NCT4 Flashcards

1
Q

A frequency selective receiver capable of tuning in a desired frequency/Channel with a display showing RF signal strength (dBmV)

A

Signal Level Meter (SLM)

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2
Q

The minimum signal level at the input to the customers TV is

A

0dBmV to 15dBmV

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3
Q

what do you need to do to maintain an SLM

A

Keep the battery charged, clean the battery terminals regularly,keep the SLM clean by wiping it gently:dry the display screen to prevent spots, do not use any type of polish or cleaner on the display ,and a regular calibration should be made and logged,

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4
Q

The ratio of error power to average power in an ideal QAM signal is

A

MER

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5
Q

Average power =

A

Digital power

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6
Q

Peak Power=

A

Analog power

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7
Q

Optical power units

A

mW or dBm

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8
Q

RF power units

A

mV or dBmV

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9
Q

Attenuation/ gain units

A

dB

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10
Q

what mode monitors up to 12 chs at a time on your meter

A

Miniscan

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11
Q

what mode monitors the entire Ch plan on your meter

A

Full scan

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12
Q

what mode check s the forward low frequency and high frequency channel tilt

A

Tilt mode

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13
Q

Detects errored bits in the system

A

Bit error Rate (BER)

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14
Q

used for troubleshooting connections with intermittent bit errors occuring over a period of time

A

Errored Seconds

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15
Q

passage of an outside signal into the cable; can result in noise and disruption of the desired signal

A

Ingress

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16
Q

shows impairments on the networks with the patterns on display and can be identified by figuring out the patters

A

Constellation Graph

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17
Q

Displays intermittent short duration impairments missed by MER and BER on your meter.

A

Digital quality index (DQI) mode

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18
Q

this mode shows you if ingress is within the downstream digital spectrum without turning of service

A

QAM ingress mode

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19
Q

This mode greatly improves the success rate and efficiency in locating return-path ingress

A

Fieldview Option

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20
Q

Service quality depends on transmitting signals with the highest carrier to composite noise and the lowest intermodulation distortion. The majority of all transmission errors can be detected by measuring the frequency response of the network is

A

Sweep

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21
Q

Provides a quick method to check cable system integrity, using active channels to sweep the forward path is

A

Sweepless Sweep

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22
Q

Using a unique method to accurately reveal any problem in the system without interfering with any of the analog/ Digital carriers is

A

Forward Sweep

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23
Q

Helps find mismatches or other problems in the upstream transmission path

A

Reverse Sweep

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24
Q

Accurately measures Ac voltages of signals other than pure analog sine waves

A

Root Mean Square Meter (RMS)

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25
Q

This meter is used to measure AC and DC voltages and currents as well as resistance and has a digital display

A

Digital Multi meter (DMM)

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26
Q

is used to find the location/path of underground cables

A

Cable locator

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27
Q

has a transmitter and receiver. it could include the following components a test lead, inductive frame and A-frame.

A

A locator

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28
Q

The resistance of a circuit to alternating current.

A

Impedance

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29
Q

The condition that results when two components of a system are operating at different impedance

A

Impedance Mismatch

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30
Q

is used to determine the distance of a known fault from a specific location

A

Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)

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31
Q

Is used to locate: bad or unknown splices, opens, shorts, and kinked cable.

A

TDR

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32
Q

A reflection with the same polarity indicates an

A

open

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33
Q

is a situation where the center conductor comes in contact with the shield

A

Dead Short

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34
Q

A reflection with the opposite polarity indicates that the fault is

A

Short

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35
Q

refer to a cable that has not been competely cut

A

Partial Open

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36
Q

The contact between the center conductor and the shield is not complete

A

Partial Short

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37
Q

The distance that cannot be seen by the TDR because its too close to the TDR source

A

Deadzone

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38
Q

two types of TDRs

A

Waveform and Digital

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39
Q

extremely thin flexible thread of pure cladded glass able to carry millions of times the information of a traditional copper wire and do it over greater distances

A

Optical Fiber

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40
Q

A device that generates a light source used in fiber communication

A

Laser

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41
Q

LASER

A

Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission Radiation

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42
Q

Most light generated by lasers for telecomm use exists in the infrared band of 1310nm and 1550nm wavelengths

A

Infrared Light

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43
Q

the distance between two points of like phase in a wave

A

Wavelength

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44
Q

A card made up of material similar to photographic film that changes colors when exposed to light

A

Photosensitive Card

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45
Q

Laser Classification

A

Class1-safe as long as they are not disassembled.; Class-2/2A Eye hazard if beam is viewed.;Class-3A Eye hazard if collected or focused on the eye.; Class3B Eye hazard if the direct or reflected beam is viewed.; Class4 eye and skin hazard.

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46
Q

what is the laser standard

A

ANSI Z-136

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47
Q

A method to lock and mark one end of a line in order to allow someone to safely work on the other end

A

Lockout Tag-out

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48
Q

what are the two methods of fiber cleaning

A

Wet and Dry

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49
Q

Materials needed for wet method

A

Lint free wipes, Isopropyl(better than 90%) as recommended by the manufacturer, and lint free swabs or urethane foam heads

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50
Q

rotate a cleaning cloth over the end of a fiber connector by pushing down toward the connector

A

Push Pen

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51
Q

A battery or generator that provides electrical power to the circuit. For example, batteries and generators

A

Power Source

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52
Q

A conductor such as copper wire

A

Path

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53
Q

the device that uses the electricity. it is any device that draws current

A

Load

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54
Q

Substance that allows heat or electricity to pass along or through it

A

Conductor

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55
Q

Subatomic particles found in atoms that balance out the positive charge of a proton with their negative charge

A

Electrons

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56
Q

is the electromotive force that causes electrons to flow in a circuit

A

Voltage (E)

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57
Q

The pressure that causes electrons to flow in a circuit

A

Electromotive Force

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58
Q

is the flow of electrons through a conductor. is measured in amperes and is designated mathematically in ohms law as the letter I

A

Current (I)

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59
Q

The amount of electrons that pass a given point in the conductor in one second

A

Coulomb

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60
Q

is the opposition a material offers offers to the flow of current

A

Resistance (R)

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61
Q

the difference in voltage between one point and another

A

Potential Difference

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62
Q

the direction of an electrical field in a radiated wave

A

Polarity

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63
Q

An electrical current of which the polarity is periodically reversed.

A

Alternating Current (AC)

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64
Q

the point at which the filament reaches a temperature that causes it to glow

A

incandescence

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65
Q

the relationship between current or voltage and elapsed time

A

AC Waveform

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66
Q

what are the 4 types of AC Waveforms

A

Sine Wave, Square Wave, Quasi-square wave, and Sawtooth Wave

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67
Q

this waveform represents the characteristics of the voltage/current that feeds homes, powers power supplies, and the television channels that carry the program information to your customers homes

A

Sine Wave

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68
Q

This waveform is often found within the switching regular DC output power supplies in Amplifiers

A

Square Wave

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69
Q

A CATV power supply without a load produces a near square wave that combines a non linear increase and decrease of voltage or current with extended maximum positive and negative peak value.

A

Quasi Square Wave

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70
Q

Types of signals carried on the HFC system

A

Modulated RF carriers, Modulated analog carriers, DC power and AC power

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71
Q

one complete sine wave is

A

Cycle

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72
Q

Number of cycles of an AC waveform that occur in one second

A

frequency

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73
Q

the speed of the light/Frequency=

A

Wavelength

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74
Q

the amount of time it takes a waveform to complete one cycle

A

Period(T)

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75
Q

peak value of a waveform

A

Amplitude

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76
Q

states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance

A

Ohms Law

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77
Q

R=

A

The resistance in ohms

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78
Q

E=

A

the Electromotive force(EMF) in volts

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79
Q

the rate a which work is done or the rate at which energy is used

A

Power

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80
Q

I=

A

current in Amperes

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81
Q

Resistance is measured between the center conductor and sheath with the other end

A

DC Loop Resistance

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82
Q

P=

A

WAtts

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83
Q

Current at any point in the line in the HFC plant is equal to the sum of the individual Ampere current draws of the active devices being fed from that point.

A

AC Current in the Broadband Network

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84
Q

the amount of voltage loss over the span is referred to as

A

Voltage drop

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85
Q

At lower voltages the current is higher in the HFC plant

A

Current at lower voltages

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86
Q

the amount of energy available to move a certain number of electrons from one point to another in an electrical circuit

A

Voltage

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87
Q

to be subjected to the action of an electrical discharge

A

Shock

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88
Q

to kill by electrical shock

A

Electrocute

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89
Q

a connection to the earth or a grounding device

A

Ground

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90
Q

power supplies reduce the secondary power (120 or 240) to the 60 or 90VAC for insertion in the cable

A

Line power supply

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91
Q

the electricity provided by the local power company

A

commercial power

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92
Q

2 types of line power supplies

A

standby and non standby

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93
Q

reduction of voltage by a transformer

A

stepped down

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94
Q

conversion of voltage, in this case from 36 or 38VDC to 60 or 90VAC

A

Inverted

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95
Q

the point where AC power from the power supply is placed on the coax portion of the distribution network.

A

Power inserter

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96
Q

a filter that will only allow the higher RF frequency signals to pass directly from RF port to port

A

high pass filter (relating to power inserter)

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97
Q

a filter present on each leg to direct the flow of the lower frequency AC power, which prevents the RF Signal from traveling into the power supply and causing signal leakage

A

Low Pass filter(Relating to power Inserter)

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98
Q

the two types of network powering

A

Distributed and centralized powering

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99
Q

batteries produce what kind of gas during charging operations

A

Hydrogen

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100
Q

three methods for testing batteries

A

battery load test, battery voltage test, battery conductance test

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101
Q

the most accurate and reliable test involves testing the batteries under a load condition

A

Load Test

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102
Q

the difference between any batteries in the set should not be greater than

A

0.3VDC

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103
Q

measuring the impedance of the battery with a conductance meter and documenting that value when its new. Batteries less than 50% of their as new conductance values are known to be bad

A

Battery conductance test

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104
Q

means of testing the network remotely that saves numerous problems in respect to downtime and customer dissatisfaction

A

status monitoring

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105
Q

according to manufacturers the terminals should be torqued to_____and then retorqued to _____ during routine maintenance.

A

75inch lbs and 60 inch lbs

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106
Q

what points should be kept in mind while checking battery terminals

A

is there an in line fuse in the battery cable, check the fuse holder and fuse. make sure the terminals are properly greased with an approved corrosion inhibitor such as NCP-2 or NO-OX

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107
Q

the topology where signals originate in the headend and are transmitted long distances via trunk cables which have branches for directing the signal to customers

A

Tree and Branch

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108
Q

Forward signals originate at the headend are transmitted downstream by way of the trunk to the ends of the service.

A

Transportation (Trunk)

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109
Q

In a Tree and Branch system the feeder is considered what

A

The distribution System (Branches)

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110
Q

in a tree and branch system RG-6 and 11 is considered

A

The Drop(Leaves)

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111
Q

A network architecture developed by the cable industry which typically uses fiber optic cables to bring signals to selected areas of the system called Node Service Area, which are usually based on the number of subscribers to be served

A

Hybrid Fiber Coax(HFC)

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112
Q

what are the two wavelengths of fiber do we use

A

1310 nm and 1550nm

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113
Q

a network architecture where nodes, hubs, or headends may be connected with fiber optic cables to provide redundancy or increase services.

A

Ring

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114
Q

What are the advantages of fiber

A

Greater Bandwith and can travel greater distances without Amplification

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115
Q

what are the two types of Fiber

A

Single mode and Multi mode(we use single mode)

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116
Q

what is the attenuation of single mode fiber

A

1310nm=.35dB/km, 1550=.25dB/km

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117
Q

the distance between two points of like phase in a wave

A

wavelength

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118
Q

compares the speed of light through a material to the speed of light through a vacuum

A

Index of Refraction

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119
Q

the reflection that occurs when light strikes an interface at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle allowing it to be continually reflected from the interface between two materials with different refractive indices

A

Total Internal Reflection

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120
Q

Single mode core is how many microns

A

8 to 9 microns

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121
Q

single mode cladding is how many microns

A

125 microns

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122
Q

single mode coating is how many microns

A

250 microns

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123
Q

what is the primary loss in fiber called

A

Scattering

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124
Q

separates(and recombines) the forward and reverse signals from the coax cable so they can be routed to and from the appropriate components within the amplifier station

A

Diplex filter

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125
Q

separates or combines the AC currents two parts-( AC power and RF broadband signals)

A

Power Diplex

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126
Q

attenuates the signal in order to bring it to within the acceptable range of the amplifier

A

Pad

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127
Q

compensates for the unequal attenuation properties of the coaxial cable. usually selected to produce flat broadband signals to the input of the first stage of Amplification

A

Equalizer

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128
Q

Usually selected for low noise figure. Amplifies forward signal passing through the trunk and distribution lines

A

Forward Amplifier Module (TRUNK)

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129
Q

Used to compensate for fluctuations of the input signal

A

AGC

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130
Q

Similiar to an AGC maintains the proper tilt(caused by temperature change in a specified amount of coaxial cable) and output level despite changes in the input signals

A

ALS

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131
Q

Signal splitting device that plugs into a trunk/bridger chassis

A

directional plug ins (feedermaker)

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132
Q

Converts AC power(60V-90V Quasi Square wave) to DC power(typically 24VDC)needed to operate the stations modules and regulates the DC output voltages to provide a stable and constant output

A

DC Power Pack

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133
Q

used to direct AC power into and out of specific ports of the amplifier station

A

Power Director

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134
Q

provides a means of monitoring the various inputs and outputs without interrupting service

A

Test Points (TP)

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135
Q

will have substantial isolation between the output and tap ports if all ports see a good 75 ohm match. Isolation for signal paths between the tap and output port is usually 25dB or greater

A

Directional Coupler (DC)

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136
Q

A tap is used to extract a specific amount of signal from the feeder system and distribute it for connection of customer drops and contains a directional coupler that feeds a single splitter.

A

Taps (Customer interface point)

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137
Q

Low frequency signals are not attenuated as much as high frequency signals in a coaxial cable

A

In line Equalizers

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138
Q

LIke in line EQs these devices are sometimes installed in the distribution cable where low value taps are used

A

in line conditioners

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139
Q

in a housing like the splitter is used to introduce AC power into the network

A

Power Inserter

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140
Q

A design philosophy where the loss of the cable and other passive devices before an amplifier station

A

Unity Gain

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141
Q

similar to a street map and includes features like lakes and rivers, streets, and boundaries

A

Base Map

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142
Q

Displays streets with poles and pedestals locations and includes the span length or footage between these items

A

Strand Map

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143
Q

Shows the locations of electronic equipment. including headend and any hubs,amplifiers, power, supplies, and taps.

A

Design Map

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144
Q

Offer the layout of the system in a condensed form. shows how active devices are cascaded and how they are connected to the headend, hub, or node. power supplies are also noted

A

Amplifier schematics or Tree Map

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145
Q

A corrected map that represent the addition or changes in information on the design map

A

As Built map

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146
Q

Map that covers a single node

A

HFC Plant map

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147
Q

documents a fiber plant

A

fiber design map

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148
Q

catalogs the system maps

A

Map Grid System

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149
Q

is the measure of the cables ability to maintain impedance at all frequencies due to the many micro reflections introduced during manufacturing. The industry Specs call for a minimum of 15dB, but the higher the better

A

Structural Return Loss (SRL)

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150
Q

What do reflections do on a coaxial cable

A

They distort the carriers, causing bit errors in the modulated data streams.

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151
Q

a thin wire wrapped around the fiber and coaxial cables to secure them to the strand

A

Lashing wire

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152
Q

load bearing component of an aerial coaxial cable installation. Its usually a 1/4 or3/8 inch zinc coated steel wire to which the cable is lashed

A

Strand

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153
Q

A loop intentionally formed in the cable to compensate for the expansion and contraction caused by temperature changes

A

Expansion Loop

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154
Q

used to counteract the horizontal component of forces placed on poles by the strand and cable

A

Guy and Anchor

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155
Q

Strand that connects the pole line hardware to anchor

A

Guy

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156
Q

Buried metal device used to transfer force from the pole to ground

A

Anchor

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157
Q

strand that connects the pole line hardware, particularly the guy attachment hardware to the anchor.

A

Guy Wires

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158
Q

is a yellow plastic cover used to protect the guy wire and make it more visible

A

Guy Wire Guard

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159
Q

Different types of Guys

A

Down Guy, Head Guy, Terminal Guy, Side Guy, Pole to stub guy, pole to pole guy, sidewalk guy, and storm guy

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160
Q

Different types of anchors

A

screw anchor, never creep anchor, rock anchor, anchor rods(AKA Guy rods)

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161
Q

the device usually a screw used to connect the coax’s center conductor to an active or passive device

A

Seizure Mechanism

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162
Q

is used to remove the outer jacket of a typical underground cable

A

stripping tool

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163
Q

may remove the jacket, but primarily removes the outer sheath and dielectric within the cable

A

Coring Tool

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164
Q

having a saw toothed edge or margin notched with tooth like projections

A

Serrated

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165
Q

these tools are specifically designed to cut coaxial cables

A

banana cutters

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166
Q

what are the two steps in building the aerial portion of the network

A

the strand system must be built and properly tensioned and the cable must be lashed onto the strand.

167
Q

to wrap a thin wire around the cable in order to secure it to the strand.

A

Lashed

168
Q

this device is selectively placed at pole hardware locations to prevent dangerous sag while strand is being installed

A

Strand Brake

169
Q

used in conjunction with a lay up stick to lift cable blocks and strand

A

Wire raising tool

170
Q

used to prevent unwanted payoff of strand from the cable trailer or reel stand

A

Reel Brakes

171
Q

are portable bonding connections installed at the location where the strand is spooled from the cable trailer or reel stand. can be removed only after the strand is bonded to the grounding network

A

Traveling grounds

172
Q

two types of strand methods

A

Stationary reel method and Moving reel method

173
Q

installation of pole hardware allowing for hanging of strand

A

Framed

174
Q

the trailer should be at a minimal distance (two times the hardware attachment height) from the pole at which the strand first contacts the pole line hardware

A

Stationary reel method

175
Q

the strand is installed by mounting a reel to a vehicle and driving the vehicle from pole to pole stopping to install the strand and hardware at each location

A

Moving reel method

176
Q

Strand splices should be placed outside the pole framing hardware, but within 18 to 24 inches of the pole . traveling grounds should always be used when placing the strand

A

Stationary reel method

177
Q

uses a mechanical wrenching action to bend expansion loops into coaxial cable prior to lashing or during splicing

A

Mechanical Bender

178
Q

used to measure the pulling tension applied to cables

A

Dynamometer

179
Q

allows cables that are being pulled to swivel and are used to ensure that the cables are not over-tensioned during pulling

A

Breakaway swivel

180
Q

used to support a single lashing may be used when cables are lashed directly to the strand or in overlash applications

A

Single roller Block

181
Q

used to install self support cable and is attached to the pole hardware support the cable as it is pulled out

A

Pole Mount Cable Block

182
Q

used to support a single cable prior to lashing

A

Economy Block

183
Q

This device is used to route cables through inside or outside corners up to 90degrees. it minimizes drag on the cable in corners and ensures that the minimum bend radius of the cable, as specified by the manufacturer is not exceeded

A

90 degree corner block

184
Q

used to route cables through inside or outside corners up to 45degrees. it minimizes drag on the cable in corners and ensures that the minimum bend radius of the cable is not exceeded

A

45 degree corner block

185
Q

used to guide cables from the cable trailer or reel strand to the strand

A

Set up Chute

186
Q

this bracket is used to support 45 and 90 degree corner block or setup chutes at the mid span

A

set up bracket

187
Q

used to lash cable directly to installed strand or cable bundles

A

cable lasher

188
Q

allows multiple cables to be pulled into place when lashing cable directly to strand

A

Multiple cable puller

189
Q

allows multiple cables to be pulled into place in overlash applications

A

Overlash cable puller

190
Q

device is used to push equipment ahead of a pulled lasher

A

Cable block pusher

191
Q

pushed in front of a lasher by a cable block pusher to uniformly position multiple cables that are being lashed

A

Cable positioner (Magic Box)

192
Q

is the tension caused by the mass of cable on the reel and reel brakes.

A

tail loading

193
Q

what two methods control tail loading

A

can be minimized by using minimal braking during the payoff of the cable from the reel. and at times no braking is preferred.

194
Q

If a span is _____ or longer place ____ expansion loops on each pole. one is placed on the input side and one is placed on the output side of the pole

A

250ft and 2

195
Q

is when two perpendicular strands end at the same pole

A

Double dead end

196
Q

the mechanical bender must remain in place until the lasher is transferred and the next span of cable is

A

lashed 50ft or 1/3 the distance to the next pole whichever is greater

197
Q

An expansion loop should be formed on the ___ side of every pole for all sizes of coaxial cable being used

A

Output

198
Q

When the loop location is dictated by the signal flow direction of the feeder cable

A

Feeder Dominant

199
Q

the trailer should be positioned in line with the strand and twice the distance _____

A

of the set up chute to the ground from the chute (Stationary Reel method)

200
Q

The cable should payofff the___

A

Top of the cable reel

201
Q

Use a cable block lifter to place _____ on the strand every 30 to 50ft

A

cable blocks

202
Q

the ends of the cable left at the pole for splicing

A

Cable Tail

203
Q

it is essential that double lashing be used when___

A

two or more cables, all trunk cables, and at street crossings.

204
Q

how many feet do you stop the lasher to form an expansion loop

A

6FT

205
Q

is a connection to earth or a conductor serving earth potential and can be intentional or accidental

A

Ground

206
Q

is the interconnection through good conductors of the cable plant with power and phone systems to eliminate potential voltage differences

A

Bond

207
Q

is a pipe usually made of PVC and used to house cable and protect it from dirt, moisture, and outside forces.

A

conduit

208
Q

is a protective covering for hardline cable, typically made from galvanized steel or plastic over the exposed cable where it makes the transition from aerial to underground.

A

Riser Guard

209
Q

conduit for underground drops must be buried to a minimum depth of

A

8inches

210
Q

installing all underground drops emerging from the ground must have physical protection (cable guard or conduit) to a point at least ________located at the house

A

4ft above ground or until reaching the service enclosure.

211
Q

underground drop cables routed down a pole must have physical protection, cable guard, or conduit, to at least

A

8ft above ground and at least 8inches below ground

212
Q

a high visibility tape usually used when burying fiber optic cable, buried directly above the cable point out the existence of the cable to anyone digging in that location

A

Warning Tape

213
Q

bury warning tape above the cable at a depth of___ during the back fill process

A

12inches

214
Q

Locate the midpoint of the pull. while monitoring pulling tension, pull the cable from the mid point to the end of one direction.(Used for installing long fiber runs)

A

Mid point cable pull

215
Q

what u do with the remaining fiber optic cable

A

figure eighting

216
Q

while doing the figure eights with fiber u set the cones up ____ apart

A

10-15 paces

217
Q

the US government agency established in 1934 to regulate electronic communications

A

Federal Communications Commission(FCC)

218
Q

In 1990, the FCC required that system perform s CLI test ____

A

Annually

219
Q

a figure of merit derived mathematically from the number and severity of signal leaks in a cable system.

A

Cumulative Leakage Index

220
Q

the figure of merit for CLI has to be

A

64 or less

221
Q

your CLI test that you do annually has to be submitted using what form

A

FCC form 320

222
Q

a system in which transported signals are completely contained within the medium is called

A

a closed system

223
Q

Leakage is emitted RF energy and is called

A

Egress

224
Q

Noise is received energy and is called

A

Ingress

225
Q

what % of leakage is found between the tap and bonding block

A

70%

226
Q

LTE

A

Long Term Evolution

227
Q

LTE operates in the ____frequency range

A

700 to800 MHz

228
Q

No more than 15 microvolts per meter @30 meters

A

0-54MHz

229
Q

No more than 15 microvolts per meter @30 meters

A

More than 216MHz

230
Q

No more than 20 microvolts @3 meters

A

54MHz and 216MHz

231
Q

the aeronautical frequencies are

A

108-137MHz

232
Q

two ways to do the CLI test

A

Ground based and flyover

233
Q

Leakage monitoring must be done

A

Quarterly

234
Q

Leakage logs must be kept on file for

A

2yrs

235
Q

Only Leakages___ or greater are included in the CLI calculations

A

50 microvolts

236
Q

CW

A

continuous wave

237
Q

three methods to calibrate your leakage detector

A

Done by the manufacturer, Direct coupling, and Antenna

238
Q

what method do you use to pinpoint a leak

A

Triangulation Method

239
Q

a leakage log should include

A

Date;location;leakage cause;strength;distance to leak; Date;Strength after repair.

240
Q

leaks__ or greater must be logged for regular monitoring

A

20 microvolts

241
Q

the FCC requires that __ of the plant be tested for CLI. The comcast standard is _____

A

75% and 100%

242
Q

The CLI is done at an altitude of ____, using 108 to 137MHz band

A

1500ft(450Meters)

243
Q

Sending AC from two different power supplies, causing a large spark

A

bucking power

244
Q

Comcast troubleshooting steps

A

Identify, Isolate,Fix,Verify

245
Q

a low resistance connection between two points in an electric circuit that forms an alternative path for a portion of the current

A

Shunts

246
Q

Steps for verifying a backwards tap

A

1) the tap plate and re-check the input port. 2)if there is no signal present, check the output port. 3) if signal is present here, the housing is backwards and requires re-splicing.

247
Q

if you encounter a conductor that is 300v or less

A

avoid contact with the conductor

248
Q

if you encounter a conductor that is between 300V and 750V

A

stay at least 12 inches away from this conductor

249
Q

do foreign voltage detectors DC voltage

A

NO

250
Q

Divide and conquer does what

A

reduces repair time.

251
Q

the reverse path must be balanced for___ just as the with the forward system

A

unity gain

252
Q

threshold for ingress at 5-18mhz

A

-20dBc (Decibels relative to carrier)

253
Q

threshold for ingress at 18-42mhz

A

-35dBc (Decibels relative to carrier)

254
Q

Max min sweep formula

A

N/2+1.5=

255
Q

telemetry reverse sweep formula

A

N/2+1=

256
Q

is defined as two or more customers without service or with impaired service, due to the same root cause

A

outage

257
Q

is a plant fault with overlapping correlated trouble call

A

priority plant fault

258
Q

is a signals inability to be transmitted from one cable or device to another cable or device and measured in dB

A

Isolation

259
Q

is the difference in dB, of a signal level, injected into one output port, and the measured level of the same signal on another output port with the input port properly terminated

A

port to port isolation

260
Q

is the interface location in a cable system where a fiber enters a neighborhood and the optical signal is converted into an electrical signal to connect to coaxial cables serving individual homes.

A

Node

261
Q

a node has a minimum of

A

One optical receiver, one optical transmitter, power supply, and a forward and return amplifier module

262
Q

is an amplifier used to transport signals to longer distances

A

trunk amplifier

263
Q

used to add to the strength of signals in order to compensate for higher loss of the feeder and to provide enough signals for the drop cables and for multiple customers

A

Bridger amplifiers

264
Q

are high gain amplifiers and are operated so that the output levels are higher as well

A

Line extenders

265
Q

samples the stations output level using the directional coupler 15 usually at a specific frequency or channel. used to compensate for fluctuations of the input

A

Automatic gain control

266
Q

recovers the RF information modulated onto the optical carrier at the headend

A

Optical detector

267
Q

refers to the percentage of optical modulation, per channel, driving a laser transmitter

A

Optical modulation Index(OMI)

268
Q

for every db change in optical power there is a 2db change in RF

A

know that rule

269
Q

to energize or power the equipment( nodes amplifiers and other active devices in the rf portion of the network). usually includes checks for continuity, shorts, and signal flow.

A

activation

270
Q

whatever tilt u need multiply by 1.25 to get desired eq

A

know this rule

271
Q

has attenuation that duplicates that of a cable.

A

Cable Equivalency (Cable simulator)

272
Q

used for the first stage of amplification for a trunk or multi output station, picked for its low noise figure

A

integrated circuit (IC)

273
Q

this device monitors the change in temperature and makes an attenuation and tilt change based on typical cable spacing between stations

A

thermal level control

274
Q

this is usually a power double device

A

second stage gain

275
Q

is used to compensate for frequency response signatures of passive and active devices in the system,

A

Response network/Mop up

276
Q

circuitry used to adjust the frequency of an amplifier

A

response network

277
Q

usually a passive network placed between the input and output amplifier module. it is used to correct fro a frequency response problem seen at the output of the amplifier

A

mop up

278
Q

the deviation in response at the output of an amplifier or passive device when compared to the response st its input.

A

signatures

279
Q

used to set the amplifiers output tilt.

A

interstage Equalizer

280
Q

a measure of an amplifiers output level to the level of distortion it produces

A

output capability

281
Q

is used to inject return test signals for alignment/sweep of the return portion of the amplifier

A

Insertion point

282
Q

Reverse pad=amplifier upstream design gain-total span loss

A

know this rule

283
Q

have forward and return on the same test point

A

bi directional test points

284
Q

RF portion of the cable plant fed from a node

A

Node service area

285
Q

we can utilize a 3% ____ without excessive distortion with a carriage of 100 channels

A

OMI

286
Q

is the actual seep response before normalization

A

raw sweep

287
Q

is the exponent or the power to which a fixed number(the base) must be raised in order to produce a given number

A

logarithm

288
Q

the number of times the base is multiplied by itself

A

exponent

289
Q

1)any number raised to the exponent 0 is equal to 1.2)any number raised to the exponent 1 is equal to itself. 3) two multiply two or more numbers with the same base, simply add the exponents. 4) to divide two or more numbers with the same base simply subtract the exponents.

A

Exponent rules

290
Q

is a number where the base is 10

A

power of 10

291
Q

one tenth of a bel=

A

Decibel

292
Q

is the unit for expressing in logarithmic terms, the ratio between two power levels

A

Bel

293
Q

with the 10 log function each double in value is equal to 3.01db increase, while -3.01 divides the value in half

A

know this rule

294
Q

an absolute level that describes the amount of signal at a specific location in the system.

A

dBmV

295
Q

10log=

A

wattage

296
Q

20 log=

A

voltages

297
Q

0dBmV=

A

1mV

298
Q

each 6dB change either doubles or halves the voltage, and each 20dB change affects the voltage by a factor of ten

A

know this rule

299
Q

a discontinuous signal whose various states are discrete intervals apart

A

digital signal

300
Q

used to convert an analog signal to a digital signal

A

Digitizer

301
Q

are a continuous signal or carrier that varies in amplitude or frequency

A

analog signals

302
Q

this term is short for binary digit. refers to an electrical impulse representing a zero or a one. the smallest unit of measurement a computer can handle

A

bit

303
Q

a set of bits that represent a single character. usually there are eight bits in a

A

Byte

304
Q

the number of changed states that can occur per second

A

Baud

305
Q

advantage of analog transmissions are

A

1) no conversion necessary for human recognition 2) economical over short distances (up to 25miles)

306
Q

disadvantages of analog transmission are

A

1) added distortion and noise when employing amplification. 2) electrical interference modulating the waveform. 3) limited distance for acceptable performance.

307
Q

digital conversion consists of

A

sampling, quantization, and encoding

308
Q

is the measuring of the analog signal at specific intervals

A

Sampling

309
Q

is the assigning of a specific value to each of the samples

A

Quantization

310
Q

is the process by which these values are converted into a data or bit stream

A

Encoding

311
Q

can interfere with an analog signal and reduce its clarity

A

thermal or interfering noise

312
Q

is synchronized with that of the transmitter so its available to read the digital sample when it arrives

A

digital receiver or regenerator

313
Q

are regenerated rather than amplified

A

Digital bits

314
Q

is the means of superimposing sound on an RF carrier

A

AM

315
Q

is the means of superimposing sound on an RF carrier of a particular frequency

A

FM

316
Q

3 different types of modulation in analog

A

Amplitude(AM),Frequency(FM), and Phase(PM)

317
Q

five most common modulation schemes are

A

1)Amplitude shift keying(ASK) 2) Frequency shift keying(FSK). 3) Phase shift keying(PSK). 4) Quadrature phase shift keying(QPSK). 5) Quadrature amplitude modulation(QAM)

318
Q

frequency and phase of the signal carrier are constant. amplitude is varied

A

Amplitude shit keying(ASK)

319
Q

amplitude and phase of the signal are constant. frequency is varied. used in pathrak telemetries

A

Frequency is varied (FSK)

320
Q

amplitude and frequency are constant. phase is varied.

A

Phase shift keying (PSK)

321
Q

defined as the position on a waveform cycle at a specific point in time. on cycle is defined as 360 degrees of phase

A

Phase

322
Q

the two most common digital modulation schemes that use a combination of changes are

A

QPSK and QAM

323
Q

unwanted sum of and difference in frequencies resulting from the heterodyning of two or more signals

A

Beat

324
Q

are caused when an analog TV signal arrives at a receiver just before or after the desired TV signal

A

Ghost

325
Q

caused when the same channel from two or more different TV stations is received by the same antenna

A

co channel interference

326
Q

caused by power line arcing, lightning, electrical motors, automobile ignition, and other sources of high rise time energy entering the cable system from the tap up to and including the TV receiver

A

Electrical interference

327
Q

ingress from transmitters operating in the upstream frequency bandwith

A

return path interference

328
Q

often caused by poorly made or corroded connectors ,it actually changes the shape of the RF wave from(disimilar metals)

A

common path distortion (CPD)

329
Q

what causes CPD

A

when two or more carries encounter a non linear device, such as a connection where oxidation has occurred, harmonics and difference are produced

330
Q

a chemical change caused by a reaction to oxygen, such as rust

A

Oxidation

331
Q

a component frequency of the signal that is an integer multiple of the fundamental frequency.(twice whatever original frequency is)

A

Harmonics

332
Q

the amount of noise an amp adds

A

noise figure

333
Q

is caused by random electron activity of the atoms that make up the conductor, resistor, or any part of the passive circuit in question at any temperature above absolute zero

A

thermal noise

334
Q

a theoretical temperature equivalent to the absolute absence of heat and equal to -273.15 degrees C, -459.67F, or zero degrees Kelvin

A

absolute zero

335
Q

change in termination noise amounts to approximately .17dB per 20 degree fahrenheit change in temperature

A

know this rule

336
Q

C/N Rules

A

Rule 1) if the input level numerically equals an amplifiers NF, the output ratio will always be 59.2dB. Rule 2) for each dB when the input level is raised above the amplifiers NF, the output ratio improves by an equal amount above 59.2. Rule3) C/N ratio at the output of a single amplifier is always worse than that at the input an amount equal to the amplifiers NF

337
Q

log uses

A

10logN for C/N, 12 logN for composite second order (CSO), and 20 logN for Xmod and CTB

338
Q

undesired change in the waveform of a signal

A

distortions

339
Q

the second harmonic products of any two channels are typically 6dB below the level of the sum and difference products

A

Discrete second order

340
Q

the combination of the amplitude and the logarithmic sum of the number of beats that fall in a channel determine the level of interference

A

composite second order

341
Q

when a carrier is applied to an amplifier, it will produce the second order beats and will produced third order products as well

A

discrete third order

342
Q

as each carrier is added to the system , it interacts with all the other carriers producing more and more second and third order beats.

A

composite third order

343
Q

C/CTB follows a 20log relationship, and each dB raise in the levels of an amplifier, the carrier to CTB gets worse by two dB

A

know this rule

344
Q

adding two devices with the same C/CTB ratios degrades the result by 6dB

A

know this rule

345
Q

the crossing of modulation from one channel to another. typically manifests itself as a vertical bar in the viewed picture

A

cross modulation(XMOD)

346
Q

this is a third order product and follows a 20log function for every dB that the levels of an amplifier are raised the carrier to cross mod ratio gets 2db worse

A

know this rule

347
Q

doubling the number of channels carried degrades this ratio by 6dB and so does doubling the cascade

A

know this rule

348
Q

appears as horizontal bars in the picture . a primary source is the power passing chokes or capacitor leak in passive devices.

A

Hum modulation

349
Q

amplifier circuit paths that allow AC voltage to be directed onto specific cables

A

Power passing chokes

350
Q

hum modulation is a low frequency signal, which the FCC states must be less than 3% of the video carrier level

A

Hum modulation Test

351
Q

are the two basic parameters used to evaluate the quality and performance of the digital signals

A

MER and BER

352
Q

is defined as the ratio of the number of wrong bits over the number of total bits

A

Ber

353
Q

is typically an overload effect noted through digital signal processing equipment. this is an overdrive, or over modulation of the single carrier

A

Spectral re growth

354
Q

an international telecommunications standard that permits the addition of high speed data transfer to an existing CATV system

A

DOCSIS

355
Q

generates light in the transmitter

A

Laser Diode

356
Q

is a family of standards for compressing decompressing A/V in a digital format

A

MPEG

357
Q

advantages of MPEG are

A

remove redundant info without losing quality while saving bandwith

358
Q

MPEG1

A

video CD

359
Q

MPEG2

A

HDTV/DVD

360
Q

MPEG4

A

streaming video

361
Q

has all the spatial info

A

I picture

362
Q

use both past and subsequent pictures

A

B picture

363
Q

is calculated by comparing previous and successive picture

A

P picture

364
Q

a cable version of CDMA , a cell phone technology that allows many users to access the network at the same time

A

SCDMA

365
Q

provides the ability to control latency

A

QOS

366
Q

how many channels can u bond with docsis 3.0

A

4 or 8 down 4 up

367
Q

number of timeouts caused by the cmts not receiving a response within aspecified time from the cmts to a ranging request. upstream errors

A

T3

368
Q

number of timeouts caused by the modem not receiving a response within a specified time from the cmts to a periodic maintenance request. downstream errors

A

T4

369
Q

the operational settings for the cable modem

A

Boot file

370
Q

a series of Reed -Solomon symbols forms the codeword. it s a series of values that conforms to a known pattern.

A

codewords

371
Q

when there are more than___ errored symbols in a codeword the entire codeword is errored

A

3

372
Q

technologies that allow cable modems to share the upstream carriers in the hfc network with multiple devices like cable modems, emtas, and set top boxes

A

TDMA and SCDMA

373
Q

method for transferring data across the network

A

Trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP)

374
Q

assigns time slots for when modems can speak. configured in the CMTS

A

TDMA

375
Q

instead of a time slot, the modem gets a code for all the data it is sending

A

SCDMA

376
Q

is a set of rules that govern how devices transport data

A

Protocol

377
Q

allows interoperability of devices from different vendors

A

protocols

378
Q

is a way to tell the sending server that not all packets got to their destination, and please resend them.

A

Transmission control protocol/ internet protocol (TCP/IP)

379
Q

used to transport voice and video media

A

Real Time Transport Protocol (RTP)

380
Q

unlike tcp/ip it has no error correction

A

Universal Datagram Protocol (UDP)

381
Q

UTP

A

unshielded twisted pair

382
Q

has a field of 32 bits and dotted decimal

A

ipv4

383
Q

written in colon hexidecimal format and uses numbers and letters

A

ipv6

384
Q

can be configured for ipv4only or ipv6only

A

singlestacked device

385
Q

can be configured fro both ipv4 or 6

A

dual stacked device

386
Q

rules for writing ipv6 addresses

A

1) omit leading zeros, meaning zeros at the beginning of each set of four characters. 2) replace consecutive all zero chunks within an address by using a double colon

387
Q

caused by off air ingress. (Direct pickup)

A

leading ghost

388
Q

detects the light in the receiver and converts it to RF

A

Photo Diode (Photo Detector)

389
Q

undesired light leaving the core

A

refraction

390
Q

FCC requires us to offset frequencies when levels in the aeronuatical band are ____ or higher

A

38.75

391
Q

what is the frequency offset for channels in the aeronautical communication band

A

12.5khz

392
Q

when padding to the chip what are the combined internal losses (DC test point, EQ, Diplex filter)

A

3dB

393
Q

CTB shows up where in the channel

A

within 30khz of the video carrier

394
Q

CSO shows up where in the channel

A

plus or minus .75 and plus or minus 1.25mhz above or below the video carrier

395
Q

harmonics are___ down from the sum/diff beats

A

6dB

396
Q

what is the ch offset for channels in the aeronautical navigation frequency

A

25khz

397
Q

the aeronautical navigation frequency carriers are spaced at ____ between carriers

A

50khz

398
Q

what kind of split is in the diplex filter

A

sub split

399
Q

shows the relationship between voltage or current and time

A

AC waveform

400
Q

the position of a waveform at a specific point in time

A

phase

401
Q

amplitude=

A

peak

402
Q

changing or varying the amplitude, frequency, or phase

A

modulation

403
Q

4 phases, constant amplitude, 2 bits per symbol

A

QPSK

404
Q

multiple amplitudes, 4 phases, combo of QPSK and ASK

A

QAM

405
Q

sample at twice the frequency that is being digitized

A

Nyquist rule

406
Q

ADC

A

analog to digital conversion

407
Q

DAC

A

Digital to analog conversion

408
Q

how many pictures form a group of pics

A

12

409
Q

GOP

A

group of pictures

410
Q

provides output tilt

A

interstage EQ

411
Q

a measure of an amplifiers output level compared to the amount of distortion its

A

output capability

412
Q

the default telemetry frequencies for fwd sweep/rtn sweep and pathtrak

A

53=pathtrak, 51= forward, 52, return

413
Q

a combo of ASK and QPSK

A

QAM