NCTRC study guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is NOT true about individuals with prader-Willi syndrome?

A. It is a disease present form birth (congenital)

B. it affects few parts of the body

C. People with this condition are obese and have sex glands that produce little to no hormones

D. People with this condition have reduced muscle tone and mental ability.

A

B

It affects many parts of the body

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2
Q

_____ lobe controls personality and emotions

A. Parietal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. frontal lobe

A

d

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3
Q

Some one with a head injury that is traumatic from a head wound may NOT show what type of symptoms?

A. Impaired attention span and concentration
B. increased memory of the accident
C. lower tolerance for noise
D. Low frustration tolerance

A

b

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4
Q

If the _____ frontal lobe is affected the client may show pseudo psychopathic behaviors and emotional/social instability

A. back
B. Left
C. Center
D. Right

A

D

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5
Q

If the _____ frontal lobe is affected the client may show pseudo depression, Broca’s Aphasia (expressive)

A. back
B. Left
C. Center
D. Right

A

b

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6
Q

help to reintegrate into the community, become aware of resources, and develop physical
well-being, develop support systems, ameliorate depression and loss of independence through creative arts & social events; computer games, physical games reading are all TR related activities for what type of diagnosis?

A. Traumatic brain injury (TBI)
B. Head injury
C. ID/IDD
D. spinal cord injury

A

a

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7
Q

Which is NOT the most appropriate treatment for a client with a learning disability such as dyslexia, ADHD and ADD

A. Provide the client with choice

B. challenge the client

C. Allow the client to sit in the corner with their head down when they can’t pay attention during group and lose self-esteem

D. Give the client age appropriate activities that are well structered

A

c

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8
Q

When spinal cord injuries occur in in the cervical area what parts of the body can be affected?

A. legs and bladder
B. left side of the body
C. right side of the body
D. arms, legs, middle of the body

A

d

The symptoms may occur on one or both sides of the body.

• Symptoms can also include breathing difficulties from paralysis of the breathing muscles, if the injury is high up in the neck.

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9
Q

What level of the body is a thoracic spinal cord injury?

A. Neck
B. Chest
C. middle of the back
D. lower back

A

b

When spinal injuries occur at chest level, symptoms can affect the legs.

  • Injuries to the cervical or high thoracic spinal cord may also result in blood pressure problems, abnormal sweating, and trouble maintaining normal body temperature.
  • Autonomic Dysreflexia – at or aboveT6,
  • Sweating, flushing above the injury, severe headache, nasal congestion, and nausea
  • medical emergency
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10
Q

A stoke in the right side of the brain includes all of the following symptoms except?

A. visual and spatial depth is affected

B. difficulty perceiving area around them

C. speech is affected and may cause aphasia

D. Loss of perceptual/ intellectual functioning and logic

A

c

Speech is affected and may cause aphasia when a person experiences a left CVA from the right hemisphere

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11
Q

A stoke in the left side of the brain includes all of the following symptoms except?

A. poor memory, affected speech and sometimes aphasia
B. loss of perceptual/ intellectual functioning
C. difficulty with spoken language and written communication
D. Impaired emotions and social interactions

A

b

loss of perceptual/ intellectual functioning is from a right CVA affecting the left hemisphere

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12
Q

Title IIA. state and local government of the ADA act of 1990 states which of the following?

A. All activities, services and program may not charge extra for accommodations
B. Requires employers with 15 of more employees to provide qualified individuals with disabilities equal opportunity to benefit from the full range of employment-related opportunities available to others
C. Requires that a wide range of public accommodations in the private sector remove physical, communications and procedural barriers to access by people with disabilities.
D. A clear and comprehensive prohibition of discrimination of the basis of disability

A

A

Title I employment: Requires employers with 15 of more employees to provide qualified individuals with disabilities equal opportunity to benefit from the full range of employment-related opportunities available to others

Titile III public Accommodations: Requires that a wide range of public accommodations in the private sector remove physical, communications and procedural barriers to access by people with disabilities.

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13
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the Americans with disabilities act of 1990?

A. only covers aspects of hiring not promoting
B. does not cover the private sector
C. Relied heavily on the rehabilitation Act of 1973
D. Can not be enforced with lawsuits

A

C

  • Title I (employment covers all aspects of hiring and promoting
  • Title III (public)covers the private secor
  • The law can be enforced with lawsuits
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14
Q

The program accessibility act from the rehabilitation act section 504: did all of the following except?

A. toilet 20” from floor and stall at least 36’ wide
B. Parking space 12.5 x20.5
C. Hand rails must be 30” high
D. Ramps 8.333% max grade

A

C

Hand rails must be 32” high

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15
Q

First civil rights law for people with disabilities:

A. PL 94-142, education for all handicapped Children act
B. Americans with disabilities act
C. Older Americans act
D. The rehabilitation act, section 504

A

D

it tool effect in may 1977 ensuring that individuals with disabilities receive equal opportunities in program receiving federal funds

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16
Q

Which Act allowed Free and appropriate public education in a least restrictive environment?

A. PL 94-142, education for all handicapped Children act
B. Americans with disabilities act
C. Individuals with disabilities Education Act (IDEA)
D. The rehabilitation act, section 504

A

A

IEP- individual education plan mandates

-Education can include recreation

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17
Q

Which act states: Any building built after 1968 with federal funds must be accessible for the physical handicapped?

A. Older Americans Act
B. Americans with disabilities act
C. PL 90-480 architectural Barriers Act
D. The rehabilitation act, section 504

A

C

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18
Q

Law that governs
how states and public agencies provide early intervention, special education, and related services to children with disabilities. It addresses the educational needs of children with disabilities from
birth to age 18 or 21

A. PL 94-142, education for all handicapped Children act
B. Americans with disabilities act
C. Individuals with disabilities Education Act (IDEA)
D. The rehabilitation act, section 504

A

C

IDEA (2004) -most recent

  • students must be provided a free appropriate public education (FAPE) that prepares them for further education, employment and independent living
  • Free/ appropriate public education, IEP, and least restrictive environments
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19
Q

Act To provide assistance in the development of new or improved programs to help older persons
through grants to the States for community planning and services and for training, through research, development, or training project grants, and to establish within the Department of Health, Education, and Welfare an operating agency to be designated as the ‘‘Administration on Aging’’.

A. Older Americans Act
B. Americans with disabilities act
C. PL 90-480 architectural Barriers Act
D. The rehabilitation act, section 504

A

A

  • The older Americans Act of 1965 was the first federal level initiative aimed at providing comprehensive services for older adults
  • improved access services
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20
Q

What Transferred welfare programs from federal to states?

A. Medicaid
B. Americans with disabilities act
C. Medicare
D. 1996 Welfare Reform

A

D

No money provided for job training, job development or childcare

  • 13 million people affected
  • Can only be on welfare for 5 years but is up to the states how long an individual can be on & some individuals can be exempt from the time limit
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21
Q

Requires clients in a nursing home be engaged in programs

A. Older Americans Act
B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
C. Medicare
D. The rehabilitation act, section 504

A

B

1987

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22
Q

Engaging in play to reduce anxiety is the focus of what play theory

A. Catharis Therory
B. Psycho-analytic Theory
C. Diversion theory
D. Compensation Theory

A

B

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23
Q

An example of Psycho-analytic theory is which of the following

A. A activity used for a child to pass time
B. Make believe play
C. A picture drawing that tells a story about a child’s anger
D. Abused child uses dolls to master situation

A

D

Therapeutic recreation activities provided approved outlets for aggression and other emotions by
facilitating sublimation and permitting unconscious conflicts to be expressed.

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24
Q

Use of play to release repressed thoughts, feelings, and emotions

A. Catharis Therory
B. Psycho-analytic Theory
C. Diversion theory
D. Compensation Theory

A

A

An outlet for aggression

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25
Q

used to treat specific symptoms or behavioral problems

A. Thraplay
B. Filial therapy
C. Cognitive behavioral play theory
D. Perspective play

A

D

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26
Q

child-centered, includes training parents and then observing and providing feedback

A. Thraplay
B. Filial therapy
C. Cognitive behavioral play theory
D. Perspective play

A

B

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27
Q

aim to improve attachment – increase child’s trust and self-esteem

A. Thraplay
B. Filial therapy
C. Cognitive behavioral play theory
D. Perspective play

A

A

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28
Q

make behavioral changes by learning new strategies and receiving support

A. Thraplay
B. Filial therapy
C. Cognitive behavioral play theory
D. Perspective play

A

C

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29
Q

A Play provides all of the following for children in a hospital except

A. Normalcy and independence
B.Emotional adjustment and support
C. Feelings of being alone and misunderstood
D. Diversion and socialization

A

C

-Also provides learning and mastery and creative expression

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30
Q

Which Theory suggest that: As the end of life draws near, people will voluntarily disengage from others and from their former activity pattern and society’s withdrawal from then will in turn leave them in peace and happiness.

A.Surplus Theory
B. Activity Theory
C. Continuity Theory
D. Disengagement Theory

A

D

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31
Q

Which theory suggest that: Those activities and relationships that have been cultivated and maintained over a long period in peoples
lives are most likely to contribute to well-being and a sense of integrity.

A.Surplus Theory
B. Activity Theory
C. Continuity Theory
D. Disengagement Theory

A

C

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32
Q

Leisure lifestyle is explained by NCTRS as which of the following?

A. State of optimal, psychological arousal-when the challenge matches your skills
B. The day to day behavioral expression of one’s leisure values, attitudes, and awareness and skills in their life experiences
C. Main variables of perceived autonomy or freed of choice and intrinsic motivation that reflects behaviors that are enjoyable
D. Self- determined behavior to live life to the fullest

A

B

Leisure lifestyles implies that an individual has sufficient skills, knowledge, attitudes, and abilities to participate successfully in and be satisfied with leisure and recreation experiences that are incorporated into his or her individual life pattern.

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33
Q

according to the state of FLOW: When the skill level is low and the activity challenge is high, the individual is most likely to be

A. Anxious
B. Bored
C. Relaxed
D. uninterested

A

A

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34
Q

Individuals with higher ________ believe their choices and actions will affect the outcome of a
situation

A. confidence
B. Self-actualization
C. Intrinsic motivation
D. self-self-efficiancy

A

B

-the central pervasive personal belief that an individual can exercise some control over his or her own
functioning and over environmental events to reach some desired end; Foundational to the individual’s sense of competence and control

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35
Q

What is one factor that successful inclusion is dependent on?

A. The activity must be fun
B. The CTRS will decide which activities the individual will and will not participate in with out giving the individual a choice
C. The individual with the disability must have the activity skills as well as the interaction skills
D. The individual with a disability must be catered to during the activity by peers

A

C

and The service provider of recreation programs must view the involvement of individuals with
limitations as part of their basic service responsibility

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36
Q

There are 4 steps to inclusion. What order should they be followed in? 1. identify a source of funds 2. provide training- method of adapting and dealing with behaviors 3. identify support staff- close to the same age 4. Address individual needs

A. 1234
B. 4123
C. 3241
D. 4132

A

D

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37
Q

What is the key element of determining whether an activity is an intervention or a leisure experience accounting to the TR service delivery model?

A. It is not the nature
of the activity, but the clients perception of the experience
B. The needs of the client determine the nature of programs provided
C. Planned interventions as well as leisure experience dimension
D. The nature of service

A

A

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38
Q

What is the order of the four steps to the Leisure ability Model (Gunn/ Peterson) 1. assessment 2. leisure education 3. recreation participation/ leisure lifestyle 4. functional intervention/ treatment

A. 1 243
B. 1423
C. 1234
D. 1432

A

B

  1. Assessment
  2. Functional intervention
  3. Leisure education
  4. Recreation participation
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39
Q

A CTRS determines the nature of the program based on the needs of the clients utilizing which TR model?

A. TR service delivery model
B. Health improvement/ health promotion model
C. Leisure ability model
D. The optimizing lifelong health through therapeutic recreation model

A

C

Client orientated approach to to TR

Maximum control by specialist→minimum control by specialist

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40
Q

All of the following are components for leisure education except:

A. Leisure awareness
B. social interaction skills
C. leisure resources and leisure activity skills
D. Leisure partners

A

D

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41
Q

All of the following are examples of recreation participation activities EXCEPT?

A. Going to and enjoying work
B. Joining a league or tournament
C. Arts and crafts with peers
D. fitness and exercise

A

A

1) Require many participants and on administrative structure – leagues and tournaments
2) Enjoyed in groups and are facilitated – dramatics, arts and crafts, music
3) Require a specific facility or equipment – fitness and exercise, ceramics
4) Self-initiated and self-directed – park, playground, swimming pool, drop-in
center

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42
Q

according which model The Purpose of TR is to enable the client to recover following a threat to health and to achieve optimal health

A. TR service delivery model
B. Health improvement/ health promotion model
C. Leisure ability model
D. The optimizing lifelong health through therapeutic recreation model

A

B

Purpose of TR is to enable the client to recover following a threat to health (health protection) and to achieve optimal health (health promotion)

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43
Q

What are the three steps based on the humanistic assumption that human beings have an overriding drive for health and wellness

A. Quality of life, human services, marketing
B. Prescribed activity, advocacy, quality of life
C. Prescribed activity, recreation, leisure
D. None of the above

A

C

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44
Q

Self-directed by client, Intrinsically motivated, self-determined, Match between abilities and challenges, Can play a critical role in helping clients to actualize and move toward optimal health, and Reaches actualization are all aspects of what?

A. Basic human rights
B. Prescribed activity
C.Recreation
D. Leisure

A

D

Leisure is the 3rd step in the health improvement/ health promotion model. It is client directed.

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45
Q

Through _______ Client begins to regain their equilibrium so they may once again resume their quest for actualization.

A. Recreation
B. Prescribed Activity
C. Leisure
D. basic human rights

A

A

Recreation is the 2nd step in the health improvement/ health promotion model.

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46
Q

Which step of the Health promotion/ health promotion model does the client move away from stability tendencies —–> towards actualization

A. Recreation
B. Prescribed Activity
C. Leisure
D. basic human rights

A

A

In recreation, clients afford opportunities to experience control over their environments within a supportive, non-threatening atmosphere.

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47
Q

Therapeutic recreation specialists work with individuals who have illness, disease, and/or lifelong
disability to achieve and maintain leisure lifestyles that will enhance their health and well-being across the
life course if the focus of which model?

A. TR service delivery model
B. Health improvement/ health promotion model
C. Leisure ability model
D. The optimizing lifelong health through therapeutic recreation model

A

D

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48
Q

The optimizing lifelong long health through TR model works with individuals to achieve and maintain leisure lifestyles though the following elements except

A. Identifying
B. Selecting
C. Optimizing
D. Compensating

A

A

The elements of the optimizing lifelong long health through TR model include: selecting, optimizing, compensating, and evaluating

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49
Q

The CTRS teaches participants in TR programs to experience enjoyment and create environments conductive to enjoyment using which models proposal?

A. TR service delivery model
B. Self-determination and enjoyment enhancement
C. Aristotelian Good life Model
D. The optimizing lifelong health through therapeutic recreation model

A

B

It is proposed that teaching participants in TR programs to experience enjoyment and to create environments conducive to enjoyment are important goals for TR service which also contribute to
participants’ functional improvements

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50
Q

One element of the Aristotelian good life model includes:

A. Overcoming oppression
B. Goals for freedom
C. Role of CTRS
D. Role of the client

A

C

The four major elements include:

  1. Afflictions and oppression
  2. Aristotelian goods
  3. Freedom
  4. Role of CTRS
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51
Q

What is true about the Aristotelian good life model?

A. There are three major elements
B. It is easy to follow and accommodates a variety of clients and settings
C. There is no end goal
D. All of the above

A

B

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52
Q

What is true about the Benefits Drive model?

A. It focuses on what participants will get out of the program
B. Offers three approaches
C. offers a four step process
D. all of the above

A

D

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53
Q

Which of the following is an approach to the benefits Drive Model?

A. Marketing
B. Completing goals and objectives
C. person centered approach
D. All of the above are correct

A

A

The three approaches are:

  • Quality of life
  • Human services
  • Marketing
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54
Q

What is the correct order of the four step process to the Benefits Drive Model?

  1. identify the problem and target goals 2.Document the benefit outcomes 3. determine activity components 4. spread the word about the positive results of the program

A. 2341
B. 1342
C. 1324
D. 1234

A

C

Four step process:

  1. Identify the problem issue and target goals (assessment)
  2. Determine activity components (plan and implement program)
  3. Document the benefit outcomes (evaluate)
  4. Spread the word about the positive results of the program
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55
Q

according to Mobily’s summary of models: models are useful for all of the following reasons EXCEPT?

A. Defection of error
B. As mechanisms to accommodate new developments
C. as means for improving the profession
D. All community based

A

D

Models are useful for:
• Detection of errors
• As mechanisms to accommodate new developments
• As means for improving the profession
• All seek to reconcile the strict therapeutic outcomes of the clinical setting with the unique
modality of recreation activity
• Theoretical based.

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56
Q

Integrity, honesty, fairness, competence, diligence, and awareness are all apart of:

A.The ATRA code of ethics
B. National Therapeutic Recreation society (NTRS) code of ethics
C. ATRA standards of practice
D. Obligation of the professional

A

B

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57
Q

When a CTRS is aware of their limitations and seeks to reduce them by expanding their expertise it is which aspect of the NTRS code of ethics?

A.diligence
B.awareness
C.Competence
D.Integrity

A

C

Competence: Professionals function to the best of their knowledge and skill. They only render
services and employ techniques of which they are qualified by training and experience. They recognize their limitations, and seek to reduce them by expanding their expertise. Professionals continuously enhance their knowledge and skills through education and by remaining informed of professional and social trends, issues and developments.

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58
Q

A CTRS first loyalty is to the well being go the individual they serve. This is an aspect of:

A. The obligation of the professional to the individual
B. NTRS code of ethics
C. ATRA code of ethics
D. NTRS standards of practice

A

A

The obligation of the professional to the individual:

  • wellbeing
  • loyalty
  • Respect
  • professional practices
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59
Q

Scope of practice, mission, purpose, goals, objectives, individual treatment/program plan, documentation, plan of operation, personal qualifications, ethical responsibilities, evaluations and research are all standards for who?

A.The ATRA code of ethics
B. National Therapeutic Recreation society (NTRS) code of ethics
C. ATRA standards of practice
D. National Therapeutic Recreation Society (NTRS) standards of practice

A

D

1.) Scope of Practice
• Development and implementation
• Content
a) Treatment Services b)Leisure Education Services c) Recreation Services
2.) Mission and Purpose, Goals and Objectives
3.) Individual Treatment/Program Plan
4.) Documentation
5.) Plan of Operation
6.) Personnel Qualifications
7.) Ethical Responsibilities
8.) Evaluations and Research
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60
Q

A CTRS is obeying what professional obligation by respecting an individuals right to choice and opportunity to determine their own course of action to their health.

A. The obligation of the professional to the individual
B. NTRS code of ethics
C. ATRA code of ethics
D. NTRS standards of practice

A

C

  1. Autonomy: TR has the the duty to preserve and protect rights of each individual to make his/her own choices.
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61
Q

Which of the following is not a ATRA code of ethics?

A. Beneficence/ no maleficence
B.justice
C. fidelity
D. integrity

A

D

integrity is apart of the obligation of professional virtue.

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62
Q

Which of the following is a ATRA code of ethics?

A. Veracity/ informed consent
B. Advocacy
C. Knowledge
D. Cooperation and support

A

A

  1. Therapeutic Recreation personnel are responsible for providing each individual receiving service
    with information regarding the service and the professional’s training and credentials; benefits,
    outcomes, length of treatment, expected activities, risks, limitations.
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63
Q

How many ethics are listed in the ATRA code of ethics?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 6
D. 2

A

B

  1. beneficence/ no maleficence
  2. Autonomy
  3. justice
  4. fidelity
  5. veracity/ informed consent
  6. confidentiality and privacy
  7. competence
  8. compliance with laws and regulations
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64
Q

In an assessment the primary source of information is what?

A. case recordings or progress notes
B. interviews with family and friends
C. the client
D. Medical records

A

C

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65
Q

Assessment information can be gathered in which of the following ways?

A. Medical records from other hospitals
B. from family and friends
C. a google search
D. the unresponsive client

A

B

Secondary sources of info include: medical or education records, results of testing, interviews with family
or friends, the social history (social worker), case recordings or progress notes that staff have charted, and conferences and team meetings with other staff.

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66
Q

A CTRS wants to measure the clients attitude by choosing which assessment?

A. Comprehensive evaluation in RT (CERT-psych/ behavioral, revised)
B. BUS utilization skills assessment (BUS)
C.Cooperation and trust scale (CAT)
D. FOX

A

C
• High cognitive functioning clients
• Approx. ten mins to administer
• Usually used in a pretest/posttest protocol
• Used on adolescents in summer adventure program
• Purpose: to measure participants perceived level of trust and cooperation
• Self-report assessment
• Sample questions:
o Having a groups support makes many things easier to do.
o Cooperation is more enjoyable then competition in sports and games.
o Trusting others is often a mistake

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67
Q

A CTRS may use the Free time Boredom assessment to measure what?

A. Participation patterns
B. Leisure knowledge
C. Function
D. Attitude

A

D

• Reading level at 4th grade, high cognitive functioning
• Purpose: to identify the degree to which the participant is bored in the four components that make up
boredom
• Sample questions:
o During my free time, I do not use a lot of my physical skills o During my free time, it feels that time stands still

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68
Q

What is not a component that makes up boredom?

A. Social involvement: The patient has enough social stimulation to energize them and keep them engaged
B. meaningfulness: the patient has a focus or purpose during their free time
C. Mental involvement: the patient has enough to think about and finds these thoughts emotionally satisfying
D. Speed of time: the patient has enough purposeful and satisfying activity to fill their time

A

A

1.) Meaningfulness: the patient has a focus or purpose during their free time
2.) Mental Involvement: the patient has enough to think about and finds these thoughts emotionally
satisfying.
3.) Speed of Time: the patient has enough purposeful and satisfying activity to fill their time
4.) Physical Involvement: the patient has enough movement to satisfy them.

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69
Q

Which assessment instrument that measures attitudes has four separate testing tools, each one measuring a specific type of leisure attribute?

A. Leisure interest measure (LIM)
B.Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)
C. Free time boredom
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

B

Four separate testing tools:

  1. ) Leisure Interest Measure
  2. ) Leisure Satisfaction Measure
  3. ) Leisure Attitude Measurement
  4. ) Leisure Motivation Scale
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70
Q

The purpose of the Leisure attitude model (LAM) is to?

A. to measure motivation for engaging in leisure activities
B. to measure interest in the 8 domains of leisure
C. To identify attitudes towards leisure
D. to measure degree client perceived general “needs” are being met through leisure

A

C

The LAM was originally known as the LAS.

  • made for high functioning clients
  • self-report assessment
  • originally developed for research
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71
Q

Which of the following is a area of leisure attitude?

A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. behavioral
D. All of the above

A

D

  1. Cognitive: general knowledge about leisure, beliefs about leisure, etc.
  2. Affective: evaluation of leisure experiences, liking of experiences, feelings toward leisure, etc.
  3. Behavioural: Intentions, current and past participation
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72
Q

What is the purpose of the Leisure interest assessment?

A. to measure motivation for engaging in leisure activities
B. to measure interest in the 8 domains of leisure
C. To identify attitudes towards leisure
D. to measure degree client perceived general “needs” are being met through leisure

A

B

-measures how much interest the clients have in the 8 domains of leisure including physical, outdoors, mechanical, art, services, social, cultural, reading

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73
Q

A Client is given a choice to choose between different activities given a set of activities in writing and in pictures. Which assessment is this?

A. Leisure interest measure (LIM)
B.Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)
C. Free time boredom
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

A

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74
Q

the purpose of the Leisure motivation scale (LMS)?

A. to measure motivation for engaging in leisure activities
B. to measure interest in the 8 domains of leisure
C. To identify attitudes towards leisure
D. to measure degree client perceived general “needs” are being met through leisure

A

A

-Made for high cognitive function clients

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75
Q

To measure motivation for engaging in leisure activities is an example of which assessment?

A. Leisure interest measure (LIM)
B.Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)
C. Leisure motivation scale (LMS)
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

C

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76
Q

what is a primary motivator for the Leisure motivation scale?

A. relaxation
B. Physical ability
C. competition
D. stimulus avoidance

A

D
1.) Intellectual – extent to which the individuals are motivated to engage in leisure activities.
2.) Social – this component measures the need for relationships and being valued by others.
3.) Competence – assesses the extent to which individuals engage in leisure in order to achieve and
competence.
4.) Stimulus Avoidance – assesses the need to seek solitude or individual participation.

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77
Q

The purpose of which assessment is to measure the degree that a client’s perceived general “needs” are being met though leisure

A. Leisure satisfaction Measure (LSM)
B.Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)
C. Leisure motivation scale (LMS)
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

A

originally known as leisure satisfaction scale (LSS)

  • used for high cognitive functioning clients
  • self-report assessment
  • six categories of need
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78
Q

Which is not one of the six categories of need according to the Leisure satisfaction measure (LSM)

A. Psychological
B. emotional
C. Educational
D. social

A

B

  1. psychological
  2. educational
  3. social
  4. relaxation
  5. physiological
  6. aesthetic
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79
Q

Which assessment is probably the most researched, developed originally for in-school use, and based on the attribution theory?

A. Leisure Diagnostic Battery (LDB)
B.Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)
C. Leisure motivation scale (LMS)
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

A

Based on attribution theory, the term ‘leisure functioning” describes how an individual feels about his/her
leisure experiences.

First comprehensive battery of instruments designed to assess an individual’s “leisure functioning”

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80
Q

What dies the Leisure Diagnostic Battery measure?

A.attitudes towards leaguer
B. Extent of perceived freedom in leisure and current level of leisure functioning; area in need of improvement and impact of leisure services
C. To measure the degree client perceived general “needs” are being met thought leisure
D. How much interest the client has in 8 domains of leisure

A

B

  • Self-report assessment
  • Long and short forms are available
  • Used for pope with and without disabilities
  • consist of 8 components
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81
Q

Perception of freedom in leisure and barriers to leisure are two sections of which assessment measurement?

A. Leisure Diagnostic Battery (LDB)
B.Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)
C. Leisure motivation scale (LMS)
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A
A
Section 1: Perception of Freedom in leisure:
1) Perceived leisure competency scale
2) Perceived leisure control scale
3) Leisure needs scale
4) Depth of involvement in leisure scale
5) Playfulness scale
Section 2: Barriers to Leisure:
6) Barriers to leisure involvement scale
7) Knowledge of leisure opportunity test
8) Leisure preference inventory
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82
Q

What is the purpose of the leisurescope plus and teen leisurescope plus?

A.attitudes towards leaguer
B. To identify areas of high leisure interest, emotional motivation for participation, and identify individuals who need higher arousal experiences (risk takers)
C. To measure the degree client perceived general “needs” are being met thought leisure
D. How much interest the client has in 8 domains of leisure

A

B

  • Used for adults and for adolescents
  • Preferences are divided into 10 categories
  • Clients respond after viewing “collages” and deciding which picture, card or slide they like better.
  • Validity and reliability studies reported
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83
Q

A CTRS wants to measure a clients perceived satisfaction with life. Which Assessment would the CTRS choose to use?

A. Leisure Diagnostic Battery (LDB)
B. Life satisfaction scale (LSS)
C. Leisure motivation scale (LMS)
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

B

  • Made for clients with moderate to no cognitive impairment
  • self-report assessment
  • Sample questions: I feel miserable most of the time, I never dreamed that I could be as lonely as I am now, and I haven’t a cent in the world
84
Q

What is not a difference between the Leisure Diagnostic Battery Scale and the Idyll Arbour Leisure Battery (IALB)?

A. They both measure leisure attitudes
B. The leisure diagnostic Battery measures the extent of perceived freedom in leisure and current level of leisure functioning; areas in needs of improvement and impact of leisure services
C. The Leisure Battery measures specific types of leisure attributes using four separate testing tools
D. There is nothing similar about the assessments

A

A

85
Q

To measure changes in perception of social attitudes and skills as a result of treatment program or adventure is the purpose of which leisure attitude assessment tool?

A. Leisure Diagnostic Battery (LDB)
B. Measurement of social empowerment and trust (SET)
C. Leisure motivation scale (LMS)
D. leisure attitude measurement (LAM)

A

B

  • Made for adolescents and adults with moderate to no cognitive impairments
  • five sub scales
  • sample questions:
  • -at present I get along with others
  • -Feel accepted by others
  • -Understand how my actions affect others
86
Q

The Measurement of social empowerment and trust uses all of the following sub scales EXCEPT?

A. Empowerment- able to influence people and events around person
B. Self-awareness-identify own feelings
C. Educational- intellectual stimulation, learning about self and surroundings
D. Bonding/ cohesion - see self as connected to group

A

C
Educational is a category form the Life satisfaction Measure

5 sub sections of SET

  • Bonding/cohesion- see self as connected to group
  • Empowerment-able to influence people and events around person
  • Self-awareness- identify own feelings
  • self-affirmations- ability to state beliefs and goals
  • Awareness to others- awareness of trust in others
87
Q

If a CTRS wants to measure a clients function skills which of the following assessment would they not use?

A. Bus utilization skills assessment
B. comprehensive evaluation in Recreational therapy (CERT-psych/ behavioral, revised)
C. Comprehensive evaluation in Recreational Therapy (CERT-physical disabilities)
D. Measurement of social empowerment and trust (SET)

A

D

The measurement of social empowerment and trust (SET) is an assessment to measure leisure attitudes

88
Q

A CTRS wants to determine skills a client has in relation to using public transportation which assessment would she use?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. ADA guidelines for public transportation
C. FOX
D. The social attribution check list

A

A

  • Made for clients with cognitive/ or physical impairment
  • has two sections to determine if clients are cognitively and socially competent to use public transportation independently
89
Q

What is evaluated in the BUS assessment?

A. A clients time management skills
B. A clients functional skills
C. A clients Maldaptive behaviors
D. Both B and C

A

D

  1. ) Evaluations functional skills such as: appearance, getting ready, waiting for the bus, interaction with strangers, pedestrian safety, riding conduct and transfers
  2. ) Evaluates maladaptive behaviors such as anxiety, depression, hostility, suspiciousness, unusual thought content, hallucinations, disorientation, etc.
90
Q

What setting is the Comprehensive Evaluation Recreational Therapy (CERT-psych/behavioral, revised) most appropriate for functional skills measurement?

A. psychiatric
B. short term care / acute
C. State hospital setting
D. both A and B

A

D

made for youth and adults with developmental age of at least 10 .

Purpose is to identify and evaluate behaviors relevant to successfully integrate into society using appropriate social skills.

91
Q

A CTRS would like to identify and evaluate behaviors & social skills relevant to integrate a client successfully into society. Which assessment would they use?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. Comprehensive Eval in RT (CERT-psych)
C. FOX
D. Comprehensive eval in RT (CERT-physical disabilities)

A

B

Three performance areas:

  1. general
    - Attitude, appearance, posture
  2. individual performance
    - Decision making ability, judgment ability, ability to form relationships, frustration tolerance, strength/ endurance
  3. group performance
    - Memory for group activities, response to group structure, leadership ability in groups, group conversation
92
Q

The comprehensive Evaluation in RT (CERT-Physical disabilities) is most likely to be used in what treatment setting?

A. State hospital
B. Behavioral acute setting
C. Physical Rehabilitation hospital
D. Adaptive community sports

A

C

Adults in rehab/ loss of function

  • Purpose is to establish baseline for functional skills related to leisure
  • reassessment of the same client helps to establish skills recovery loss
93
Q

All of the following are areas to establish baseline for functional skills related to leisure using the Comprehensive Eval in RT (CERT-physical disabilities) except:

A. Gross motor function
B. fine motor function
C. locomotion
D. flexibility

A

D
8 areas:
1.) Gross motor function:
▪ Neck control, weight bearing, right lower extremity movement, etc.
2.) Fine motor function:
▪ Right manual movement ability, right manual movement endurance, etc.
3.) Locomotion:
▪ Wheelchair maneuverability, transfer ability, ambulatory ability, etc.
4.) Motor Skills:
▪ Fine motor coordinator, gross motor coordination, recreation time, etc.
5.) Sensory:
▪ Ocular pursuit, depth perception, auditory acuity, etc.
6.) Cognitive:
▪ Judgement/decision making ability, attention span, memory, orientation, etc.
7.) Communication:
▪ Verbal expressive skills, verbal receptive skills, written receptive skills, written
expressive skills, etc.
8.) Behaviour:
▪ Adjustment to disability, social interaction skills, frustration tolerance level, emotions.

94
Q

The FOX assessment for measuring functional skills is most likely to be used in which setting?

A. Nursing home
B. physical rehabilitation
C. none of the above
D. both a and B

A

D

-Individuals with a primary or secondary diagnosis of dementia, MR/DD, or brain injury

95
Q

The CTRS working in a nursing home wants to evaluate the clients relative level of skill in the social / affective domain which assessment are they most likely to you?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. Comprehensive Eval in RT (CERT-psych)
C. FOX
D. Comprehensive eval in RT (CERT-physical disabilities)

A

C

  • The activity therapy social skills baseline
  • most of the social skills included in this assessment are important building blocks to development of a mature leisure lifestyle
  • divided ing 12 levels of ability, the lowest being social level 1.
96
Q

There are six areas of social skills abilities in the FOX functional skills assessment. Which of the following is not an area of abilities according to the model?

A. The client reaction to others
B. the clients relation to objects
C. The clients interaction with others
d. The clients goals to improve interaction with others

A

D

Six areas of abilities Include:

  • The clients reaction to others
  • The clients reaction to objects
  • The clients seeking attention from other to manipulate the environment
  • The clients interaction with objects
  • The clients concept of self
  • The clients interaction with others
97
Q

A CTRS want to assess a clients basic functional skills, see if he client qualifies for services and identify the area most likely to improve with services. Which Assessment should be chosen?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. Functional Assessment of characteristics for TR (FACTR)
C. FOX
D. Comprehensive eval in RT (CERT-physical disabilities)

A

B

Original population was adults in VA hospitals (rehab, psych, geriatric, hospitals, etc.)

Can be used as an initial screening for most populations

Examines functional skills for leisure involvement

Use of chart review and observations

98
Q

What is not one of the three domains for the functional assessment of characteristics for TR (FACTR)

A. Physical
B. social /emotional
C. psychological
D. cognitive

A

C

  1. Physical:
    • 11 areas including: Sight/vision hearing, ambulation, general coordination, etc.
  2. Social/emotional:
    • 11 areas including: dyad, small group, competition, conflict/argument, etc.
  3. Cognitive:
    • 11 areas including: orientation, receptive language, attending and concentrating,
    long-term memory, etc.
99
Q

A CTRS working in a nursing home wants to determine the functional capacity of older adults in six areas of function relative to established ego and sex-related norms. which assessment should she choose?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. Functional Assessment of characteristics for TR (FACTR)
C. FOX
D. Functional fitness Assessment for adults over 60 years

A

D

Seniors with limited disabilities

to determine the functional capacity of older adults in six areas of function relative to
established ego and sex-related norms.

100
Q

Which of the following is not one of the six categories related to the functional fitness assessment for adults over 60yrs?

A. standing tolerance
B. flexibility
C. Body composition
D. agility/ dynamic balance

A

A

• Measures six areas including:

  1. Body Composition
  2. Flexibility
  3. Agility/Dynamic Balance
  4. Coordination
  5. Strength/Endurance
  6. Endurance
101
Q

a CTRS is planning a hiking trip for individuals in the community which of the following assessments would they use?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. Functional hiking techniques
C. FOX
D. Functional fitness Assessment for adults over 60 years

A

B

Appropriate for any client group who is ambulatory and has cognitive disabilities.

• Purpose: to determines ability to demonstrate skills to hike independently.

102
Q

How is the functional hiking techniques measured by ability to all of the following except:

A. Select appropriate attire
B. Demonstrate pacing patterns
C. Demonstrate knowledge of how to Measure their heart rate
D. demonstrate uphill/downhill techniques

A

C

Measures ability to:

  • Select appropriate attire
  • Demonstrate pacing patterns
  • Demonstrate uphill/downhill techniques
  • Demonstrate techniques to move under obstacles
  • Demonstrate techniques to move over obstacles
103
Q

A CTRS wants to measure the general developmental level of individuals with ID/IDD in 18 areas related to leisure. Which assessment should be used?

A. Bus utilization skills Assessment (BUS)
B. Functional hiking techniques
C. FOX
D. General Recreational Screening Tool (GRST)

A

D

-written for clients with ID/IDD
Purpose: Measures general developmental level of the client in 18 areas related to leisure.
• Takes approx. 15 mins to score after observing the patients in two or more activities.
-measures 18 areas of leisure

104
Q

Which of the following are measured by the general recreation screening tool (GRST)?

A. Gross/fine motor, hand-eye coordination, and play behavior
B. Language use, following directions, and problem solving
C. emotional control and people skills
D. All of the above

A

D

• Measures 18 areas of leisure including:

  • gross/fine motor
  • hand-eye
  • play behavior
  • language use
  • following directions
  • problem solving
  • emotional control
  • people skills
  • etc.
105
Q

What is the purpose of the Idyll Arbour Activity Assessment?

A. To obtain information to develop a treatment plan
B. To gather data to determine the payment of each medicare part A free-for-service patients admitted to an impatient rehab unit or hospital
C. To provide the therapist with a tool to assess the depth of the participants understanding of appropriate social and sexual roles
D. to assess developmental level

A

A

  • intake assessment form for long-term care/ nursing homes
  • written to meet Omnibus budget Reconciliation Act (OVRA) regulations
  • Helps complete MDS
  • Chart review, observation, interview
  • five sections:
    1. Personal and medical history
    2. Leisure interests
    3. Leisure history
    4. Individual performance/social strengths
    5. Maladaptive behaviours
106
Q

When a CTRS uses the Idyll arbor assessment tool how is it to be administered?

A. Though chart review
B. through observation
C. through an interview
D. All of the above

A
D
 Five sections:
1. Personal and medical history
2. Leisure interests
3. Leisure history
4. Individual performance/social strengths
5. Maladaptive behaviors
107
Q

Which assessment was created to gather data to determine the payment of each medicare Part A fee-for-service patients admitted to an impatient rehab unit or hospital?

A. Impatients rehabilitation facility-patient assessment instrument (IRF-PAI)
B. Functional hiking techniques
C. FOX
D. General Recreational Screening Tool (GRST)

A

A
• Completed by numerous members of the interdisciplinary treatment team
• Summary assessment

• Inpatient rehab unit or hospital including: stoke; brain dysfunction; neurologic conditions; spinal cord
dysfunction, Non-Traumatic/Traumatic; amputation; arthritis; pain syndromes; orthopedic disorders; cardiac disorders; pulmonary disorders; burns; DD and medically complex conditions.

• Purpose: to gather data to determine the payment of each Medicare Part A fee-for-service patients
admitted to an impatient rehab unit or hospital

  • Measures what the client with a disability actually does, not what she ought to be able to do.
  • Similar to long-term care
  • Uses FIM in clinical section
108
Q

Which population was the Leisure and social/ sexual assessment (LS/SA) developed for?

A. Physical rehabilitation
B. Adolescents and young adults will ID/IDD
C. Assisted living
D. Adolescents in a behavioral setting

A

B
Developed for adolescents and young adult clients who are diagnosed as having MR/DD or other disabilities that cause a person to struggle with appropriate social behaviours and appropriate social interactions.

109
Q

What was the purpose for developing the Leisure and social/ sexual assessment (LS/SA) for adolescents and young adults with ID/IDD?

A. to obtain information to develop a treatment plan
B. to measure a social competence and antisocial behavior
C. To provide the therapist with a tool to assess the depth of a participants understanding of appropriate social and sexual roles
D. To assess developmental level

A

C

Three sections:

  1. Basic personal data
  2. Structured interview - Explore understanding of activities/leisure
  3. Structured interview - Explore understanding of dating, marriage and sexuality
110
Q

A CTRS working in a day facility for adults with ID/IDD want to assess the individuals developmental level. Which assessment should be chosen?

A. Impatients rehabilitation facility-patient assessment instrument (IRF-PAI)
B. Functional hiking techniques
C. FOX
D. Recreation Early Development Screening Toll (REDS)

A

D

  • Was designed for adults
  • used with Individuals with severe/profound ID or severe IDD who function less than 1 year of age
  • One of the few TR assessment for clients who are extremely disabled
  • test development levels 0-1 months to 8-12 months
  • observation
  • measures five areas
    1. Play
    2. Fine motor
    3. Gross motor
    4. Sensory
    5. Social/cognition
111
Q

A CTRS working with school aged children would like to measure social behavior related to developmentally appropriate social competence. Which assessment would they choose to use?

A. The social attributes checklist-assessing young children social competence
B. Functional hiking techniques
C. FOX
D. Recreation Early Development Screening Toll (REDS)

A

A
• Preschool or elementary school age children, with and without disabilities
• Purpose: to measure social behaviour related to developmentally appropriate social competence
• Research show if children do not have minimal social competence by age six they have a high probability
of being at risk
• Observation

112
Q

Which functional assessment for school aged kids measures Individual attributes, social skills attributes, and peer relationship?

A. The social attributes checklist-assessing young children social competence
B. Functional hiking techniques
C. FOX
D. Recreation Early Development Screening Toll (REDS)

A

A

  1. Individual attributes:
    ▪ Usually in positive mood, usually copes with rebuffs adequately, shows capacity to
    empathize, etc.
  2. Social skills attributes:
    ▪ Approaches others positively, is not easily intimidated by bullies ,takes turns fairly easily, etc.
  3. Peer relationship attributes:
    ▪ Usually accepted versus neglected or rejected by other children, is named by other children as someone they are friends with or like to play and work with, etc.
113
Q

What is the purpose for using the Therapeutic Recreation Activity Assessment (TRAA)?

A. to measure perception of involvement and not just participation
B. To assess basic functional skills as demonstrated in a group setting
C. to measure density and scope of visual neglect
D. to measure the leisure behavior of adults

A

B

  • Clients with TBI, DD, Psychiatric disabilities, or receiving supported care like residents of a nursing home, group home, adult daycare center, or assisted living facility
  • Best for people who have severe mental illness
  • Also has a protocol for assessing clients with significant impairments
114
Q

Which setting is the Therapeutic Recreation Activity Assessment (TRAA) most likely to be used with?

A. behavioral health hospital
B. assisted living
C. group home
D. none of the above

A

A

-best for people who have sever mental illness
-Uses interviews and a series of activities
• Measures six areas:
1. Find motor skill
2. Gross motor skill
3. Receptive communication
4. Expressive communication
5. Cognitive skills
6. Social behaviors

115
Q

A CTRS is working in a hospital with and individual who has a right CVA with a left neglect. what kind of functional assessment is recommended for use in this situation?

A.The social attributes checklist- assessing young children’s social competence
B. Comprehensive visual Neglect Assessment (CvNA)
C. Leisure assessment inventory
D. Therapeutic Recreation Activity Assessment (TRAA)

A

B

  • Clients with right CVA with left neglect.
  • Purpose: to measure density and scope of visual neglect
  • Uses a dart board
116
Q

All of the following assessments measure Participation patterns except ?

A. Leisure Step-up
B. leisure assessment inventory (LAI)
C. Recreation early development screening tool (REDS)
D. Assessment of leisure and recreation involvement

A

C
-REDS is a functional assessment

  • Individuals with severe/profound MR or severe DD who function less than 1 year of age
  • Was designed for adults
  • One of the few TR assessment for clients who are extremely disabled
  • Purpose: to assess developmental level.
117
Q

A CTRS works with individuals with moderate cognitive impairments and would like to measure their perception of involvement and not just participation. Which partition pattern assessment would work best?

A. Leisure Step-up
B. leisure assessment inventory (LAI)
C. State technical institute’s leisure assessment process (STILAP)
D. Assessment of leisure and recreation involvement (LRI)

A

D

  • Individuals with moderate or no cognitive impairments
  • Purpose: to measure perception of involvement and not just participation
  • Self-report assessment
  • Six cognitive/emotional elements that influence actual participation in activity:

Sample questions

  • My favorite activities give me pleasure
  • My leisure activities give me a sense of value in my life
118
Q

A cTRS working at a group home with adults with IDD/ID would use which participation assessment to measure the leisure behavior of adults?

A. Leisure Step-up
B. leisure assessment inventory (LAI)
C. State technical institute’s leisure assessment process (STILAP)
D. Assessment of leisure and recreation involvement (LRI)

A

B
-Also appropriate for middle ages and older adults with moderate to no cognitive disability.
• Purpose: to measure the leisure behaviour of adults
• Assess participation
• Four Subscales

119
Q

A CTRS is developing a assessment and leisure education program with behavioral health and substance abuse. The CTRS plans to use the model built on Nash’s model of hierarchy. Which assessment is that?

A. Leisure Step-up
B. leisure assessment inventory (LAI)
C. State technical institute’s leisure assessment process (STILAP)
D. Assessment of leisure and recreation involvement (LRI)

A

A

-can be used with a wide variety of populations, but is most appropriate for psychiatric adults and adolescents or substance abuse units. Can be used with long term care & phys rehab as well.

  • Uses pictures geared for adult 50 and older
  • Four sub scale
120
Q

In what order do the leisure level model steps from the leisure setup assessment belong

1.identify problem 2.assessment 3.experience healthy leisure participation 4.understanding healthy leisure …..etc

A. 1234
B.1243
C.2143
D.2431

A

C
Leisure level model steps:
1. Assessment
2. Identify problem
3. understand healthy leisure
4.experience healthy leisure participation
5.unresolved issues of past and relationship between leisure an what is going on at the time
6.planning the future
7.opportunities to observe leisure activities
8.Arts, crafts, music drama, dance and home activities
…….etc

121
Q

The state Technical institutes leisure assessment process (STILAP) does what?

A. identifies needs, strengths, preferences, description, and functional skills
B. Gives TRS a standardized tool to measure many different aspects of a patients knowledge and functional skills related to accessing community resources
C. monitors clients involvement in leisure activities
D. Measures general scope of leisure activity skills in order to provide a basis for program decision making regarding a more balanced and leisure skill repertoire

A

D

Adults with physical disabilities

  • Measures general scope of leisure activity skills in order to provide a basis for program decision making regarding a more balanced & leisure skill repertoire.
  • Fourteen competencies including: physical skill that can be done alone, activity dependent on some aspect of the outdoor environment, etc.
122
Q

The recreational participation Data sheet (RPD) is used for what purpose?

A. identifies needs, strengths, preferences, description, and functional skills
B. Gives TRS a standardized tool to measure many different aspects of a patients knowledge and functional skills related to accessing community resources
C. monitors clients involvement in leisure activities
D. Measures general scope of leisure activity skills in order to provide a basis for program decision making regarding a more balanced and leisure skill repertoire

A

C

• Way to monitor the balance of leisure activities offered to clients living in group homes to ensure that staff offer an appropriate mix of activities
• More a method of documenting participation than an assessment
• Purpose: to monitor client’s involvement in leisure activities
• Areas: participation, initiation, independence, physical output, satisfaction, average size of groups and
average time spend in activities.
• Has a supplemental physical activity sheet to monitor physical activity

123
Q

The purpose of the community integration program assessment is to what?

A. Give the TRS a standardized tool to measure many different aspects of a patients knowledge and functional skills related to accessing community resources
B. see how ready clients are to enter the community
C. help prepare clients to enter the community
D. to monitor clients involvement in leisure activities

A

A

  • Any population that needs to regain the ability to use community resources, including but not limited to patients with physical disabilities, DD, psychiatric disorders, head injuries and youth at risk.
  • The CIP measures the knowledge and skills required for using resources within the community
  • Each module measures different aspects of knowledge and skills required for integration.
124
Q

Which of the following is an interdisciplinary assessment?

A. community integration integration program
B. Resident Assessment instrument (RAI)
C.recreation participation data sheet (RPD)
D. State technical institute’s leisure assessment process (STILAP)

A

B
-All of the rest are participation assessments.

RAI is:

  • interdisciplinary assessment and care planning process
  • used in long-term care
  • computerized
  • used to reimburse, and quality assurance
125
Q

The minimum data set is a basic component of which interdisciplinary assessment?

A. Global assessment of functioning (GAF)
B. Functional independence measure (FIM)
C. resident Assessment instrument (RAI)
D. impatient rehabilitation facility- patient assessment (IRF-PAI)

A

C

  • Identifies: needs, strengths, preferences, description of functional skills, directs content of care plan
  • T1a= recreational therapy
  • basic components:
    1. MDS:
    2. triggers
    3. resource assessment protocol (RAP)
    4. prospective payment systems
    5. quality indicators
126
Q

The minimum data set was mandated by Omnibus Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987 to ensure what:

A. That clients are monitored during leisure activities
B. that all persons served in a long term care setting are able to receive medicare
C. That a CTRS would be involved with long-term care treatment
D.That all nursing homes were assessed, provided with services, and monitored on a regular basis

A

D
-as of July 1st 1998 the prospective payment system began and section T. was added to the MDS. requiring the reporting of TR services
-HCFA is collecting stats on the use of RT through section T1a to evaluate future reimbursement rates
- documents the number of days and total minutes of recreation therapy
administered during the past seven days

127
Q

Under what section of the minimum data set (MDS) requires the reporting of recreational therapy treatment services?

A. medicare section D
B. section II
C. T1a
D. section I

A

C
-The scope of intensity, duration, and service provided must be within the physician or nurse practitioner’s prescription. If recreation therapy is ordered, it is considered medically necessary and appropriate, and therefore, the facilities’ obligation to provide
the service for their residents.
-if the facility doesn’t employ a CTRS they must contract one

128
Q

Impatient Rehabilitation Facility – Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI):

A

-Completed by various members of interdisciplinary team
• Summary assessment
• Professionals first assess functional needs using another assessment and then summarized findings on
this document
• Clients in impatient rehabilitation unit or hospital
• FIM is part of this summary
• Used to determine payment for Medicaid

129
Q

Which of the following is not a standardized testing tool and is included as part of the in-cleint rehabilitation facility client assessment instrument as an 18 item, 7-level ordinance scale?

A. impatient rehabilitation facility-patient assessment instrument (IRF-PAI)
B.global assessment of functioning (GAF)
C.Pain scale
D. Functional independence Measure (FIM)

A

D
• Areas include: eating, grooming, bathing, dressing, problem solving, etc.
• Used in rehabilitation
• Basic indicator of severity of disability
• Can be administered quickly and to groups
-126 indicated independence, while a score of 18 indicated full dependence
-it is the product of an effort to resolve the long-standing problem of lack of uniform measurement and data on disability and rehabilitation outcomes

130
Q

What setting is the Global assessment of functioning most likely to be used?

A. psychiatric rehabilitation
B. group home
C.assisted living
D. Physical rehab

A

A

  • scale is a managed care environment
  • looks at overall functioning
  • continuum from psychiatric illness to health
  • scale 1 (sickest) to 100 (healthiest)
131
Q

On the Global assessment of functioning (GAF) which of the following scores shows most outpatients in regarding mental health?

A. 1-40
B. 31-70
C. 81-90
D. 91-100

A

B

Scale 1 (sickest) -100 (healthiest)

  • 81-90/91-100= positive mental health
  • 31-70=most outpatients
  • 1-40= most impatients

-Areas include psychological impairment, social skills, dangerousness, occupational skills, substance abuse

132
Q

in 2001 JCAHO required that all professionals working with clients, including TR need to complete what type of assessment?

A. cognitive assessment
B. satisfaction assessment
C. motivation assessment
D. A pain scale

A

D

133
Q

What does the leisure activity blank (LAB) measure?

A. past leisure participation and intentionality of future involvement
B. leisure barriers in 8 categories: time, money, transportation, partners…etc
C. Dementia by having patient remember and repeat three common objective and draw a clock face indicating a particular time
D. clients cognitive sensory and perceptual motor skills

A

A

Three point rating scale
• Leisure participation categories include:
o Mechanics, Sports, etc.
o Past involvement = 6 categories 
o Future = 8 categories
134
Q

How do clients respond to the leisure barriers inventories (LBI)

A. Asks patient to repeat two numbers, then three, then four and so on.
B. 48 items on a 3 point scale (Agree - don’t know - disagree)
C. 87 behaviors observed during 20 activities rated on a 3 point scale
D. Three point rating scale

A

B

  • Examines leisure barriers in eight categories: time, money, transportation, partners, etc.
  • Client responds to 48 items on 3 point scale (agree - don’t know - disagree)
135
Q

The recreation behavior inventory is used to assess what?

A. dementia through a series of test, including remembering the three common objects, counting backwards, naming, providing location, copying shapes and following directions
B. dementia by having patient remember three common objects and draw a clock face indicating a particular time
C. Cognitive, sensory and perceptual motor skills as prerequisites to leisure participation
D. attention by asking the patient to repeat two numbers, then three, then four and so on

A

C

  • To asses clients cognitive, sensory and perceptual motor skills as prerequisite to leisure participation.
  • 87 behaviors to be observed during 20 activities, rated on a 3 point scale.
  • Intended for children but, reportedly used in psychiatric and long term care settings.
136
Q

Identify resource utilization guidelines (RUGS III)

A

Summary of scores and places in 1 of 7 tx groups or categories

  1. Rehab
  2. Extensive services
  3. Special care
  4. Clinically complex
  5. Impaired cognition
  6. Behaviour problem
  7. Reduced physical function
137
Q

Mini-Cognitive Test:

A

Assess dementia by having patients remember and repeat three common objects and draw a clock face indicating a particular time

138
Q

Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE):

A

Assesses dementia through a series of tests, including remembering the names of three common objects, counting backwards, naming, providing location, copying shapes and following directions.

139
Q

Digit Repetition Test:

A

Assesses attention by asking the patient to repeat two numbers, then three, then four and so on

140
Q

What is the confusion assessment method (CAM) used to assess?

A. emotional state of mind
B. a persons mobility and requires both static and dynamic balance
C. dementia
D. Delirium

A

D
• Used to assess delirium
• Part one is an assessment instrument that screens for overall cognitive impairment.
• Part two includes only those four features that were found to have the greatest ability to distinguish delirium or reversible confusion from other types of cognitive impairment.

141
Q

The timed up and go (TUG) test is used to assess what ?

A. a persons cognitive ability to think and talk fast
B. a persons mobility and requires both static and dynamic balance
C. dementia
D. Delirium

A

B

  • Uses the time that a person takes to rise from a chair, walk three meters, turn around, walk back to the chair, and sit down.
  • During the test, the person is expected to wear their regular footwear and use any mobility aids that they would normally require.
  • The TUG is used frequently in the elderly population, as it is easy to administer and can generally be completed by older adults.
142
Q

The functional vision assessment (FVA) is meant for who?

A. children who have low vision
B. Older adults
C. individuals with ID/IDD
D. everyone

A

A

  • An assessment of how a child uses the vision he or she has in everyday life, so it is usually not done with children who are totally blind or have light perception only.
  • Since a child’s visual condition and abilities can change over time, the functional vision assessment needs to be repeated periodically.
143
Q

What does the functional vision assessment measure?

A. how a child uses their vision for distant reading tasks
B. how a child uses his/her vision for near tasks
C. how the child perceives colors
D. none of the above

A

B
A functional vision assessment will investigate how a child uses his/her vision for near tasks:
• closer than 16 inches intermediate tasks
• 16 inches to 3 feet distance tasks
• more than 3 feet away

144
Q

What type of hearing test is used to identify hearing threshold levels of an individual, enabling determination of the degree , type and configuration of a hearing loss

A. Timed up and go test
B. functional hearing assessment (FHA)
C. Pure tone audiometry (PTA)
D. Norm referenced test

A

C

-PTA is a subjective, behavioural measurement of hearing threshold, as it relies on patient response
to pure tone stimuli.
-PTA is used on adults and children old enough to cooperate with the test procedure

145
Q

A test that samples clients attitudes or functional ability and then compares the clients scores against the scores received by the general population is called what?

A. Reliability
B. Abnormal functional skills assessment (AFS)
C. Percentile evaluation
D. Norm-referenced test

A

D

  • samples the client’s attitudes or functional ability and then compares the client’s scores against the scores received by the general population
  • compare a client to a reference group with similar characteristics
146
Q

the probability that, given similar conditions, similar results will be achieved is called?

A. Reliability
B. validity
C. test-retest
D. split-half method

A

A

  • If research is reliable it should be able to be applied to similar target populations with similar outcomes
  • Scoring consistency with different CTRS’s
147
Q

All of the following are types of reliability except?

A. Test-retest
B. Equivalency method
C. alternative-form method
D. split- hald method

A

B

  1. ) Test-retest: measures the same subjects with the same instruments at different times.
  2. ) Alternative-form Method (multiple-form): compares results from two forms of the same measuring tool.
  3. ) Split-half Method: the measuring tool Is divided in half, and the results from each half are compared
148
Q

Which of the following is a type of reliability?

A. internal reliability
B. external reliability
C.interobserver reliability
D.construct reliability

A

C
4.) Interobserver reliability (interrated reliability): two observers use the same method of measurement and
compare results.
5.) Intraobserver reliability (intrarater reliability): a single observer compares results gathered at different
times.
6.) Internal Consistency: a measure of how consistently participants respond to items in the testing
instrument. Useful when a test measures a single variable.

149
Q

A parallel form or alternative from reliability

A. validity
B. construct validity
C. intraobserver reliability
D. Equivalency

A

D
• Also known as parallel-form or alternative form reliability
• Include following components:
-How closely correlated are two or more forms of the same assessment?
-two forms have been developed and demonstrated to measure the same construct
-Forms have similar but not the same items
-Short and long forms are not equivalent

150
Q

______ describes how well the assessment results match their intended purposes

A. Reliability
B. validity
C. test-retest
D. split-half method

A

B

  • Ability to measure as intended
  • Are you measuring what you think you are measuring?
  • Relationship between programs and assessment content?
151
Q

All of the following are types of validity except

A. external validity
B. internal validity
C. stability
D. Construct validity

A
C
Threats to Validity:
• Assessments should be valid for intended use
• Unclear directions
• Unclear or ambiguous terms
• Too few/many items
• Method of administration
• Testing conditions
• And subjects health, reluctance and attitudes
152
Q

construct validity is which of the following?

A. The extent to which the results of a program can be applied to similar groups
B.the relationship between programs and assessment content
C. represents a casual relationship which can be tested to determine the the program is responsible for the change that is being measured
D. use of an outside, objective option to determine wether something is valid

A

D
1.) Construct Validity: use of an outside, objective opinion to determine whether something is valid.
2.) Internal Validity: represents a causal relationship which can be tested to determine that the program is
responsible for the change that is being measures.
3.) External Validity: the extent to which the results of a program can be applied to similar groups.

153
Q

According to criterion validity +1 or -1 is considered what type of relationship

A. a perfect relationship
B. no relationship
C. an acceptable range
D. predictive relationship

A

A

  • +1 or -1 is a perfect relationship
  • 0 = no relationship
  • R =/-.40 to =/-.70 acceptable range
154
Q

Criterion related validity has two types predictive and concurrent. Which of the following describes concurrent?

A. same group assessed two times with the same instrument and results of the two test are correlated
B. applies to validation studies in which the two measures are administered at approximately the same time -(immediate)
C. the effectiveness of one set of test or research results as a predictor of the outcome of future experiments or test -(extended period of time)
D. lacking of high quality validation and resources

A

B

  • Predictive: the effectiveness of one set of test or research results as a predictor of the outcome of future experiments or test (extended period of time)
  • Concurrent: applies to validation studies in which the two measures are administered at approximately the same time (immediate)
155
Q

Stability (test-retest) Basics:

A
  • How stable is the assessment?
  • Was it influences overly by the passage of time?
  • Same group assessed two times with the same instrument and results of the two tests are correlated
  • Are the two tests scores alike?
  • Time effects (Longer/shorter)
156
Q

All of the following are general assessment concerns except?

A. Lack of high quality assessments
B. validation problems
C. use of assessments for purposes not validated
D. unclear directions

A

D

  • Lack of high quality assessments
  • Validation problems
  • Use of assessments for purposes not validated
  • Lack of assessment resources
  • Cost of assessments
  • Specialist competence
  • Lack of protocols (i.e. developments, conduct, score, interpret)
  • GIGO = garbage in, garbage out
157
Q

Which of the following is a type of observation?

A. casual
B. skilled
C. naturalistic
D. all of the above

A

D

• Casual:
-Type of non-systematic observation in which we engage on a daily basis.
-it is responding to our environment in a somewhere random fashion and out of our personal bias
and background.
-Not skilled, directed or purposeful.

158
Q

Which of the following is not a type of observation?

A. anecdotal records
B. Specific Goal observation
C. standardized observation
D. duration recording

A

A.

Specific Goal Observation:

  • Assess a well-defined behavior.
  • Might include observing an adult playing a card game or observing an adolescent square dancing. These activities make certain cognitive, psychomotor, or social demands on the client. –Role playing – client is told to act as though he/she normally would in the situation
159
Q

Which type of observation is carefully completed in an organized manner and are as free as possible from personal bias?

A. skilled
B. standardized observation
C. continuous recording
D.interval recording

A

A

skilled:
- Knowing what to look for & what to expect, learn to disregard irrelevant information.
- Unobtrusive so as not to alter or change client’s behaviours.

160
Q

Naturalist observation can be described by:

A. type of non-systematic observation in which we engage on a daily bases
B. carefully completed in an organized manner and are as free as possible from personal bias
C. assess a well-defined behavior
D. No attempt to manipulate or change natural environment

A

D

Keeping an on-going account of the client’s behaviour through written anecdotal notes o What to look for while completing observations:

1) General appearance
2) Motor activity
3) Interpersonal interaction
4) Body language
- Areas of observation: Personal appearance, posture & movement, manner, facial expressions, general level of activity, intentional activity, cognitive ability, communication.

161
Q

Duration Recording:

A

When you are interested in how long a behavior occurs, you record the amount of time that the client displays the behavior.

162
Q

Interval Recording:

A

Indicates how frequently a behavior is displayed during a specified time interval.

163
Q

Continuous Recording:

A

When the therapist records both the beginning of the behavior and the end of the behavior

164
Q

When the therapist recorded both the beginning of the behavior and the end of the behavior it is called

A. interval recording
B. Anecdotal records
C. interview
D.continuous recording

A

D

165
Q

What indicates how frequently a behavior is displayed during a specified time interval?

A. interval recording
B. Anecdotal records
C. interview
D.continuous recording

A

A

166
Q

When you are interested in how long a behavior picks, you record the amount of time that the client displays the behavior

A. interval recording
B. Anecdotal records
C. Duration recording
D.continuous recording

A

C

167
Q

What can provide factual description if actual behavior in natural situations are a significant indicator of total behaviors?

A. duration recording
B. continuous recording
C. interview techniques
D. anecdotal records

A

D

• Allows recording in non-standardized form
• Issues:
-Can be time consuming
-Hard to be objective
-Difficulty in deciding level of detail to record
• Techniques:
-Determine in advance what to observe 
-Develop procedures for coding
-Train observers
168
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of an interview?

a. opportunity to gain information from the client and to observe the client
B. begin to develop a relationship, or gain rapport with the client
C. orientation to the program or programs available to the client
D. all of the above

A

D

  • Areas for information seeking during interviews:
    1. Readiness for treatment
    2. Degree of rationality
    3. Relationship with others
    4. Resources for support
    5. Leisure related problems
    6. Leisure values
    7. Awareness of leisure
    8. Basic skills needed to develop leisure skills
    9. Leisure history
    10. Appearance
    11. Other problem areas
169
Q

Which of the following is a true interview technique?

A. know the basics about the individual before the interview
B. conduct interview a public place
C. introducing self
D. all of the above

A

c

  • Need to be consistent
  • Conduct interview in a quiet, private and comfortable environment
  • Introduce self
  • Introduce therapeutic recreation services
  • Establish rapport
  • Determine strengths and weaknesses
  • Close interview
170
Q

Mood can be described as:

A. inconsistant
B. a personal emotional state
C. the outward expression of the emotional state
D. how a person feels

A

B

Affect = the outward expression of the emotional state

171
Q

A broad affect facial expression can be described as

A. none
B. wide range
C. little, very slow
D. one type

A

B

  • Flat affect = none
  • Broad affect = wide range
  • Blunted = little, very slow
  • Inappropriate = range, but inconsistent and inappropriate
  • Restricted= one type
172
Q

Which of the following is not a principle of client documentation?

A. Consistency and accuracy of information
B. Conciseness in client documentation
C. Document connections between program goal, client goals, and client program involvement and client outcomes
D. Clarity in client documentation

A

C

1.) Consistency and Accuracy of Information – must be accurate, objective and consistent
• Objectivity: only info that is factual and objective.
• Accuracy: needed in correct spelling, grammar and punctuation
• Behavioural Language: focus on clients behaviour, descriptive action words and meaningful
language
• Consistency in Information: client to client, and between clients and specialists

173
Q

An example of a source oriented medical record (SOMR):

A. Narrative format
B. SOAP note
C. DARP
D. charting by exception

A

A

  • Each professional group or source typically keeps data separate from the other professional groups or sources
  • The plus Side = easier for each discipline to record all data in one place
174
Q

which of the following is true about a narrative note?

A. daily progress note in patients chart
B. is a comprehensive evaluation
C. Places data in too many locations making it fragmented and cumbersome to retrieve data and more difficult for a team approach
D. problem oriented medical record (POMR)

A

C

-Separates recordings according to discipline
-Unstructured
• The following need to be included:
a) Change in patients condition
b) Patients response to treatment or medication
c) Lack of a change in condition
d) Patient or family members response to teaching

175
Q

a problem oriented medical record (POMR) can be described as

A.method for organizing information in the narrative portion of the clients record to include data, action and response for each concern
B. daily progress report in the patients chart
c. unstructured
D. organized around client problems rather than source of data

A

D
Is a comprehensive evaluation
• Five parts:
1) Data base: data collected during assessment
2) Problem list: analysis of data base establishes a problem list, in numbered order with date.
3) Initial plan: outlines an approach to be used to meet each of the identified problems.
4) Progress notes: record the results of interventions/client progress. Using SOAP, SOAPIE or SOAPIER forms
5) Discharge summary: noting problems and resolutions

176
Q

example of a problem oriented medical record

A. charting by exception CBE)
B. SOAP note
C. narrative note
D. DARP

A

B

Should express:
o Any changes in the patient’s symptoms and complaints?
o Current physical findings? Any changes?
o New developments
o Current formulation and plan for the patient

177
Q

A patient’s response to interventions is documented in what part of the SOAPIER note?

A. assessment
B. interventions
C. revision
D. evaluation

A

D

  • Interventions: specific intervention implemented
  • Evaluation: Patient’s response to interventions
  • Revision: changes made from the original treatment plan
178
Q

What is an example of focus charting?

A. charting by exception CBE)
B. SOAP note
C. narrative note
D. DARP

A

D

Method for organizing information in the narrative portion of the client’s record to include data, action and response for each identifies concern.

179
Q

A CTRS is writing a DARP note what part of the note is she referring to when she says, ““TR gave in depth recreation assessment; prescribed 4 groups/ week to focus on self-disclosure and listening skills”

A. Data
B. assessment
C. plan
D. action

A

d

  1. Data – subjective and/or objective information supporting the stated focus or describing observations at the time of significant events
  2. Action – a description of the actions taken by the therapist in the form of interventions or programs
  3. Response – a description of the client’s response to the interventions, activities, or situation. It can include a statement that treatment plan goals have been attained. Client outcomes are included in this section
  4. Plan – next interventions to be implemented
180
Q

A CTRS is writing a DARP note what part of the note is she referring to when she writes, “Pt. willingly attended and participated in this morning’s assertiveness group. Pt. initiated self-disclosure 2x and successfully completed 2 listening exercises with peers. Pt. expressed desire to ‘try this”

A. Data
B. response
C. plan
D. action

A

B
DARP Example
D: 44 year old female has not participated in scheduled groups nor spoken to peers for the last five days, since leaving the closed psychiatric unit
A: TR gave in depth recreation assessment; prescribed 4 groups/week to focus on self-disclosure and listening skills.
R: Pt. willingly attended and participated in this morning’s assertiveness group. Pt. initiated self-disclosure 2x and successfully completed 2 listening exercises with peers. Pt. expressed desire to ‘try this again”
P: Compliment pt. each time she appropriately self-discloses. Encourage pt. to comply with 4 therapeutic recreation tx. Groups/wk.

181
Q

The purpose is to make trends in patient status more obvious, reduce the amount of time spent in documentation, and making current information about patients status readily available. What type of documentation is this?

A. charting by exception (CBE)
B. SOAP note
C. problem orientated note
D. source orientated note

A

A

Only findings that are significant, abnormal or that deviate from professional standards or protocols are recorded.

182
Q

A CTRS who is using charting by exception in documentation she is likely to use component?

A. problem-intervention evaluation (PIE)
B. outcomes
C. SOAP(IER) progress note
D. FACT

A

C

Contains several components:
o Flow sheets
o Documentation referencing standards o Protocols and incidental orders
o A database
o Diagnosis-based care plan
o SOAP (IER) progress notes
183
Q

Recreation Activities

A. Activities in which one engages freely and from which satisfaction is derived
B. Form of organized activity that is freely chose and has the potential of many desirable outcomes
C.Time, activity, state of mind, symbol of social status and holistic effect
D.none of the above

A

B

Form of organized activity that is freely chose and has the potential of many desirable outcomes

Recreation is an activity that people engage in during their free time, that people enjoy, and that people recognize as having socially redeeming values. The activity performed is less important than the reason for performing the activity, which is the outcome.

184
Q

Leisure Activities

A. Activities in which one engages freely and from which satisfaction is derived
B. Form of organized activity that is freely chose and has the potential of many desirable outcomes
C.Time, activity, state of mind, symbol of social status and holistic effect
D.none of the above

A

c
Time, activity, state of mind, symbol of social status and holistic effect

Leisure is a set of activities that people engage in during their free time-activities that are not work oriented or that do not invovle life maintenance tasks such as housecleaning or sleeping.

185
Q

Play Activities:

A. Activities in which one engages freely and from which satisfaction is derived
B. Form of organized activity that is freely chose and has the potential of many desirable outcomes
C.Time, activity, state of mind, symbol of social status and holistic effect
D.none of the above

A

A

Activities in which one engages freely and from which satisfaction is derived

Play is imaginative, intrinsically motivated, nonserious, freely chosen and actively engaging. Play is typified by spontaneity, joyfulness and inhibition and is done not as a means to an end but for its inherent pleasure.

186
Q

The CTRS does a comprehensive program plan (CPP) what is one of the befits to this?

A. determination of the client
B. Accountability
C. enabling objectives
D. performance measures

A
B
Benefits of a CPP:
• Stability
• Flexibility
• Accountability
• Complement other disciplines
187
Q

Individual Intervention Plan:

A

• Programs that focus on achievement of individualized outcomes and benefits
• Titles found in practice settings much include:
o care plans, treatment plans, specific program plans, individual education plans or individual rehabilitation plans

188
Q

Which program plan is used to write specific guidelines for the delivery of specific programs and services including aquatic therapy, pet therapy and leisure education?

A. individual intervention plan
B. specific program plan
C. comprehensive program plan
D. activity selection factors

A

B

Specific Program Plan (SPP):
• the operational units that put the comprehensive goals and purpose into motion
• agency or unit goals → operational programs
• derived from the operational plan (See section III-B)
• guide the design of individual participant interventions
• written guidelines for the delivery of specific programs and services
-including: aquatic therapy, pet therapy, leisure education

189
Q

Which of the following is not a factor to activity selection?

A. number of clients
B. age/ age appropriateness
C. staff skills
D. a unique opportunity

A
D
Activity Selection Factors:
• Age/age appropriateness
• Number of clients
• Staff/client ratio
• Budget/facilities available
• Staff skills
• Etc.
190
Q

A CTRS should perform an activity analysis by analyzing which of the following?

A. without regard for specific disability group
B. activity as normally or traditionally engaged in
C. for minimal level of skills required for basic, successful participation
D. all of the above

A

D

Activity Analysis Principles:
• Analyze - activity as normally or traditionally engaged in
• Rate - activity as compared with other activities
• Analyze – without regard for specific disability group
• Analyze – for minimal level of skills required for basic, successful participation

191
Q

What social pattern is a client demonstrating during a meditation intervention?

A. intra group
B. extra-individual
C. unilateral
D. intra individual

A

D

Action taking place within the mind or an action involving the mind and a part of the both, but not requiring contact with another person or external object.
1. i.e. daydreaming, meditating, etc.

192
Q

There is a movie planned for cinema therapy in the gym what social pattern is demonstrated by an individual during a movie?

A. intra group
B. extra-individual
C. unilateral
D. intra individual

A

B

Extra-individual: action directed by a person toward an object in the environment,
requiring no contact with another person.
1. i.e. reading, watching TV, crafts, computer games, etc.

193
Q

A CTRS has a craft planned for her facilitation what social pattern is demonstrated during a craft?

A. intra group
B. extra-individual
C. unilateral
D. aggregate

A

D

Aggregate: an action directed by a person toward an object in the environment while in the company of other people who are also directing action toward objects in the environment. No action between participants in necessary.
1. i.e. crafts, hobby groups, bingo, etc.

194
Q

Two patients decided to play chess during their free time. What social pattern is being demonstrated?

A. intra group
B. extra-individual
C. unilateral
D. inter-individual

A

D

Inter-individual: action of a competitive nature directed by one person toward another
1. i.e. Chess, checkers, honeymoon bridge, singles tennis, etc.

195
Q

A CTRS has a group of pediatric kids in a behavioral hospital play the game sharks and minos. what social pattern is being demonstrated?

A. intra group
B. extra-individual
C. unilateral
D. inter-individual

A

C

Unilateral: action of a competitive nature among three or more persons, one of whom is an antagonist or “it”.
1. i.e. tag, hide and go seek, etc.

196
Q

A group of adolescents are playing monopoly. What social pattern is demonstrated during monopoly?

A. intra group
B. multilateral
C. unilateral
D. inter-individual

A

B

Multilateral: action of competitive nature among three or more persons with no one
people as an antagonist.
1. i.e. scrabble, poker, monopoly, etc.

197
Q

The CTRS encourages a group of adolescents to join their school play. What social patten is demonstrated in a perforce like that?

A. intra group
B. multilateral
C. unilateral
D. inter-individual

A

A

Intragroup: action of cooperative nature by two or more persons intent upon reaching a mutual goal. Action requires positive verbal and nonverbal interaction
1. i.e. musical groups, dramatic plays, service projects, etc.

198
Q

The CTRS teaches kick ball to a group of adolescents. What social pattern is demonstrated during the game of kickball?

A. intra group
B. intergroup
C. unilateral
D. inter-individual

A

B

Intergroup: Action of a competitive nature between two or more intra groups
• I.e. softball, doubles tennis, bridge, etc

199
Q

which of the following is NOT describing a task analysis?

A. breaks down the skills needed to to determine behavioral requirements inherent for successful participation
B. Takes tasks and breaks it down step by step into small steps, explaining each single part of the activity.
C. Elements include chaining, shaping and partial participation
D. Takes place during the activity or behavior

A

A

An activity analysis breaks down the skills needed to to determine behavioral requirements inherent for successful participation

A task analysis : Braking down an event or larger behavior into small, discrete, and specific sub-behaviors that are to be performed in a particular order

200
Q

Re motivation is primarily used for which population?

A. pediatric
B. physical rehabilitation
C. Id/Idd
D. long-term care

A

d
-Primarily for long term psychiatric, confused elderly in long care.
• Stimulates healthy personality development by focusing interaction around topics and interests
that motivate the client to re-establish contact with the real world.
• Since people who are regressed, withdrawn, confused, or who have sustained a brain injury tend
to focus on personal conditions, diverting attention from the illness to positive discussions of sports, hobbies, or current events increases self-respect, alleviates boredom, and stimulates social and cognitive functions.
• Remotivation is more commonly used in geriatric settings than in mental health and physical medicine and rehabilitation
• Four Step Program: a group process promoting the discussion of topics using picture, papers, magazines that relate to the real world, renewed interest in the environment & avoidance of stressful & emotional issues.
1) Climate of acceptance
2) Bridge to reality
3) Sharing the world
4) Appreciation of the world we live in

201
Q

When can a CTRS process the facilitation with the clients?

A. at the beginning
B. middle
C. end of session
D. all of the above

A

D

• Verbal discussions of client behaviours, thoughts, feelings, etc.
• Helps clients become aware of their behaviours while contributing activity to the clients learning,
adaptation and growth
• Helps the client generalize what was done in the activity to life and is essential to the appropriate
and effective use of activities to facilitate change in clients
• Can occur beginning, middle or end of session

202
Q

As a child the patient had been sexually abused and never processed the trauma of that abuse. To this day the abuse has left a lasting mark on their adult personality. Which personality development approach does this relate to most?

A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. none of the above

A

A

Emphasis on fixation or progress the psycho-sexual stages; experiences in early childhood leave a lasting mark on adult personality.

203
Q

A CTRS suggest Assertiveness training, progressive relaxation training and social skills training to reinforce a positive gradually evolving personality as related to which personality development approach?

A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. cognitive behavioral therapy

A

B

• Personality evolves gradually over life-span, not in stages. Responses followed by reinforcement become more frequent.
• Three therapeutic approaches, which have come to be viewed as entities unto themselves, are related to the behavioral approach:
1. Assertiveness training
2. Progressive relaxation training
3. Social skills training

204
Q

A patient who has received unconditional love is thought to be less defensive because they have developed a more accurate congruent self-concept is based off of which approach to personality development?

A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. cognitive behavioral therapy

A

C

• Children who receive unconditional love have less need to be defensive; they develop more accurate congruent self-concepts.

205
Q

The psycho-sexual stages and experiences in early childhood leave a lasting mark on adult personality. Which approach to personality development does this relate to the most?

A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. cognitive behavioral

A

A

Emphasis on fixation or progress the psycho-sexual stages; experiences in early childhood leave a lasting mark on adult personality.