Negligence Flashcards

1
Q

Neligence basics

A

Negligence is analyzed under an objective standard by comparing D’s actions to a reasonable person under the same or similar circumstances

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2
Q

Negligence-Elements

A

1) Duty of care
-D has a duty to conform to a specific standard of care
-Reasonably prudent person: D’s duty is to behave like a reasonably prudent person under the circumstances presented
-Exception: in certain situations, an alternative standard of care applies
2) Breach of duty
3) Causation
-Actual cause and proximate cause
-Note: the MBE may refer to actual cause as “cause in fact” or “factual cause” and proximate cause as “legal cause”
4) Damages

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3
Q

Duty of care

A

D owes a duty of care to behave like a reasonably prudent person to all foreseeable plaintiffs in the zone of danger

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4
Q

Default standard of care

A
  • Reasonable prudent person
  • D’s duty is to behave like a reasonably prudent person under the circumstances
  • RPP is considered to be someone with D’s physical characteristics, but with the knowledge and mental capacity of an ordinary person
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5
Q

Foreseeable victims

A

Those within the zone of danger
* Zone of danger = the area around D’s activities in which a P could foreseeably be injured
* Rescuer’s exception: if D puts himself or another in danger and a third person attempts to rescue, D can be held liable for the rescuer’s injuries, even if unforeseeable
-Does not apply to emergency personnel (e.g. firefighters or police) if their injury results from a risk inherent to the job
* Prenatal injury: a duty of care is owed to a viable fetus

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6
Q

Children

A

Held to the standard of care of a reasonable child of similar age, education, intelligence, and experience
* Generally, young children (i.e. under 5) lack capacity to be held negligent
* Adult activities exception: children engaged in adult activities must conform to an adult standard of care in that activity

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7
Q

Common carriers and innkeepers

A

Held to an “utmost care” standard
-Liable for even slight negligence to passengers or guests

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8
Q

Custom or usage in an industry

A

Can be used to establish a standard of care, but failure to adhere does not automatically give rise to a breach of duty, nor does compliance with an industry custom automatically establish a lack of negligence

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9
Q

Statutory standards of care and negligence per se

A

An existing statute may establish a standard of care, in which case the statutory standard imposed by the statute will replace the general common law standard of reasonable care

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10
Q

Statutory standard of care-Requirements

A

Will apply if statute satisfies 3 criteria:
1) P must prove that harm suffered is the type the statute was meant to prevent
2) P is in class of victims statute was meant to protect; and
3) Statute applies a standard of conduct: says what to do or not to do

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11
Q

Statutory standard of care does not apply if

A

a) Compliance is more dangerous than non-compliance, or
b) Compliance is impossible under the circumstances

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12
Q

Negligence per se

A

Violation of the statute means P must only prove causation, not breach of duty
* Under majority rule, that violation of the statute establishes a conclusive presumption of duty and breach of duty
* Compliance does not automatically clear D of liability

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13
Q

Duty of care for owners and occupiers of land to trespassers

A

Owners and occupiers of land may have a duty of care for anticipated trespassers and child trespassers
-Same standard of care applies for owners and occupiers

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14
Q

Unknown or undiscovered trespassers

A

No duty owed

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15
Q

Anticipated trespassers

A

Where owner has reason to believe of trespassers on her land
* Activities: owners has a duty of reasonable care in carrying out activities on her property
* Dangerous conditions: owner has duty to make safe or warn of any known, concealed, man made hazards
-Note: this is rare, look for spring guns traps, etc.

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16
Q

Attractive nuisance doctrine for child trespassers

A

Owner must take reasonable care to eliminate dangers on her property or protect children from those dangers if:
1) She is aware or should be aware of a dangerous condition on her property
2) She knows or should know children are in the vicinity
3) The condition is likely to cause injury given a child’s inability to appreciate the risk; and
4) The magnitude of the risk otweighs its utility or the expense of remedying it

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17
Q

Licensee

A

One who enters land with owner’s permission for his own purpose or business (i.e. not landowner’s benefit)
-E.g. relative, friends, social guests

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18
Q

Invitee

A

One who enters land held open to the public or who enters with owner’s permission to confer a commercial benefit
-E.g. store patron, concert goer

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19
Q

Licensee and invitee: Duty of care owed

A
  • Activities carried out on property: reasonable care
  • Known dangerous conditions: duty to warn or make safe
  • Duty to inspect: n/a for licensees
    -Invitees: owners have duty to conduct a reasonable inspection for non obvious dangers and make them safe
  • May be non-delegable: businesses that hold property open to the public have a non delegable duty to keep premises safe for customers
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20
Q

Licensee and invitee:Scope of duty

A

Limited by scope of the invitation/license
* Owner’s duty extends only to those areas where one is an invitee or licensee (e.g. store owner does not owe duty of care in employees-only area)

Note: police and firefighters are considered licensees, but cannot recover for injuries suffered in the line of duty if the injury results from a risk inherent in the job

21
Q

Breach of duty

A

D breaches his duty when his conduct falls short of the standard of care owed under the circumstances

22
Q

D breached the applicable standard of care

A

Includes:
* Reasonable person standard
* Negligence per se: violation of a relevant statute
* Specialized standard of care
* Custom or usage in an industry: not an automatic breach, but may be relevant

23
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

The very occurrence of the accident causing P’s injuries suggests negligent conduct
* Arises if facts cannot establish breach of duty because circumstances surrounding the event are unknown to P

24
Q

Res ipsa-Requirements

A

1) Inference of negligence: the harm would not normally occur absent negligence
2) Attributable to D: this type of harm normall results from negligence by one in D’s position
-Often satisfied by showing that the injury causing instrument was in D’s exclusive control
3) Injury was not attributable to P

25
Q

Actual cause

A

Establishes a causal connection between the alleged breach of duty and the resulting injury

Note: MBE may refer to actual cause as factual cause or cause in fact

26
Q

But for test

A

But for D’s alleged breach of duty, P’s injury would not have occurred

27
Q

Substantial factor test

A

For multiple causes of P’s injury
* D’s breach is the actual cause if it was a substantial factor in bringing about P’s injury
* Application: used if multiple causes bring about P’s injury and any one of them alone would have caused the injury
-E.g. fires start on D1’s land and D2’s land, each of which spreads to P’s land and destroys P’s house

28
Q

Burden shifting test

A

For several possible causes of P’s injury
* Application: used if multiple Ds act (often simultaneously), only one causes P’s injury, but it’s unclea which D caused the injury
-E.g. P is hit by a stray bullet at a busy firing range and it’s unknown which shooter hit P
* Burden of proving actual cause shifts to Ds
-If no D can prove another D was responsible, all Ds are jointly and severally liable

29
Q

Proximate cause

A

Establishes that it is fair under the law to hold D responsible for P’s injuries
* Foreseeability: measuring stick for proximate cause
-D is liable for the foreseeable outcome of his conduct
-Note: an outcome does not have to be likely to be foreseeable; unlikely things are often foreseeable on the MBE; if it’s reasonably possible, it’s probably foreseeable

Note: question of fact that is usually left to a jury or fact finder

30
Q

Direct causes

A

if P’s injury is the direct consequence of D’s negligent conduct, D is liable unless the outcome is unusually bizarre or unpredictable

31
Q

Indirect causes

A

Intervening forces that occur after D’s conduct to cause P’s injuries will not cut off D’s liability if they are foreseeable
* An intervening force is usually foreseeable if either:
a) It is a normal response or reaction to D’s negligent act, or
b) D’s negligence increased the risk that an intervening force would cause harm to P
* Injuries to rescuers are usually considered foreseaable

32
Q

Eggshell plaintiff rule

A

D takes P as he finds him and is liable for the full extent of P’s injuries regardless of whether they are foreseeable

33
Q

Damages

A
  • P must prove damages, which are not presumed in negligence cases;
  • Nominal damages are not available
34
Q

Personal injury

A

D must compensate P for all damages
* Includes past, present, and prospective damages
* Economic and non economic damages are recoverable

35
Q

Property damage

A

P can recover reasonable cost of repair
* If property is irreparable, damages = full market value at the time the accident occurred

36
Q

Punitive damages

A

Only recoverable if D’s conduct is wanton and willful, reckless, or malicious
* Usually not available in negligence cases
* More common with intentional torts

37
Q

Non-recoverable damages

A

P can never recover for:
* Interest from the date of damage in personal injury cases
* Attorney’s fees

38
Q

Duty to mitigate

A

P must take reasonable steps to mitigate damages

39
Q

Comparative negligence

A

D can establish that P’s injuries are at least partially the result of P’s own negligence
* Fact finder apportions fault between P and D by percentage and reduces P’s recoverable damages accordingly

40
Q

Partial/modified comparative negligence

A

P can only recover damages if he was less than 50% at fault (or 50% can make claim inactionable)

41
Q

Pure comparative negligence

A

P can recover damages even if he was more than 50% at fault

42
Q

Contributory negligence

A

P is barred from recovery if D establishes that P’s negligence contributed to her injuries

43
Q

Last clear chance defense

A

P can rebut D’s contributory negligence claim by proving D had the last clear chance to avoid the injury causing accident

44
Q

Assumption of risk

A
  • D can deny P’s recovery by establishing that P assumed the risk of damage caused by D’s act
  • Requirements: D must show
    1) P knew of the risk (subjective standard; but knowledge can be inferred from facts); and
    2) P voluntarily proceeded in the face of that risk
45
Q

Express assumption

A

P can assume risk by agreement (e.g. exclupatory clause) less likely to be enforced if part of adhesion K

46
Q

Negligent infliction of emotional distress

A

Elements:
1) D’s negligence results in a close risk of bodily harm to P
-P must be in “zone of danger” to recover
-I.e. D’s act must have nearly caused physical harm to P
2) D’s negligence results in P’s severe emotional distress
3) P exhibits some physical manifestation attributable to her emotional distress
-Symptoms can be instantaneous or appear days later
-Non physical symptoms: states are split on this element; many allow severe emotional distress alone
-Note: on essays, note the distinction; given the split, an MBE question is unlikely to turn on this element

47
Q

NIED: Bystander claims

A

P bystanders outside the zone of danger may recover for emotional distress resulting from D’s negligence if :
1) P and the injured person are closely related
2) P was present at the scene of the injury; and
3) P personally observed or perceived the event

48
Q

NIED: Special situations

A

If above elements are not met, P may still recover where D’s negligence creates a great likelihood of emotional distress
-E.g. erroneous report of relative’s death, mishandling of corpse