Neonatal Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is GBS?

A

gram positive cocci in pairs or chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is enterococcus?

A

gram positive cocci in chains

  • nosocomial
  • present as bacteremia, meningitis, and UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is staphylococcus?

A

gram positive cocci in clusters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is staph coag positive?

A

staph aureus

-scalded skin syndrome, MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is staph coag negative?

A

staph epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is e. coli?

A

gram negative rod

-associated with chorio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the space bugs that need double coverage?

A
Serratia
Pseudomonas
Acinetobacter
Citrobacter
E. coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is klebsiella?

A

gram negative rod (second most common)

  • frequent cause of pneumonia especially w/ventilator
  • can produce extended spectrum beta-lactamases which are resistant to penicillins, cephalosporins, and some ahminoglycosides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most common types of candida

A

albicans and parapsilosis

-malassezia furfur requires special plating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

congenital candida sepsis

A
  • related to ascending infection in utero
  • presents shortly after birth
  • full term is generalized rash
  • preterm has rash, pustules, vesicles, invasive pulmonary disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

systemic candida

A
  • if infant is deteriorating and not responding to treatment, consider antibiotic change or fungal source!
  • renal involvement is common (do US)
  • thrombocytopenia
  • hyperglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

herpes simplex mode of transmission

A
  • congenital (4%): triad is brain, eye, skin
  • perinatal (86%): typically vertical from mom to baby during delivery process is most common
  • postnatal (10%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

primary vs secondary HSV infection

A

-primary infection much worse: more viral shedding and less IgG to fight it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

three presentations with HSV

A
  • disseminated
  • skin, eye, mouth
  • CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

disseminated HSV

A
  • most lethal, multiorgan involvement
  • earliest presentation (within first five days of life)
  • 10-50% have NO lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SEM HSV

A
  • most common
  • localized form, limited to skin and mucus membranes
  • clustered, reddened, erythromatous base with pustule
  • presents with lesions 1 week or later, not at birth
  • remove roof and culture lesion
  • if untreated, will progress to disseminated or CNS disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CNS HSV

A
  • latest presenting form (DOL 10-18)
  • initially may have subtle, nonspecific findings
  • seizures
  • abnormal LP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

about CMV

A

-most common congenital infection worldwide

19
Q

CMV transmission

A
  • transplacental and intrapartum: maternal infection first half of pregnancy associated with greater risk of neonatal infection and greater severity
  • breast milk (freeze milk for VLBW)
20
Q

CMV presentation

A
  • IUGR
  • jaundice
  • HSM
  • purpura
  • blueberry muffin rash
  • microcephaly
  • periventricular calcifications and chorioretinitis (ophtho needs to look at eyes)
21
Q

CMV diagosis

A

-send urine culture

22
Q

CMV sequelae

A
  • mortality
  • 10-20% major neurodevelopment problems: DEAFNESS, visual impairment, cognitive delays, spastic quadriplegia
  • increased risk for dental caries
23
Q

about VZV

A
  • congenital infection is rare

- mild to severe neonatal disease that presents before DOL 10: CNS abnormalities, limb abnormalities, and skin lesions

24
Q

most concerning mode of transmission for VZV

A

-maternal onset between 5 days prior to delivery until 2 days after delivery: infant is exposed and born before the mom can transfer immunity via the placenta

25
what does VZIG do?
decreases intensity of illness if given shortly (within 3-5 days) after exposure, does not prevent infection
26
clinical manifestations of VZIG
- usually very severe - skin lesions - severe resp. distress/pneumonia - necrotic visceral lesions - fatal
27
about hepatitis B
- greatest risk for transmission is at birth, followed by postpartum - least common transmission during 1st or 2nd trimester transplacental
28
hepatitis B presentation
- most are asymptomatic - 70-90% become chronic carriers - infant will have elevated LFTs/bili, serologic markers
29
infants born to HBsAg positive mom:
- HBIG and HepB vaccine within 12 hours | - HepB vaccine at 1-2 and 6 months
30
infants born to HBsAg unknown mom:
- hepB vaccine within 12 hours - HBIG if you find that mom is positive or within 1 week if results not available (preferable to give to preterm LBW within 12 hrs) - HepB vaccine at 1-2 and 6 months
31
about chlamydia:
- extremely common - 50% of infants acquire infection during delivery, usually conjunctivitis - occurs at DOL 5-12
32
chlamydia presentation:
- initially water, then purulent - swollen eyelids - RED, THICKENED CONJUCTIVAE - can also be pneumonia; occurs at 4-12 weeks of life
33
chlamydia treatment
-erythromycin
34
about gonorrhea
- gram negative bacteria - transmission is usually during delivery - can be disseminated or eye infection
35
gonorrhea presentation
usually appears 4 days after birth with purulent drainage | -rapid corneal ulceration's which lead to scarring and blindness
36
about syphilis
- gram negative spirochete | - one of the few bacteria that can readily cross the placenta causing fetal infection
37
presentation with congenital syphilis infection
- prematurity - SAB/stillborn/perinatal if untreated - hydrops - IUGR
38
when should mother be treated for syphilis to consider it adequate?
4 weeks or more before delivery
39
presentation with early congenital syphilis
- symptoms before the age of 2 - HSM, jaundice - lymphadenopathy - lesions on palms and soles - rhinitis (sniffles) - rhagedes (cracks in lips which scar) - CNS involvement
40
presentation with late congenital syphilis
-after 2 years if congenital infection isn't treated: | Hutchison's triad: blunted upper incisors, keratitis and 8th nerve deafness
41
how is syphilis treated?
-penicillin G
42
about toxoplasmosis:
- protozoan | - transmitted transplacentally during primary maternal infection
43
toxoplasmosis presentation
- usually asymptomatic at birth - chorioretinitis - CNS defects: hydrocephaly, intracranial calcifications - IUGR, microcephaly - blueberry muffin rash
44
toxoplasmosis treatment
- treatable but not curative - sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine - folinic acid - corticosteroids if elevated CSF protein or active chorioretinitis