Neonate 2 - Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the 5 types of tracheoesophageal atresia.

A

Esophagheal atresia is the most common congenital defect of the esophagus and most of these children have a TEF

A- neither pouch connects to trachea
B - Top pouch connects to trachea
C - Bottom pouch connects to trachea
D - Both pouches connect to trachea
E - Singular esophagus that connects to trachea at one point
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2
Q

Which type of TEF is most common

A

Type C is most common (accounts for 90%)

The upper esophagus ends in a blind pouch and the lower esophagus communicates with distal trachea

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3
Q

What prenatal findings suggest esophageal atresia? How is diagnosis confirmed?

A

Esophageal atresia prevents the fetus from swallowing amniotic fluid, this maternal polyhydramnios is key diagnostic factor.

Confirmed by inability to pass gastric tube into stomach.
Other symptoms: choking, coughing, cyanosis during feeding

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4
Q

What is VACTRAL association?

A

Approx 25-50% of children with TEF have other congenital anomalies

V - Vertebral defects
A - imperforate Anus
C - Cardiac anomalies
T - TEF
E - Esophageal atresia
R - Renal dysplasia
L - Limb anomalies
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5
Q

A patient has type C TEF, were should the ti of the ETT be placed?

A

Below fistula and above carina

If placed too high - gas delivered to stomach

If placed too low - endobronchial intubation likely

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6
Q

How should you induce a patient undergoing type C TEF repair?

A
  • Head up position and frequent suctioning to minimize risk of gastric aspiration
  • Awake intubation or inhalation induction with spontaneous ventilation
  • PPV -> gastric distention -> decreased thoracic compliance -> Increased PIP required to ventilate -> downward spiral
  • Placement of G-tube allows for gastric decompression. If pt already has G-tube, open to atmospheric pressure
  • Place ETT below fistula and above carina
  • Right lung compression during surgical repair is common. Right mainstream intubation will cause rapid desat
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7
Q

Discuss pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome

A

Neonates who do not produce enough surfactant are at risk for RDS

  • In absence of adequate surfactant, the alveoli remain stiff and noncompliant
  • Small alveoli tend to collapse
  • Larger alveoli become distended (accept gas from collapsed alveoli)
  • This promotes atelectasis, reduces the surface area where the gas exchange can take place - creating a V/Q mismatch
  • Hypoxemia leads to acidosis and possibly return to fetal circulation
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8
Q

What tests can be done to test fetal lung maturation in utero? what value suggests adequate lung development?

A

Amniocentesis can assist in the determination of fetal lung development

  • Ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin (L/S ratio) gives advanced warning about the state of the fetal lung by providing the ratio of lecithin (surfactant) to sphingomyelin (surfactant precursor)
  • An L/S ratio of >2 suggests adequate lung development
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9
Q

Discuss the use pf pre and postductal SpO2 monitoring in the newborn

A

Preductal pulse ox placed on right upper ext
Postductal placed on either lower ext

Difference between pre and postductal values suggest

  • palm HTN
  • right to left cardiac shunt
  • return to fetal circulation via the PDA
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10
Q

Pt has a hernia at the foramen of Bochdalek. Which congenital condition does this patient have?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia - allows abd contents to enter thoracic cavity

foramen of Bochdalek is most common site of herniation (usually left side)

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11
Q

What S/S suggest congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

CDH usually diagnosed at birth.
Newborn will have scaphoid abd (sunken in) and likely in respiratory distress

Other findings

  • Barrel chest
  • Cardiac displacement
  • Fluid filled GI segments in the thorax
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12
Q

Discribe ventilatory management in patient with CDH

A

Mass effect of abd contents within the chest impairs lung development, leading to pulmonary hypoplasia. One or both lungs can be effected (increased PVR and decreased compliance)

  • Keep PIP <25-30 to minimize barotrauma and risk of pneumothorax in “good lung”. This may require permissive hypercapnia
  • Avoid other conditions that increase PVR (hypoxia, acidosis, hypothermia)
  • Abd closure may increase PIP
  • Pulse ox on lower ext van warn of increased intra-abd pressure
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13
Q

Omphalocele

Location:
Organ involvement:
Covering?:
Incidence:
Co-existing disease:
Surgery:
A

Location: midline (involves umbilicus)

Organ involvement: Bowel & sometimes liver

Covering?: Yes

Incidence: 1 : 3,000-10,000

Co-existing disease: Trisomy 21, cardiac defects, Beckwith-Weidmann syndrome

Surgery: less urgent, requires cardiac workup first

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14
Q

Gastroschisis

Location:
Organ involvement:
Covering?:
Incidence:
Co-existing disease:
Surgery:
A

Location: off midline (usually right)

Organ involvement: Bowel

Covering?: No

Incidence: 1: 30,000

Co-existing disease: Prematurity

Surgery: More urgent (within 24 hrs), higher risk for fluid & heat loss, IVF 150-300 ml/kg/day

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15
Q

Describe anesthetic concerns for patient with omphalocele or gastroschisis

A

If gastroschisis, abd contents placed in bag after delivery (minimized heat/water loss)

Monitor peak airway pressure: if PIP > 25-30, surgical closure of abd may need to be staged

closure may increase intra-abd pressure: increased abd pressure -> decreased venous return -> decreased CO -> decreased systemic perfusion

Measure SpO2 on the lower ext to monitor for impaired venous return

N2O dissents bowel and may impair surgical closure

Expect major fluid and electrolyte shifts

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16
Q

How/when does pyloric stenosis present?

A

Occurs when hypertrophy of pyloric muscles creates a mechanical obstruction at the gastric outlet (between stomach and duodenum).

An olive shaped mass is palpated just below diploid process

  • non-bilious projectile vomiting
  • occurs first 2-12 weeks of life
  • more common in males
17
Q

Describe pathophysiology of pyloric stenosis

A

Vomiting depletes water and causes a HYPOnatremic, HYPOkalemic, HYPOchloremic, metabolic alkalosis

  • lungs compensate with respiratory acidosis
    Kidneys try to excrete metabolic alkalosis by excreting bicarb

As dehydration continues, aldosterone increases (Na & water retention). To maintain electroneutrality, the kidneys lose hydrogen in the urine = ACIDIFICATION OF URINE

If dehydration not corrected, impaired tissue perfusion increases lactate production and produces metabolic acidosis (LATE SIGN)

18
Q

Discuss anesthetic management of pat with pyloric stenosis

A

Medically managed, not surgically! - surgical postponed until fluid, electrolyte, and acid/base balance optimized

Anticipate full stomach, empty stomach before induction, intubate awake or with RSI and extubatne awake

Liberal hydration to correct dehydration, may require glucose supplementation

POST OP APNEA COMMON

19
Q

What is NEC and who is at risk?

A

NEC is necrosis of the bowel. Result of early feeding. Impaired absorption by the gut leads to stasis, bacterial overgrowth and infection. This increases risk of bowel perforation.

Babies at risk:

  • prematurity (< 32 weeks)
  • LBW ( < 1500g)
20
Q

Discuss management of patients with NEC

A

Managed medically, however, bowel perforation necessitates a bowel resection and usually colostomy.

Often have metabolic acidosis and require substantial fluid replacement

Bowel resection early in life can lead to shirt gut syndrome

21
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity?

A

ROP causes abnormal vascular development in the retina. Immature retinal blood vessels are at risk of vasoconstriction and hemorrhage. Dysfunctional healing creates scars. As scars retract, they pull on retina, causing retinal detachment and blindness.

22
Q

Discuss risk factors for ROP

A

Key risk factors: Prematurity, LBW, hyperoxia

23
Q

Discuss relationship between FiO2 and ROP

A

Until retinal maturation is complete (up to 44 weeks post-conception), SpO2 should be titrated to SpO2 85-93%

24
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

process of programmed cell death

healthy response during normal development, there are concerns that commonly used anesthetic agents can kill neurons, potentially causing neurocognitive development delays later in life

25
Q

Drugs associated with apoptosis

A
Halogenated agents
N2O
Propofol
Ketamine
Etomidate
Barbituates
Benzos
26
Q

Drugs NOT associated with apoptosis

A

Opioids
Dexmedetomidine
Xenon