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2019 CQT > Need to Know > Flashcards

Need to Know Flashcards

1
Q

What does erroneous or unusual altitude and or airspeed indicate, when parked at the gate?

A

Blocked static ports

Note: Do not pushback from the gate until all static ports are verified to be free of ice (or other blockage) and all altitude and airspeed indications are normal.

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2
Q

What four items should be considered when communicating with the Flight Attendants about turbulence?

A

 Provide advanced warning if possible

 The effects of turbulence vary throughout the cabin

 Ensure the Flight Attendants are seated

 Take immediate action and contact Flight Attendants when encountering unexpected turbulence

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3
Q

What resources are used to communicate ride conditions with Flight Attendants?

A

 A thorough briefing

 WSI app for a visual aid

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4
Q

What helps to reduce risk to both passengers and Flight Attendants during turbulence?

A

Turn on the FASTEN SEATBELT sign and a make a PA.

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5
Q

Which Engine Failure Procedures (EFP) are provided on the TLR?

A
  1. Standard EFP
  2. A Simple-Special EFP

Note: This information is also displayed in the ACARS PWB Takeoff data. Simple Special data may also be found on the appropriate Jeppesen -7 pages.

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6
Q

Where is Complex-Special EFP information located, when applicable?

A

Due to length, Complex-Special EFPs are only depicted on Jeppesen -7 pages with a text and graphic description.

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7
Q

When at the gate, if verbally advised by the Operations Agent of a new Weight and Balance Report number due to additional Passengers, baggage, or cargo, what is your course of action?

A
  1. Remain at the gate with the parking brake set and the Passenger boarding door open until the Weight and Balance Report number is received and confirmed by the Operations Agent.
  2. Complete the AOM 6.8 PWB Takeoff Data Review procedures.
  3. Complete (or rerun if already completed) the Before Push Checklist.
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8
Q

If a non-standard climb gradient is entered on the Takeoff Conditions page, does the PWB Takeoff Data Uplink load the required Climb power option (e.g., CLB or CLB-1) on the N1 LIMIT page?

A

No, they do not auto-populate. Manually select the climb thrust setting specified on the PWB runway-specific TAKEOFF DATA page (i.e., CLB or CLB-1) if the FMC calculated climb thrust setting does not meet or exceed the requirement. This ensures takeoff performance will meet or exceed the required climb gradient.

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9
Q

When entering a SID, non-standard climb gradient under takeoff conditions, what climb gradient is entered?

A

The first climb gradient above 1000 ft. AAE.

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10
Q

Which value is used to set the stab trim? The PWB or FMC TAKEOFF REF ½ Page setting?

A

The stab trim is set to the PWB setting.

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11
Q

When is the white MAINT light displayed and what does it indicate?

A

While on the ground, this MAINT prompt is always displayed on the SYS page. This prompt allows entry into the Onboard Maintenance Function (OMF) menu.

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12
Q

The amber MAINT light is displayed, what does it indicate?

A

This MAINT light illuminates when a system fault is detected.

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13
Q

If the amber MAINT caution light is illuminated, what action must you take?

A

A system fault exists that much be reviewed by Maintenance. Contact Dispatch / Maintenance Control.

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14
Q

When is the amber MAINT light inhibited?

A

This light is inhibited from first engine start until 30 seconds after landing.

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15
Q

How does the rollback of the LEAP 1B differ from the CFM-56?

A

The LEAP 1B may have multiple small EGT rollbacks during start.

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16
Q

When do you call “ROLLBACK” on the LEAP 1B?

A

Only when the EGT redline indication disappears.

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17
Q

What could happen if you reconfigure the pressurization panel prior to ROLLBACK?

A

A start malfunction and an aborted engine start.

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18
Q

How is the LEAP 1B engine affected when not adhering to the three minute stabilization and warm-up limitations?

A

Over time it results in reduced efficiency (increased fuel burn) of the engine.

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19
Q

During taxi, Dispatch notifies you of an error/ omission in the current Weight and Balance Report. Can you depart with a simple acknowledgement and no further action?

A

No, you must request new TO DATA and review / upload the new data and complete the Departure Plan Checklist.

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20
Q

When is the Departure Plan Checklist required?

A

When changes are made to FMC programming or PWB data after pushback has commenced.

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21
Q

What does the Departure Plan Checklist capture that is not covered by re-accomplishing the Before Push Checklist?

A

FMC Programming and briefing items

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22
Q

What is the engine stabilization requirement prior to takeoff for the LEAP engine?

A

Operate at or near idle thrust, after rollback, for a minimum of three minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust.

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23
Q

What percentage N1 are thrust levers momentarily advanced to before applying takeoff thrust?

A

Approximately 40%

Note: This is to verify and monitor symmetrical spool up to takeoff thrust and ensure directional control in maintaining runway centerline.

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24
Q

What are some conditions that may increase the risk of a tail strike on takeoff?

A

 Excessive Rotation Rate

 Rotation at Improper Speed

 Entering wrong weights, incorrect CG and setting the incorrect trim units

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25
Q

Does the takeoff procedure change if you are on a narrow runway?

A

Yes. Takeoff on a narrow runway requires lining up on the runway centerline and a static run-up to at least 40% N1 before releasing brakes and applying takeoff thrust.

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26
Q

What is considered a narrow runway?

A

For a B-737, narrow runways are defined as runway widths measuring less than 45 m (147.6 ft) down to and including 30 m (98.4 ft).

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27
Q

If an engine exceedance occurs after thrust is set and the decision is made to continue the takeoff, what is the minimum altitude required before accomplishing the Engine Limit Checklist on the Quick Reference Card?

A

400ft AGL

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28
Q

Why is there a requirement to monitor flap and slat retraction?

A

To ensure proper retraction of both the flaps and slats as well as prevent flap overspeed conditions.

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29
Q

What are the Turbulent Air Penetration Speeds?

A

 250 kt at or below 15,000 ft

 280 kt / .76 Mach above 15,000 ft

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30
Q

Can you initiate a CRZ DES with the use of the ALT INTV button?

A

Yes, select a lower MCP altitude AT or ABOVE any descent constraint altitudes and further than 50 NM from the current TOD.

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31
Q

You’ve initiated a CRZ DEC with the use of the ALT INTV button. Do you need to set the new altitude into the FMC?

A

No. Selecting ALT INTV under these conditions causes the VNAV to function like the CRZ DES function. The FMC CRZ page is automatically loaded with the MCP altitude.

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32
Q

When using ALT INTV within 50 NM of TOD, VNAV transitions to what mode?

A

Early Descent mode

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33
Q

You receive clearance to continue to a lower altitude while in a CRZ DES mode and then set that altitude into the MCP; does VNAV continue descending to the lower altitude?

A

No, VNAV remains in CRZ DES mode; it levels off at the previously programmed cruise altitude.

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34
Q

You receive clearance to continue to a lower altitude while in a CRZ DES mode and then set that altitude into the MCP. Using the FMC and ATC clearance, what steps are taken to continue the descent?

A
  1. First go to the ACT CRZ DES page and select PLANNED DES
  2. Then select DES NOW and EXEC Cruise Descent logic is removed, setting up an Early Descent Logic.
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35
Q

You receive clearance to continue to a lower altitude while in a CRZ DES mode and then set that altitude into the MCP. In this case, if you select ALT INTV does VNAV then continue the descent?

A

Yes. During a CRZ DES, reselection of a lower altitude followed by ALT INTV will enable continued CRZ DES in VNAV.

Note: A CRZ DES does not capture the VNAV path if a subsequent cruise altitude or FMC altitude constraint change is made while in a cruise descent.

36
Q

Can you continue an approach below 1000 ft. AGL when conditions such as a glidepath steeper than 3° or tailwinds requiring a descent rate greater than 1000 fpm?

A

Yes, the condition must be briefed and all other stabilized approach criteria met.

37
Q

Who is responsible for directing a go–around or missed approach?

A

Any Flight Deck Crew Member can call for a go–around during an approach.

38
Q

In addition to unstabilized approach criteria, when should a go–around or missed approach be executed or directed?

A

Any time the approach or landing appears unsafe.

39
Q

What position must your aircraft be in order to continue an approach below DA, DDA, or MDA?

A

In a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone.

40
Q

Can you descend below DA with only the approach lights in sight during a CAT I approach?

A

Yes

41
Q

You continue a descent below DA with only the approach lights in sight during a CAT I approach. How much lower can you descend?

A

You can only continue your descent to 100 feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars become distinctly visible and identifiable.

42
Q

What other possible references would allow descent below DA, DDA, or MDA?

A

 Threshold

 Threshold markings

 Threshold lights

 Runway end identifier lights

 Visual approach slope indicator

 Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings

 Touchdown zone lights

 Runway or runway markings (CAT I only)

 Runway lights (CAT I only)

43
Q

Can you conduct a CAT I or CAT II approach when the approach lighting system in inoperative?

A

Only if ALS OUT minimums are published and used. If not published, the approach may not be flown.

44
Q

Can a CAT III approach be flown when the approach lighting system is inoperative?

A

Only if the ALS becomes inoperative after the aircraft is on the final approach segment. All other requirements (e.g., RVR reports and operative runway lights) must be met.

45
Q

Why is there a difference between the FMC and the PWB approach speeds in the B737 MAX with a two position tailskid?

A

PWB computes one-position tailskid data for all MAX aircraft which is conservative for the two-position tailskid.

Note: Only the first 15 MAX aircraft were delivered with a two-position tailskid.

46
Q

How much of a speed variance may be seen with a two position tailskid between the PWB and the FMC reference speeds?

A

This difference could be approximately 2-4 knots for Flaps 30 and 1 Knot for Flaps 40.

47
Q

If there is a possibility of windshear, use Flaps___ for landing unless a different flap setting is required by the PWB System.

A

30

48
Q

What is the approximate percentage of tail strikes occurring during landing?

A

70%, many of these strikes occur during a bounced landing recovery attempt.

49
Q

The biggest cause of tail strikes is an unstabilized approach. What other factors may cause a tail strike during landing?

A

 Holding off in the flare

 Trimming in the flare

 Mishandling of crosswinds

 Over-rotation during go-around

Note: Tail strikes occurring during landing result in significant damage to the aircraft.

50
Q

What can increase the risk of a bounced landing?

A

Maintaining higher-than-idle power through initial touchdown.

51
Q

What action should you take after a high, hard bounced landing?

A

Initiate a go-around.

52
Q

When is a go-around no longer an option?

A

When the thrust reverser levers are raised.

53
Q

What five actions during a landing and rollout invalidate the PWB stopping margin?

A

 Landing beyond 1500 ft from the end of the runway.

 Speedbrake does not deploy.

 Aerodynamic braking (holding the nose wheel off the runway).

 Selecting reverse thrust greater than 2 seconds after touchdown.

 Not attaining the planned reverse thrust level within 8 seconds after touchdown.

54
Q

What impact does overriding the autobrake system have on braking effectiveness?

A

Manual override of the autobrake system causes the anti-skid system to readjust for optimum brake pressure; this readjustment momentarily reduces braking effectiveness.

55
Q

When is a flaps 40 landing recommended?

A

When the runway condition (RCC) is 3-MED or less.

56
Q

What flap setting is recommended for overweight landings?

A

Flaps 30, which provides an increased margin to flap placard speed.

57
Q

When do you call for “Flaps Up” after landing?

A

After the flight deck clears the runway side stripe marking.

58
Q

What is the engine cool down requirements for the LEAP engine?

A

Operate at or near idle thrust for a minimum of three minutes prior to shutdown.

Note: It is vital for the preservation of the LEAP engine to adhere to both the engine stabilization (takeoff) and cool down (landing) time limits.

59
Q

What are the two goals in determining when to start the APU during taxi to the gate?

A

 The primary goal is to have the APU on the busses and the APU bleed air available by the time the brakes are set at the gate.

 The secondary goal is to minimize fuel burn.

60
Q

What is the current policy regarding use of the parking brake while at the gate?

A

Release the parking brake once chocks are installed unless otherwise directed by the Marshaller, local procedures, or other guidance.

61
Q

List at least three situations that could require the parking brakes to remain set at the gate.

A
  1. When the Captain deems appropriate
  2. When engine(s) are running
  3. When terminating the aircraft
  4. Under high wind conditions
  5. For a contaminated/slippery ramp
  6. For thunderstorms in the vicinity
  7. When an exterior preflight inspection is required
  8. Sloped gates, as noted on the SIP
  9. When advised by Ground personnel
  10. At off-line stations until the nose wheel and right-side main wheel are chocked
62
Q

Where is the basic information on Tarmac Delay Procedures found?

A

The Normal Checklist

63
Q

What is the goal during a Tarmac delay?

A

The goal is for the aircraft to be airborne or back at the gate no later than the 150-minute mark.

64
Q

Can the 150 minute goal be exceeded?

A

Yes, the Network Director may authorize exceeding the 2.5 hour (150 minute) limit. Only two individuals (Vice President NOC or Senior Director Regulatory Programs and Compliance/Director of Operations) may authorize exceeding the following time limits:

3 hours (180 min) for a domestic flight

4 hours (240 min) for an international flight

65
Q

When does the Tarmac Delay (TD) clock start during a diversion?

A

Touchdown

66
Q

How frequently should PA announcements occur during an aircraft delay?

A

At least every 15 minutes.

67
Q

The Flight Deck Crew must contact Dispatch to determine a course of action for both Taxi Out and Taxi In delays. This contact cannot exceed how many minutes?

Taxi Out-

Taxi In-

A

Taxi Out - NLT 60 minutes

Taxi In - NLT 30 minutes

68
Q

What actions are taken before leaving the aircraft on Gate Services (without pilots present)?

A

 Turn off the IRSs

 ARM the EMER EXIT LIGHTS

 Notify the F/As and the Ops Agent Note: If an extended delay is expected, coordinate with the Operations Agent to consider deplaning through Passengers and performing the Terminating Checklist.

69
Q

When is an Exterior Post Flight Inspection required?

A

When terminating an aircraft, except when at a maintenance base or maintenance station, complete a thorough exterior Post Flight Inspection unless Southwest. Airlines Maintenance Personnel accepts responsibility.

70
Q

What are you required to do when terminating an aircraft with a defect or concern?

A

Call Dispatch and ask for a conference call with Maintenance Control.

71
Q

While terminating the aircraft, when must the oil quantity be recorded?

A

Within 30 minutes of shutdown.

72
Q

When accomplishing the TERMINATING CHECKLIST, how long must you wait to turn the battery off after the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes?

A

NG: 2 minutes

MAX: 3 minutes

73
Q

What are the procedures for parking an aircraft in High Wind Conditions?

A

 Set the Parking Brake

 Ensure the flaps are up

 Set the Stab Trim between 0 and 4 units

 Direct Ground Personnel to install main gear chocks

 Consider hooking up tug/tow bar to stabilize aircraft

74
Q

What are some examples of high wind conditions requiring special parking procedures?

A

 Thunderstorm activity

 Hurricanes

 Strong weather systems

Note: Use 40 kt or greater for these procedures

75
Q

What are the three exceptions to the Clean Aircraft Concept?

A
  1. Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage, provided all vents and ports are clear.
  2. Cold-soaked fuel frost (CSFF) up to 1⁄8 inch on lower wing surfaces.
  3. CSFF on upper wing surfaces, provided that certain conditions are met.

 The CSFF is on or between the black lines defining the allowable CSFF area.

 Outside air temperature (OAT) is at or above 4°C (39°F).

 Fuel tank temperature is at or above -16°C (3°F).

 There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility).

Note: Aircraft without depicted allowable CSFF areas are not allowed to take off with any frost on the upper wing surface.

76
Q

What actions are necessary when the inspection of an originating aircraft wing surface has an emerald green appearance?

A

At a minimum, the aircraft must receive a Type I spray to remove the Type IV fluid. If holdover times beyond Type I capabilities are required, Type IV must then be reapplied.

77
Q

What type of precipitation requires use of the ALLOWANCE TIME Table and undiluted Type IV anti- icing fluid?

A

Allowance times and Undiluted Type IV anti-icing fluid must be used during periods of precipitation with ice pellets or small hail.

78
Q

What is a consideration for APU use during a deicing/anti-icing event?

A

If not required, the APU should be shut down to eliminate the possibility of deicing/anti-icing fluid entering the APU inlet, which may cause erratic operation or damage to the APU.

79
Q

Is engine shutdown required for flap area contamination removal?

A

Yes

80
Q

What are three considerations when operating wing flaps when frozen precipitation is present?

A

 The flap position indicators and leading edge device annunciator should be closely monitored for positive movement.

 If the flaps stop moving, the flap handle should be immediately placed to the indicated flap position.

 The flaps must operate normally prior to takeoff.

81
Q

When does holdover time begin?

A

At the start of the final (anti-icing) fluid application.

82
Q

After deicing/anti-icing, what must be done when a subsequent weather report indicates a change in the precipitation intensity, mixture, or temperature?

A

The applicable Holdover or Allowance Times table must be consulted and the most conservative time used.

Note: If the new conditions create a more restrictive holdover or allowance time, the new time must be applied from the original start time.

83
Q

After deicing/anti-icing, a subsequent weather report indicates a change in the precipitation intensity, mixture, or temperature.

What if the hold over time in this scenario is less restrictive?

A

Continue to use the original time.

84
Q

What impact might heavy precipitation rates, high wind velocity, or jet blasts have on holdover or allowance times?

A

They may reduce holdover time below the lowest time stated in the range.

85
Q

When is a Cabin Check required?

A

When the holdover time has been exceeded or when heavy snow is present.

Note: The aircraft must depart within five minutes of a Cabin Check.

86
Q

What consideration should be given to flap retraction after landing on a runway with frozen contaminants?

A

The flaps should be retracted to no less than 15 until the flap track and fairing area are inspected and determined to be clear of any frozen contamination.

2019 CQT (4 decks)

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