Negligence Flashcards

1
Q

what are the elements for prima facie case of negligence?

A

1 duty on the part of defendant to conform to a specific standard of conduct for protection against an unreasonable risk of injury
2 a breach of that duty by defendant
3 the breach is the actual and proximate cause to the plaintiffs injury
4 damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the duty of care

A

owed to all foreseeable plaintiffs. if the defendant’s conduct creates an unreasonable risk of injury to persons in the position of the plaintiff, the general duty of care extends from the defendant to the plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

foreseeable plaintiff

A

someone who is in the zone of danger (cardozo). some states say it is anyone who suffers injuries proximately caused by the defendant’s negligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

examples of foreseeable plaintiff

A

rescuers - danger invites rescue
prenatal injuries - viable fetus “wrongful birth or pregnancy action”
intended beneficiaries or economic transactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basic standard of care

A

the reasonable person standard is an objective standard. a defendant’s mental deficiencies, and inexperience does not count. but the reasonable person is considered to have the same physical characteristics as defendant. a defendant who has knowledge or experience superior to that of an average person is required to exercise such experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Professionals

A

A professional or someone with special occupational skills is required to possess knowledge and skill of a member of the profession or occupation in good standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

duty to disclose risks of treatment

A

a doctor has a duty to disclose the risks of treatment to enable a patient to give an informed consent. a doctor breaches this duty if an undisclosed risk was serious enough that a reasonable person in the patients position would have withheld consent on learning of the risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Children

A

held to the standard of a child of like age, education, intelligence, and experience. This is a subjective test. Children engaged in potentially dangerous adult activities may be required to conform to an adult standard of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Common carriers and innkeepers

A

held to a very high degree of care (liable for even slight degree of negligence) plaintiff must be passenger or a guest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

automobile driver to guest

A

a guest in an automobile is owed a duty of ordinary care. in the few guest statute states, one is liable to nonpaying passengers only for reckless tortuous conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bailment duties

A

In a bailment relationship, the bailor transfers to the bailee possession of the chattel but not title.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

duties owed by bailee

A

depends on the benefits of the bailment. 1) for sole benefit of the bailor bailment, there is a low standard of care, 20 for a sole benefit of the bailee, high standard of care, 3) for a mutual benefit - ordinary standard of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

duties owed by bailor

A

the bailor must inform the bailee of known, dangerous defects in the chattel. for a bailment for hire, the bailor must inform the bailee of chattel defects of which he is or should be aware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Emergency situations

A

a defendant must act as a reasonable person would under the same emergency conditions. The emergency is not to considered, however, if it is of the defendant’s own making.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

owners and occupiers of land

A

the extent of the liability of owners and or occupiers of land (and those in privity with the owner/occupier) depends on where the injury occurred and on the status of the plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

duty of possessor to those off premises

A

there is no duty to protect one off the premises from natural conditions on the premises; however, there is a duty of unreasonably dangerous artificial conditions or structures abutting adjacent land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

trees

A

in urban areas, the owner/occupier is liable for damage caused off the premises by trees on the premises (falling branches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

duty of possessor to those on premises

A

depends on status as trespasser, licensee, or invitee some jurisdictions do not distinct between licensee and invitee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Duty owed to trespassers

A

none if undiscovered
if discovered -
1 warn of or make safe concelaed, unsafe, artificial conditions known to the landowner involving risk of death or bodily harm, and
2 use reasonable care in the exercise of active operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

attractive nuisance doctrine

A

duty to exercise ordinary care to avoid a reasonably foreseeable risk of harm to children caused by dangerous conditions on his property.
4 reqs
1. a dangerous condition on the land that the owner know or should be aware of
2. the owner knows or should know children frequent the vicinity of the condition
3. the condition is likely to cause injury (child cant appreciate risk)
4. the expense of remedying the situation is slight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

duty owed to licensees

A

a licensee is one who enters onto the land with the possessors permission for her own purpose or business rather than for the possessors benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Duty to licencees (2) (social guests)

A

1) warn of or make safe dangerous conditions natural or artificial known to the owner that create an unreasonable risk of harm to the licensee and that the licensee is unlikely to discover, and
2) exercise reasonable care in the conduct of active operations on the property.
No duty to inspect or repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

duty owed to invitees

A

enter on land in response to invitation by landowner
same duties as to licensees and the duty to make reasonable inspections to discover nonobvious dangerous conditions and thereafter make them safe. one will lose this status if exceed scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Duties of lessor and lessee of realty

A

lessee has general duty to maintain the premises. the lessor must warn of existing defects of which he is aware or has reason to know and which he knows the lessee is not likely to discover on a reasonable inspection. if lessor covenants to repair, he is liable for unreasonably dangerous conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Statutory standard of care

A

a clearly stated specific duty imposed by a statute providing for criminal penalties including fines may replace the more general common law duty of care if 1. the plaintiff is within the protected class and 2 the statute was designed to prevent the type of harm suffered by the p

26
Q

negligence per se

A

establishes a conclusive presumption of duty and breach of duty.

27
Q

duty regarding negligent infliction of emotional distress

A

breached when the defendant creates a foreseeable risk of physical injury to the plaintiff. The plaintiff must be 1) within the zone of danger; and 2) the plaintiff must suffer physical symptoms from the distress.

28
Q

bystander not in a zone of danger seeing injury to another

A

can recover if 1) closely related 2) plaintiff was present at the scene of the injury 3) the plaintiff personally observed or perceived the event.

29
Q

Exceptions to the Affirmative duties to act:

A
  1. once defendant undertakes to aid someone he must do so with reasonable care
  2. has duty to assist someone he has negligently or innocently placed in peril.
  3. special relationship between parties
  4. duty to prevent a third person from injuring another.
30
Q

breach of duty

A

where defendants conduct falls short of that level required by the applicable standard of care owed to the plaintiff, she has breached her duty. whether the duty of care is breached in an individual case is a question for the trier of fact.

31
Q

theories to proof breach

A
  1. custom or usage
  2. violation of statute
  3. res ipsa loquitor
32
Q

res ipsa loquitor

A
  1. the accident causing the injury is a typr that would not normally occure unles someone was negligent
  2. the negligence is attributable to defendant through evidence defendant had control of instrumentality
33
Q

res ipsa and directed verdict

A
  1. deny defendants motion for directed verdict if plaintiff has estabilshed res ipsa
  2. grant defendants motionif plaintiff has failed to establish res ipsa
34
Q

Causation

A

plaintiff must show both actual cause and proximate cause

35
Q

actual cause

A

it must be the cause in fact of the injury

36
Q

but for test

A

act or ommission is the cause in fact of an injury when the injury would not have occurred but for the act.

37
Q

joint causes

A

Substantial Factor - where several causes bring about injury, and any one alone would have been sufficient to cause the injury, defendant’s conduct is the cause in fact if it was a substantial factor in causing the injury.

38
Q

Alternative causes approach

A

this test applies when there are two acts, only one of which causes injury, but it is not known which one. the burden of proof shifts to defendants, and each must show that his negligence is not the actual cause.

39
Q

Proximate Cause

A

a defendant is liable for all harmful results that are the normal incidents of and within the increased risk caused by his acts. this is the foreseeability test.

40
Q

in direct cause cases

A

uninterrupted chain of events from the negligent act to plaintiff’s injury, defendant is liable for all foreseeable harmful results, regardless of the unusual manner in which they arise or the unusual timing of cause and effect.

41
Q

in indirect cause cases

A

an affirmative intervening force comes into motion after defendant’s negligent act and combines with it to cause plaintiff’s injury.

42
Q

foreseeable results, cause by foreseeable intervening forces - defendant liable

A

defendant is liable where his negligence caused a foreseeable harmful response or reaction from a dependent intervening force or created a foreseeable risk that an independent intervening force would harm plaintiff.

43
Q

common foreseeable intervening forces

A
  1. normal responses or reactions medical malpractice
  2. negligence of rescuers
  3. efforts to protect the person or property of oneself or another,
  4. injuries caused by another reacting to defendant’s actions
  5. subsequent diseases caused by a weakened condition
  6. subsequent accident substantially caused by the original injury
44
Q

independant intervening forces

A
  1. negligent acts of third persons
  2. crimes and intentional torts of third persons
  3. acts of god
45
Q

foreseeable results caused by unforeseeable intervening forces

A

defendant is usually liable.

46
Q

superseding causes

A

intervening forces that produce unforeseeable results i.e. results not within the risk of defendant’s negligence break the causal chain making defendant not liable

47
Q

eggshell-skull plaintiff. defendant takes the plaintiff as he finds him

A

defendant is liable for all damages including aggravation of an existing condition, even if the extent or severity of the damages was unforeseeable.

48
Q

Damages

A

nominal not available, can recover economic, non economic, and emotional distress if suffered physical injury.

49
Q

property damage

A

cost of repair but if damaged fair market value at the time it was destroyed

50
Q

Punitive damage

A

not available in negligence cases

51
Q

nonrecoverable items

A
  1. interest from the date of damage in a personal injury action
  2. attorneys fees
52
Q

duty to mitigate

A

plaintiff has a duty to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages

53
Q

collateral source rule

A

damages not reduced just because plaintiff received benefits from other sources

54
Q

defenses- contributory negligence

A

negligence on the part of the plaintiff that contributes towards her injuries

  • defense to negligence per se unless person was in a protected class
  • no defense to an intentional tort
55
Q

exception to contributory negligence

A

last clear chance - permits plaintiff to recover even if she was negligent. under this rule, the person with the last clear chance to avoid an accident who fails to do so is liable for neglience

56
Q

helpless peril

A

in many states, where the plaintiff is in helpless peril, defendant will be liable if he knew oe should have known of plaintiff’s predicament.

57
Q

inattentive peril

A

plaintiff could have extricated herself if attentive defendant must have actually known of plaintiff’s predicament.

58
Q

imputed contributory negligence

A

generally, the contributory negligence of a third party will be imputed to a plaintiff and bar her claim only when the realtionship between the third party and the plaintiff is such that a court could find the plaintiff vicariously liable for the third persons negligence not including husband and wife, parent and child, and automobile owner and driver.

59
Q

Assumption of risk

A
  1. plaintiff must have known of the risk
  2. voluntarily proceeded in the face of the risk
    - not a defense to intentional torts
60
Q

comparative negligence

A

contributory negligence is not a complete bar of recovery. Rather, the trier of fact wieghs plaintiff’s negligence and reduces damages accordingly asume pure for the exam.

61
Q

Duty owed to users of recreational land

A

A landowner who permits the general public to use his land for recreational purposes without charging a fee is not liable for injuries suffered by a recreational user unless the landowner willfully or maliciously failed to guard against or warn of a dangerous condition or activity.