Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OMB (CRJ 900) > NEED TO KNOW > Flashcards

NEED TO KNOW Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum gust factor?

A

Maximum of 10 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the recommend approach speed for flap 0 ?

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the recommend approach speed for flap 1 ?

A

190 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the recommend approach speed for flap 8 ?

A

180 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the recommend approach speed for flap 20 ?

A

170 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommend approach speed for flap 30 ?

A

160 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the recommend approach speed for flap 45 ?

A

Vref (+ 1/2 gust factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum airspeed for holding (above 14.000ft)

A

240 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The descent check should be completed before ?

A

Should be completed before top of descent. And MUST be completed above 10.000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

As a rule-of-thumb, the descent should be planned so as to arrive at which conditions:

A

• Altitude (AGL) - 10.000 ft
• Distance from the airport - 30 nm
• Airspeed - 250 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the timing in a holding below and above 14.000ft

A

(1:00 min below) and (1:30 min above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When a procedural approach is flown the aircraft should arrive at the IAF at what speed and flap setting?

A

Speed: 170kts and flap: 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If an RNP approach is expected to be flown at destination, a “xxxx” check must be completed prior to what: ?

A

A RAIM check, and before DEPARTURE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2D Approaches include what ?

A

1: LOCALISOR (LOC only)
2: RNP (LNAV minima)
3: NDB
4: VOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What MODE should you select when being in close proximity of the final course. (3D NPA procedures) ?

A

Select APPR mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A monitored approach is mandatory in which following meteorological conditions?

A

• There is any cloud reported at or below the DA/DH/MDA

• Ceiling within 200ft of the DA/DH/MDA

• The RVR or VIS is within 200m of minima for a 3D approach - 500m for 2D

• CAT II Approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During a “Go-Around” situation, what should the PM ensure before selecting flaps 8 ?

A

The PM must ensure the following:

• TOGA thrust achieved
• GA/GA annunciated
• Airspeed Vref or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first call-out for a “Go-Around” manoeuvre: PF

A

“Go-Around, full thrust, flaps 8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At what altitude should the autopilot be engaged?

A

600ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What would the correct response be, when PF announces GEAR UP ?

A

PM: “GEAR UP SELECTED”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the PM flows for the LANDING CHECK ?

A

• CABIN………………..READY
• THRUST REVERSERS………ARMED
• LDG…………………DN
• FLAPS……………….(XX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

According to the OMB, what altitude should you begin the flare?

A

Between 30ft and 20ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does WAATTS stands for ?

A

WEATHER, AIRCRAFT, AIRSPACE, TERRAIN, THREATS, STRATEGY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Regarding the final LOAD SHEET, when is a new “Dual Independent Performance solution” required?

A

1: When the actual take-off weight exceeds the PERFO APP TOW solution.

Or

2: When the actual take-off weight is less than the PERFO APP TOW solution by more than 1000kgs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

During the start-up process, at which N2 and ITT should the thrust-levers go from the SHUT OFF position to the IDLE position?

A

N2 : Greater than 20%

ITT : Below 120 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should N1 be, when speaking about a stable engine (at ISA conditions)

A

N1 : Does not drop below 20% RPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What should ITT be, when speaking about a stable engine (at ISA conditions)

A

ITT is between 450 C to 650 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What should N2 be, when speaking about a stable engine (at ISA conditions)

A

N2 is between 55% to 65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should the approximate fuel flow be, when speaking about a stable engine (at ISA conditions)

A

Fuel-flow : approximately 240 kg per hour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should the oil pressure be, when speaking about a stable engine (at ISA conditions)

A

Oil pressure is within normal range (25-95 psi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If ITT is greater than 120 C prior to start, the engine must be dry-motored for a maximum of how many seconds?

A

90 seconds, with ignition off and affected thrust lever at shut off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What call-outs should the LP use before and after “start checks” has been performed. And NO contamination is prevailing on the taxiways and NO remote de-icing is required.

A

“After start check to the line”

“Flap 8/20, below the line”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The straight-ahead taxi speed should not exceed XX kts ?

A

20 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maximum taxi speed on contaminated taxiway/runway ?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Maximum taxi speed during a turn?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum taxi speed on dry or wet taxiways and runways?

A

30 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Landing-lights are to be selected ON in which phases of flight?

A

Take-off & Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When should you use LOGO lights?

A

Between DUSK and DAWN, below FL100.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is a “Performance change required after engine start /taxi?

A

A new dual take-off calculation must be completed by the crew when:

• A new runway change.
• A new runway intersection change.
• A reduction in TORA, TODA or ASDA.
• A new runway state changes.
• Any required changes to bleed settings.
• Any increase of tailwind component.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is a “Dispatch landing weight assessment” needed if the landing runway is contaminated ?

A

Yes! Always required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A Clear Ice Check shall be performed if bulk temperature is ? or below with L or R wing fuel-content above XXXX kg

A

0 degrees C / 1587kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A Clear Ice Check shall be performed if bulk temperature is 0 C or below with L or R wing fuel-content above 1587 kg and if any one of the following conditions exist:

A

• OAT is below +15C with dew point within 3 C of OAT.
• There is or has been visible moisture or precipitation.

Or

• There is frost or ice on the underside of the wings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cabin signs are turned ON when approximately XX minutes before landing or when passing 10.000ft

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should you call out “BANK”?

A

If bank exceeds 30 degrees.

If bank exceeded 15 degrees on final

                           Or

If the gear is down, and the aircraft is in close proximity of the ground. Then it must not exceed 5 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When should you call out “HEADING”?

A

If the heading deviation exceeds 10 degrees from the bugged heading.

46
Q

When should you call out “ATTITUDE” ?

A

If pitch attitude is outside the range of

20 degrees NOSE UP
10 degrees NOSE DOWN
Or
Exceeds 5 degrees NOSE-UP during landing.

47
Q

Which call or reply should the PM receive from the PF when adjustments are needed?

A

“CORRECTING”

48
Q

Icing conditions exist at an ambient temperature of ?

A

10 degrees C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered.

49
Q

Should the COWL ANTI ICE system be selected to ON when the OAT is 10 degrees C or below?

A

YES! ESPECIALLY THERE IS SNOW,ICE, or standing water present.

50
Q

CRJ900 : What is the maximum permissible quick turnaround weight (Kg) ?

A

34,065 kg

51
Q

What is the minimum dispatch oxygen pressure for 2 active crew?

A

1180 psi

52
Q

What is the minimum dispatch oxygen pressure for 3 active crew?

A

1630 psi

53
Q

After landing, a minimum cool-down time is ?

A

2 minutes

54
Q

Cool-down time starts when ?

A

When the engines are at IDLE , and there has been NO large power transient.

55
Q

What is the minimum use height for takeoff?

A

600 ft AGL

56
Q

What is the minimum use height for non-precision approach?

A

400 ft AGL

57
Q

What is the minimum use height for single engine operations?

A

110 ft AGL

58
Q

What is the VFE for flap 30?

A

185 kts.

59
Q

What is the maximum landing gear operating speed ( with the gear extended ) ?

A

220 kts

60
Q

What is the Maximum RAMP weight of the CRJ900 ?

A

38,222 kg

61
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight of the CRJ 900 ?

A

37,995 kg

62
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the CRJ 900 ?

A

34,065 kg

63
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the CRJ900 ?

A

32,092kg

64
Q

What is the minimum taxiways width for the CRJ900 ?

A

15 meters

65
Q

What is the minimum runway width for the CRJ900 ?

A

30 meters

66
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for the CRJ900 when performing a CAT II approach ?

A

17 kts. Inc GUST

67
Q

What is the maximum headwind component for the CRJ900 when performing a CAT II approach ?

A

16 kts

68
Q

According to the OMB, what is the maximum tailwind component included gust?

A

10 kts

69
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for the CRJ900 when performing a takeoff? (Dry RWY)

A

35 kts

70
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for the CRJ900 when performing a landing on a dry runway?

A

32 kts

71
Q

The minimum RVR required for a CAT II approach is ? (According to the OMB)

A

350 meters RVR

72
Q

The DH should not be lower than XXX Ft for a CAT II approach.

A

100 ft

73
Q

Are we allowed to fly a CAT II approach during single engine operations or abnormal flap/slat positions?

A

HELL NO!

74
Q

Which approach category/classification does the CRJ 900 (with CityJet certification) belong to?

A

Class D.

75
Q

The CRJ900 EI-F__ registered aircraft have a maximum seating capacity of XX passengers..

A

90 passengers.

76
Q

The CRJ900 EI-G__ registered aircraft have a maximum seating capacity of XX passengers..

A

88 passengers

77
Q

What is the minimum required RVR for low visibility takeoff?

A

125 meters

78
Q

At what visibility should you consider a low visibility takeoff?

A

When visibility is less than 550 RVR.

79
Q

The main passenger door can be opened, closed or used for static “open operations” in up to how many knots of wind ?

A

60 knots of wind.

80
Q

What is the maximum landing gear operation ( gear retracted ) ?

A

200 kts

81
Q

What is the VFE for flaps 8?

A

230 kts

82
Q

Speed in general should be held at a margin of minimum “XX” KIAS below VMO/Max slat, flap and gear speeds or 0.02 MACH below MMO speed (whichever is lower)

A

10 KIAS

83
Q

The maximum speed for ADG operations?

A

Vmo/Mmo

84
Q

The Tire limit speed is?

A

195 knots GS

85
Q

Following a rejected takeoff, the minimum brake cooling time is?

A

15 minutes must be observed.

86
Q

What includes in the “Dark Cockpit Concept” ?

A

Defined as normal flight with No EICAS messages displayed or switches illuminated.

87
Q

CityJet policy is to always anti-ice with flaps “XX” in order to prolong effective hold over times.

A

Flaps 0.

88
Q

What is the correct call out, when passing the minimum sector altitude?

A

“Passing MSA” ( in most cases the highest )

89
Q

Can you use barometric altimeter readings for a CAT II approach?

A

Absolutely NOT. Use radio altimeter instead.

90
Q

CAT I Minimum is rounded up to the nearest “xx”ft ?

A

Rounded up to the nearest 10 ft.

91
Q

The altimeters should read the published airfield elevation within +/- “XX” ft

A

+/- 75 ft.

92
Q

“SLIP BALL” is called out when ?

A

If the ball is deflected from the centre position by more than half a ball.

93
Q

A CB should be cleared by a minimum of ?

A

5000ft vertically and 20 nm laterally.

94
Q

What is the minimum airspeed for a turn after takeoff with flaps 8 or 20?

A

V2 + 10 Kias

95
Q

What is the climb speed above 10.000ft?

A

290 kts / 0.77M

280 kts / 0.75M (W/ turbulence)

96
Q

Standard cruise speed is what?

A

290 kts /0.78M

97
Q

What is the standard descent speed above 10.000 ft ?

A

260kts / 0.77M

(250 kts below 10.000ft)

98
Q

What is the maximum cruise Mach number during flight in RVSM airspace?

A

0.82M

99
Q

The maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the contents of the main Left tank the main right tank is what?

A

During take off - 136 kg

All other phases of flight - 363 kg

100
Q

At what altitude-segment do you need to speed up and clean up at - after a Go-Around?

A

Missed approach altitude

101
Q

The recommended company speed for holding is what?

A

Flap 0 speed for aircraft weight + 30kts

102
Q

If during a RNP approach one of the following messages occurs (?) the approach has to be discontinued unless visual reference has been achieved

A

• NO APPR
• LOSS OF INTEGRITY
• FMS DR
• NO NPA RAIM
• APPR NOT AVAILABLE
• LOW POS ACCURACY
• CHK POS

103
Q

What should you temperature correct?

A

Everything below temperature corrected MSA

104
Q

During a normal “Go-Around” (with two functional engines) - when do you set climb thrust?

A

At 1000ft AAE

105
Q

During a normal “Go-Around” (with two functional engines) - when do you accelerate to 200 kts?

A

At missed approach altitude

106
Q

Before commencing a CAT II approach, what test should be completed prior to the approach?

A

RA - test.

107
Q

What speed should be flown during a normal “go-around”?

A

Maintain V2 GA + 10 to 15kts

108
Q

Regarding operations on Contaminated RWY’s - is it allowed to dispatch with one thrust reverser inoperative?

A

No - it’s prohibited.

109
Q

What MUST be used during takeoff and landings on contaminated runways?

A

Continuous Ignition.

110
Q

The maximum depth of snow outside the runway area cleared by the snowploughs is ?

A

30 cm.

111
Q

To engage the autopilot, the following is required:

A
  • Both FCCs are operating.
  • At least 1 channel of the horizontal stabilizer trim is operating.
  • At least one yaw damper is engaged.
  • Both IRS/AHRS are operating
  • There is no significant instability of the airplane.

OMB (CRJ 900) (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions