Neck, Back, Myofascial Flashcards

1
Q

this #1 ranked life-altering dz affects 50 million people

A

arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ is ranked #1 in workers comp

A

lumbar pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define systemic dz

A

less common, includes systemic sx such as fever, wt loss, derm changes, general feeling of unwell, change in appetite (tend to be autoimmune/congenital such as RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define local dz

A

more common, occurs in otherwise healthy people, d/t overuse, strain or arthritis(age), orthopedic (things like tennis elbow, bursitis, back pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is reiter’s syndrome

A

reactive arthritis d/t infection in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MSK pain can be caused by (4)

A

muscle/soft tissue, nerve, referred, other(STDs, shingles, Tb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Important points to ask about with Hx (6)

A

warmth/drainage/erythema, pop/click/snap, instability/fxnl impairment(motion strength), hand dominance, neuro sx, impact on daily life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define nociceptive pain

A

dull (can be sharp), aching, broad (musc), caused by damage to body tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define neuropathic pain

A

d/t nerve damage or impinged nerve root, sharp, electric**, traveling, burning (along dermatome).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It’s important to ask about sexual Hx b/c ______ can be transmited/result from sex

A

reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is gunstock deformity

A

pt carries arm 5-15 deg away from body – important to eval “Carrying angle” of limbs.. (AKA cubitus varus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

foot wear is important to assess b/c

A

fall risk.. and wearing of one side vs other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Articular injuries show pain with… (tenderness, ROM, stability, swelling?)

A

AROM and PROM (and limited ROM with both), deep diffuse pain, swelling synovial thickening, bony enlargement (juxtaarticular bone, Articular cartilage, Intraarticular ligaments, Menisci (knee), Synovial fluid, Synovium, Joint capsule) may be unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

periarticular injuries show pain with… (tenderness, ROM, stability, swelling?)

A

AROM only, USUALLY HAVE FULL ROM, point or focal tenderness w/specific movements, generally w/o swelling or crepetis(Tendons, Bursae, Extraarticular ligaments, Muscle, Fascia, Bone, Nerve, Skin) no instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How to test neurovascular

A

test pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

with motor/muscle testing, score of 0-3 are normally only seen in _____ pts

A

spinal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

with motor/muscle testing a 4 is….. a 5 is…….

A

4 = can do full AROm, but weak against resistance, 5= normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Active RA pts normally have ___________ ___________ anemia

A

normochromic normocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Low Hct W/microcytic and elevated MCV often means…

A

low Fe or GI loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Leukocytosis is seen in…. (5)

A

acute gout, septic arthritis, systemic idiopathic juevinille arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and chronic corticosteroid use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ESR is a good NON-specific indicator of

A

inflammationc (also of dz progression or therapy effectiveness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ESR >___mm/hr is abnormal

A

15-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ESR is a poor indicator of ______, C-reactive protein measures this better

A

disease remission (B/c sed rate stays elevated for a while, protein changes more quickly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Normal ESR reduces the likliness of _____

A

sepsis or active pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CRP is a marker of ___________, similar to ESR but rises and falls more rapidly(greater accuracy)
general non-specific inflammation
26
CRP declines with the use of ... (3)
antinflammatory drugs, salicyclates, and steroids
27
high sensitivity CRP is used for
CVD risk factors or CVA
28
The higher the titer of RF, the more likely it is that the pt has
RA (not the gold standard)
29
Negative RF does/does not r/o RA? | Positive RF does/does not mean RA?
NEg RF doesn't r/o RA - 25% pts don't have RF but have RA | Pos RF doesn't mean RA, bc many other autoimmune dzs have RF as well
30
RF can be positive in___(5) dz in addition to RA
Scleroderma, subacute bacterial endocarditis, SLE, vasculitis, and some viral infections
31
High _____ is 99% sensitive in SLE
ANA - higher titer = more likely SLE | but can be pos in many other autoim dzs(so not very specific)
32
ANA can be pos in ___ & _______
elderly and chronic hepatitis
33
Homogenous ANA pattern means ____ or ______
SLE or mixed CT d/o
34
speckled ANA pattern means... (6)
SLE, scleroderma, sjogren's, Mixed CT d/o RA, polymyositis
35
nucleolar ANA pattern means ... (2)
polymyositis or scleroderma
36
centromere ANA pattern means .. (2)
CREST or Scleroderma
37
ANA titer above _____ is considered +, but a rate of ______ has a fare lower rate of false positives
1:40 1:160 (but titers fluctuate not necc indicative of severity)
38
Neg ANA most likely r/o _____
SLE
39
__________ is positive in 90% of spondyloarthropathies (ankylosing spondylitis)
HLA-B27
40
low/high levels of _______ don't r/o or r/i gout; ______is the GOLD STANDARD diagnostic
uric acid; crystals seen in synovial fluid draw
41
_________ is indicated when joint effusion is present to differentiate b/w inflamm and non-inflamm process
synovial fluid analysis
42
Yellow synovial fluid with 200-300 WBCs and 25% PMNs is indicative of
OA
43
yellow-opal synovial fluid 3,00-5,000 WBCs is indicative of
Inflammatory dz (ie RA)
44
yellow-green (snot-like) synovial fluid with >50,000 WBCs and a positive culture is indicative of
septic joint
45
cloudy-yellow synovial fluid with monosodium urate (crystals) is indicative of
gout
46
cloudy-yellow synovial fluid with calcium pyrophosphate (crystals) is indicative of
psuedo-gout
47
______ films are useful in early OA diagnostics
plain films (not so great for early RA)
48
If you suspect a pt has spondyloarthropathy very important to get _________ __________ films
sacroiliac plain films (early on)
49
trapezius trigger points refer to the _____and the ________
temples and neck behind the ear
50
SCM trigger pts refer to _____and ________
around the eye and the back of the head (occipital region)
51
Scalene trigger points refer to ____ and ______
the lateral portion of upper arm, and medial border of the scapula
52
Facets in the neck are _______ which allows them to slide more easily out of place
stacked like coins, more vertical
53
Neck pain with fever, you should perform _________and ________ special tests for ________
Kernig's Sign and Brudzinski's Sign meningitis
54
__________ films needed w/trauma including hyperext, whiplash or LOC
X-ray
55
___________ films needed in severe trauma (fall from height, baseball to neck)
CT
56
What dermatome would be the lateral portion of the upper arm
C5
57
what dermatome incorporates the lateral portion of the lower arm and the thumb/pointer finger
C6
58
what dermatome incorporated the middle finger
C7
59
_____ is indicated with suspected disk problems and/or nerve root compression or spinal sx(sphincter or weakness)
MRI
60
_________ exam with suspected meningitis
CSF
61
tumor/mets expected in neck mean you need to order a __________
bone scan
62
For _______ tissue pain use no or minimal narcotics
soft tissue(muscles)
63
what is thoracic outlet syndome? (TOS)
neurogenic thoracic outlet compression of C8 or T1 nerve roots by C7 and 1st rib CT band
64
How does TOS present?
weakness/wasting of hand muscles with sensory disturbance of 5th digit
65
What do you order to diagnose TOS? Treatment?
cervical X-ray and surgical resection of cT band b/w C7 and 1st rib or remove the 1st rib.
66
90% of back pain is ________ in origin and resolves in 1-2wks
mechanical
67
most common back pain etiologies (3)
musc/soft tissue injury, disc dz, arthritis of facet
68
2 most common causes of low back pain
prolapsed intervert disk, and strain(soft tissue)
69
W/ MSK pain is typically ________. if it is regional, that is suspicious.
localized, one specific area of tenderness.
70
pain in the back with radiation down the legs is suggestive of
nerve root irritation
71
_______ pain is seen in the buttock, post thigh, postlat leg, including lat malleolus dorsum and sole
sciatica
72
unilat LBP with buttock pain that worsens with standing in one position
SI joint pathology (do a compression test of the SI joint)
73
pain in elderly, inc with walking relieved by leaning forward
spinal stenosis
74
What are red flag sx for back pain (12)
elderly, fever, wt loss, morning stiffness, hx IV drug use, steriod use long term, hx CA, Hx trauma, saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfxn, major motor weakness, less than 20yo
75
major categories of back pain
mechanical(spondylosis, stenosis, discogenic), inflamm(ankylosis spondylitis), metabolic(Pagets, osteoporosis), neoplastic, referred pain, other(DISH, fibromyalgia)
76
severe, tearing pain midline in the back could mean
AAA, or a visceral injury
77
Colicky pain at the lower border of the ribs on either side of the spine could mean
pyelonephritis or a kidney stone
78
colicky pain on the right upper back just inferior to the scapula could mean (3)
cholelithiasis, peptic ulcer dz, or pancreatitis
79
deep seated pelvic pain (of the butt) could indicate what to dzs? females only? males only?
crohns, and ulcerative colitis Females: PID, ectopic preg, endometriosis, fibroids Males: prostatitis
80
Trigger pts in the QL refer pain to _____and ________... this looks like hip bursitis
upper hip and greater trochanteric area
81
straight leg raise positive with pain between 30-70deg
sciatica
82
X rays with LBP are...
usually not helpful. use if red flags or greater than 1 month pain
83
anemia, CRP elevation, and/or ESR should raise suspiscion of ______ or _________
malignancy or inflamm
84
__________ is elevated in paget's dz and bone mets
ALK PHOS
85
If you suspect mult myeloma check the urine for
Bence-Jones protein (lt chain)
86
_____ scans are helpful in pagets, osteomyelitits, metastasis and some fx
bone
87
MRI is most useful for _________ pathology
spinal cord
88
In a postmenopausal female with a low BMI and frail looking suspect
osteoporosis
89
the __________ dermatome runs from the lateral leg(trochanteric area) down to the medial surface of the foot and nthe big toe
L4
90
the _______ dermatome runs from the lat calf to the 3 middle toes
L5
91
the ____ dermatome encompases the lat foot and pinky toe
S1
92
facets are more __________ in the lumbar spine.
vertical
93
the cauda equina starts at L____
L2-3
94
What are the 5 waddels signs?
tenderness, simulation, distraction, regional disturbance, overreaction
95
+____/5 is considered sig for waddels signs
3
96
how to manage/treat mechanical LBP
NSAIDs, exercise, PT/OT, wt loss
97
IF pt has spasms or trouble sleeping with acute LBP you can prescribe
musc relaxants
98
antidep may work for _______ LBP
chronic
99
how do you manage a disk herniation
similar to acute LBP, NSAIDs, exercise, injections
100
how do you manage spinal stenosis
Similar to acute LBP NSAIDs musc relaxants, PT (maybe eventual surgery-fusion)
101
Girls at the start of puberty until maturity are at a greater risk for _______________
scoliosis
102
thoracic curve to the _____ is common at the level of T__ - T___. if to the ______ suggest other cord pathology. Curve > ____ deg is sig
right at T7-T8; to the left is very rare and suggests other pathology >15deg
103
what is cauda equina
large midline disc herniation compressing L4-L5 (bowel bladder dysfxn, leg pain saddle anesthesia, numbness)
104
Overuse and repatative motion can lead to _____, which is treated with NSAIDs, steroid injection via ultrasound guidence
bursitis(periarticular)
105
the _______ muscle is most likely to be impinged or cause rotator cuff tendonitis
supraspinatous
106
45 y/o male complains of dull aching pain in his upper arm that radiates distally after 3 days of bowling in a tournament... dx?
bicipetal tendonitis (periarticular)
107
supraspinatous tendonitis pain would be felt at ___-____deg of abduction
60-100 deg
108
tennis elbow aka _____epicodylitis presents with weakness of hand extensors
lateral
109
what are the 3 components of the motor endplate hypothesis(trigger pts)
1)motor component (contraction knots) 2)sensory component binds to nociceptors and transmits pain 3)Autonomic component (localized swellinglacrimation, dizziness)
110
what is central sensitization? (trigge pts)
decreased activation threshold
111
for myofascial(trigger pt pain) opoids are....
NOT INDICATED