proto-oncogenes for cell proliferation.
Mutate tumour-suppression genes to prevent cell proliferation from stopping.
Over-express anti-apoptotic factors
Inhibit pro-apoptosis signals.
Over-express growth factors and growth factor receptors.
Mutate DNA repair mechanisms.

84
Q

Give an example of an anti-apoptosis factor.

A

Bcl2.

85
Q

What mutation is seen in BRAF genes?

A

V600E mutations.

86
Q

Melanomas often have BRAF mutations. What other gene mutations can be seen in melanomas? How do mutations in these genes allow for cell survival?

A

NRAS.
They activate the MAPK pathway for cell proliferation.

87
Q

What increases in immune function do PDL1 treatments do?

A

Increase cytokine production and cytolysis.