Negligence Flashcards

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1
Q

When may a plaintiff recover for negligent infliction of emotional distress based on injury to a third party?

A

1) P is closely related to a party injured by D’s negligent conduct

2) P was present at the scene of the injury (“zone of danger”)

3) P personally observed or perceived the injury

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1
Q

When may a plaintiff recover for negligent infliction of emotional distress, even if they were not a bystander and there was not a “near miss”?

A

When the defendant is engaged in a special activity or there is a special relationship between the defendant and the plaintiff such that the defendant’s negligence has great potential to cause plaintiff severe emotional distress.

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2
Q

When may defendants be jointly and severally liable for a plaintiff’s divisible injury?

A

When the defendants are acting in concert and the joint act causes P’s harm

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3
Q

When does D have a duty to rescue P?

A

When there is a special relationship b/w the parties, D negligently or innocently placed P in danger, D assumed the duty to rescue, or D has the ability/authority to control the actions of a third party who they know/should know is likely to commit acts that require the exercise of control

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4
Q

What is the duty owed by a owner/occupier of land to trespassing children?

A

The landowner must exercise reasonable care to prevent reasonably foreseeable harm to trespassing children when…

1) There is a dangerous artificial condition on the land that the owner is aware of

2) The owner knows or should know that children are likely to trespass on the land because of an aspect of the land that is attractive to children

3) The condition is likely to cause injury (children unlikely to recognize the danger)

4) The expense of remedying the situation is slight compared to the magnitude of risk

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5
Q

When will D’s violation of a special statutory standard of care NOT establish negligence per se?

A

When compliance is out of D’s control or would be more dangerous than violation of the statute

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6
Q

What approach is used to determine factual cause when there is an unascertainable cause?

A

If multiple def. were negligent and only one negligent act caused P’s injury, but it cannot be determined which act, the burden of proof shifts to each D to prove their act was not the factual cause of P’s injury

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7
Q

What is the “eggshell skull doctrine”?

A

A negligent D is liable for foreseeable injury to P even if extent/severity of injuries was not foreseeable

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8
Q

When does an intervening force NOT break the chain of proximate causation in a negligence case?

A

When D’s negligence created a foreseeable risk of harm from the intervening force.

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9
Q

When is contributory negligence of a third party imputed to P?

A

When P is vicariously liable for the negligence of the third party

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10
Q

In a negligence action against a manufacturer for defective product design (as opposed to strict liability), what must P show to satisfy element of breach?

A

Manufacturer knew or should have known enough facts to put a reasonable manufacturer on notice of danger of marketing the defective product to the public

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11
Q

What are the elements of a PF case of negligence?

A

D owed P a duty to conform to a particular standard of conduct to prevent an unreasonable risk of harm to P, D breached the applicable standard of care, D’s breach was the factual and proximate cause of P’s injury, and P suffered damages

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12
Q

Generally, when is the defendant’s negligent conduct the factual cause of the plaintiff’s injury?

A

When the plaintiff’s injury would not have occurred “but-for” the defendant’s conduct.

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13
Q

What is the test for factual cause when there are multiple sufficient causes for P’s injury?

A

A defendant’s conduct will be considered the factual cause of P’s injury when they were a substantial factor in causing P’s injury

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14
Q

When is the general rule of proximate cause in negligence cases?

A

A defendant’s negligent conduct is the proximate cause of plaintiff’s injury if plaintiff’s injury was a foreseeable result of defendant’s breach.

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15
Q

Which intervening forces are usually considered foreseeable to the defendant as natural responses/reactions to the defendant’s negligent conduct?

A

Medical malpractice, negligence of rescuers, reaction/protection behavior, and disease or accidents substantially caused by plaintiff’s original injury.

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16
Q

When may a P recover for emotional distress under a negligence COA?

A

When the plaintiff’s physical injuries caused emotional distress, or when they have suffered no physical injuries but have a claim for negligent infliction of emotional distress

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17
Q

What is the ordinary standard of care?

A

As to foreseeable plaintiffs, D has a duty to exercise the care of a reasonably prudent person under the same circumstances to avoid unreasonable risk of injury to P.

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18
Q

What is the ordinary standard of care owed by a person with a physical disability?

A

If the disability is relevant to the claim, the person must exercise the care of a reasonably prudent person with their disability under the circumstances.

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19
Q

When does a statutory duty replace the ordinary standard of care in a negligence action?

A

When a specific duty is clearly stated in a statute which imposes criminal penalties and

1) The plaintiff is within the class of persons protected by the statute.

2) The harm to the plaintiff is the type of harm the statute is designed to prevent.

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20
Q

What is negligence per se?

A

A conclusive presumption of duty and breach, established when a defendant violates an applicable statutory duty of care.

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21
Q

What is the standard of care owed by children?

A

Children b/w the ages of five and eighteen owe a duty to exercise the same care as a child of like age, experience, and intelligence.

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22
Q

What is the standard of care owed by professionals?

A

Professionals owe a duty to exercise the same care/skill as an average member of their profession providing similar services, practicing in a similar community.

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23
Q

When may a child be required to conform to an ordinary standard of care?

A

When the child is engaged in a potentially dangerous “adult” activity, such as operating a motorized vehicle.

24
Q

What specific duties are owed to patients by doctors?

A

Doctors have a duty to warn patients about the risks of treatment that a reasonable person would want to know to facilitate informed consent.

25
Q

What is the duty of an owner/occupier of land as to known or anticipated trespassers?

A

A duty to warn/make safe dangerous conditions on land which are:

1) Artificial
2) Highly dangerous
3) Concealed
4) Known to the owner/occupier

26
Q

What is the duty of an owner/occupier of land as to licensees?

A

A duty to warn/make safe dangerous conditions on land which are:

1) Concealed
2) Known to the owner/occupier

27
Q

What is the distinction between a licensee and an invitee?

A

A licensee is a person who enters land with permission in connection with their own purposes; an invitee is a person who enters land for a purpose related to the landowner’s business or for which land is held open to the public

28
Q

What is the duty of an owner/occupier of land as to invitees?

A

A duty to warn/make safe dangerous conditions on land which are:

1) Concealed
2) Known to the owner/occupier, or capable of being known after reasonable inspection

29
Q

When may a plaintiff invoke res ipsa loquitor to establish breach?

A

1) The accident causing P’s injury would not normally occur absent negligent conduct

2) The negligence is probably attributable to D (can be established through evidence that instrumentality causing injury was in D’s exclusive control)

30
Q

What is the traditional rule regarding contributory negligence?

A

A plaintiff’s negligent conduct which contributed to their injury is a bar to recovery for D negligent conduct.

31
Q

What is the rule regarding contributory negligence in comparative negligence jurisdictions?

A

Fault is apportioned between the parties, and the plaintiff’s recovery is reduced in proportion to their fault.

32
Q

What is pure comparative negligence?

A

In a pure comparative negligence jdx., the plaintiff may recover regardless of their level of fault.

33
Q

What is partial comparative negligence?

A

In a partial comparative negligence jdx., the plaintiff cannot recover if they were more at fault then the defendant (more than 50% at fault).

If there are multiple defendants, P’s fault is compared to the total amount of negligence by both defendants.

34
Q

What were the limitations to asserting contributory negligence as a defense at CL?

A

Contributory negligence is NOT a defense to violation of a statute if statute was designed to protect class of persons including P from incapacity/lack of judgment.

Last Clear Chance Rule: Person with the last clear chance to avoid injury to P is liable for P’s injuries.

35
Q

What are the elements of assumption of risk?

A

1) P knew of the risks created by D conduct

2) P voluntarily proceeded in the face of the risk.

36
Q

What are exceptions to assumption of risk as a defense?

A

Assumption of risk NOT a defense where: D committed an intentional tort, D acted with recklessness/gross negligence, P is a member of a class protected by statute.

Common carriers/public utilities/providers of essential services cannot limit liability by disclaimer.

Court may decline to recognize express assumption of risk in the interest of fairness.

37
Q

When may P recover from D for negligent infliction of emotional distress in a “near miss” case?

A

1) Breach of applicable duty of care by D

2) P was in the “zone of danger,” subject to a high risk of physical injury

3) P suffered physical symptoms as a result of their emotional distress

38
Q

What is joint and several liability?

A

When the conduct of multiple defendants proximately caused an indivisible injury to P, P may recover the full amount of damages from any single defendant. (D may then seek contribution from other def.)

39
Q

What is the duty of care owed by a landlord to a tenant?

A

LL generally has no duty to make premises safe, but must warn T of latent defects (defects LL knows about or has reason to know about that are unlikely to be discovered by T through rez. inspection)

40
Q

What is indemnification, and what are some situations where it is commonly available?

A

Indemnification refers to the right of a D to be fully compensated by another party for the damages it pays to P.

It is available in vicarious liability situations, or in strict liability claims against non-manufacturers.

41
Q

What is the duty owed by a commercial supplier in a negligent products liability case?

A

Commercial supplier has a duty to act as a reasonably prudent supplier would under the circumstances, which extends to foreseeable plaintiffs.

May be breached by e.g. failure to inspect goods, negligent design of goods.

42
Q

What is required for a buyer to recover for products liability based on breach of express warranties?

A

The warranty must have been part of the basis of the bargain

43
Q

Who may sue for breach of the implied warranties of merchantability or warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

A

Any purchaser, a member of their family/household, or a guest in the purchaser’s home

44
Q

What are potential limitations on liability for breach of implied warranties in a products liability action?

A

The seller may limit liability for economic damages, but NOT personal injury.

45
Q

What defenses may a seller assert in a products liability action for breach of implied warranties?

A

Failure by the buyer to notify the seller of breach

46
Q

What elements must P show to establish a PF case of strict products liability?

A

1) D is a commercial supplier of the product

2) The product is defective

3) Causation

4) Damages (personal injury or property damage)

47
Q

How can P show a manufacturing defect?

A

By showing that a product emerges from manufacturing different from and more dangerous than products that were manufactured properly

48
Q

How can P show a design defect?

A

By showing that the product has dangerous propensities.

Usually done by evidence of a feasible alternative design: D could have made product safer without altering product’s utility OR price.

49
Q

How can P show an information defect?

A

By showing that a product did not contain adequate instructions/warnings as to the risks involved in using the product in a foreseeable manner.

50
Q

How can P establish actual causation in a strict products liability action?

A

By showing that the product was not substantially altered since leaving D control (presumed where product moved through normal channels of distribution)

51
Q

How can P establish proximate causation in a strict product liability action?

A

By showing that they were making a foreseeable use of the product at the time of injury (including foreseeable misuse), and that there were no superseding causes of their damages.

P may also show that injury would not normally occur absent defect.

52
Q

Who may recover against a commercial supplier in a strict products liability action?

A

Any foreseeable victim of the defective product; no privity is required between P and D.

53
Q

When is an activity considered “abnormally dangerous” such that strict liability applies?

A

1) The activity creates a foreseeable risk of serious harm that cannot be eliminated by the exercise of reasonable care

2) The activity is not a common usage within the community

54
Q

What are limitations on strict liability for animals or abnormally dangerous activities?

A

Strict liability only extends to foreseeable plaintiffs (not trespassers) and harm that results from the dangerous nature of the activity (including response/reactions).

55
Q

What are examples of abnormally dangerous activities?

A

Manufacturing/blasting explosives, storing/transporting dangerous chemicals or biological materials, anything involving radiation or nuclear energy, fumigation

56
Q

What are examples of special relationships imposing a duty on D to protect P from harm?

A

Common carrier/shopkeeper/innkeeper, place of public accommodation, parent/child, prison warden/inmate, hospital/patient

57
Q

When is the negligence of a third party imputed to the plaintiff under traditional contributory negligence rules?

A

When the plaintiff could be found vicariously liable for the third party’s actions.