NCOA Set B Flashcards

1
Q

Define “Group”

A

Assemblies of people or objects.

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2
Q

Define “Team”

A

Organized groups of individuals working together to reach a common goal.

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3
Q

Define “Team Mission”

A

The task, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason therefore… a duty assigned to an individual or unit.

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4
Q

Define the “Z” process

A

Ideas often bounce back and forth among the creators, advancers, and refiners.

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5
Q

Community

A

Makes sure every member of the team feels like an essential and important part of the team and the unit.

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6
Q

Cooperation

A

-Encourages the team concept by making sure everyone knows and understands the organizations mission and purpose, which encourages a participative approach to meeting these objectives. -Ensure everyone has an opportunity to speak, to ask questions, and raise concerns. -Develops a greater sense of involvement in the organization’s direction.

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7
Q

Coordination

A

-Ensures all members realize how important they are to the mission. -Explains member responsibilities in detail and how their actions affect the organization’s success.

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8
Q

Communication

A

-Proper communication ensures everyone is on the same page and working toward the shared goal.

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9
Q

Coaching

A

-Creates a positive outlook for your personnel enabling your team to meet and even exceed their goals. -Training opportunities and advancement are two essential components that encourage and motivate members to grow and excel.

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10
Q

Absence of Trust

A

Unwillingness to confide in and share knowledge, feelings, and concerns with one another.

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11
Q

Avoidance of Accountability

A

Holding others accountable usually leads to confrontation. Members are likely to avoid these situations.

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12
Q

Fear of Conflict

A

Avoid conflict as its negative connotation threatens trust, communication, morale, welfare, and mission accomplishment.

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13
Q

Inattention to Results

A

When members place their individual needs and goals ahead of the team and the organization.

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14
Q

Lack of Commitment

A

Doubt in others or mission will cause members to struggle to commit fully to ideas, decisions, or tasks made by other members of the organization.

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15
Q

Forming

A

-Little or no conflict -Minimum shared feelings and feedback -Minimum shared feelings and feedback

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16
Q

Storming

A

-Most difficult stage -Disputes and arguments occur -Members acknowledge the purpose and goal of the team -Stress and anxiety increase

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17
Q

Norming

A

-Accept roles and responsibilities -Collaboration and camaraderie grow -Productivity is high -Members “Agree to Disagree”

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18
Q

Performing

A

-Creativity is high as members are willing to share ideas without fear of negative criticism and reprisal. -Eventually the team reaches their goal -Heightened morale and loyalty to the team and its success

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19
Q

Adjourning/ Transforming

A

-Teams disassemble and members separate from the team

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20
Q

What should you consider when assessing team success?

A

How efficiently & effectively the following were used to complete the mission: - Talents (skills and abilities) - Expertise (knowledge and experience) - Assessments (Customer surveys, inspections, performance evaluations) - Means: (Resources to include: equipment, facilities, financial, time, information)

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21
Q

Name three sources for gathering feedback.

A

Mentors, Peers, Subordinates, Budgets, Training Plans, Metrics (MC rates), and External Sources/Agencies (family).

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22
Q

Define Followership.

A

one in the service of another; one that follows the opinions or teachings of another; one that imitates another.

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23
Q

Give examples that demonstrate the difference between feedback and advice?

A

An example of feedback would be a follower giving a leader feedback on a decision he/she just made or made in the past. An example of advice would be a person giving advice on a decision that the leader is still contemplating or researching.

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24
Q

What is meant by advocating for a leader’s point of view?

A

Advocating leadership’s decisions and points of view is not about being a “yes person”; it is about communicating your concerns in ways that leadership will listen. However, when you receive the final answer, salute sharply and go do with a forward-thinking, optimistic attitude, even when you disagree with decisions.

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25
Q

What should be your objective in committing to the action plan of the organization and mission?

A

Your objective is to embrace your role and commit physically, emotionally, and mentally to accomplishing the mission via the action plan.

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26
Q

What does capabilities of an Airman mean?

A

Skills, talents, experiences, personality, etc. that Airmen may possess or have the potential to possess.

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27
Q

How would you define deliberate development?

A

To carefully think about and discuss strengths, areas of improvement, current and future roles, and responsibilities with followers.

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28
Q

Name three capabilities mentioned in this chapter that may be included when diagnosing the capabilities of an Airman in your unit?

A

Skills, Talents, Experiences, Personality

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29
Q

Name three factors to consider when diagnosing the developmental needs of an Airman.

A

Aspirations, Personality, Self-Concept, Self-Efficacy and Locus of Control, Attitudes and Values

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30
Q

What needs to be created in order to address the personal and professional developmental needs of an Airman as it relates to fulfilling current or future job/role responsibilities?

A

A deliberate development plan

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31
Q

How does a leader set and monitor a deliberate development plan for their Airmen?

A

Setting and monitoring development plans

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32
Q

List three resources that a leader must know and have the ability to tap into in order to set up a plan and begin a development process for his or her Airmen.

A

(1) Other people who have skills and who are willing to mentor, (2) knowing about the organization’s budget, including the process for requesting funds and other types of support, (3) various outside agencies (Airmen and Family Readiness Center, Family Advocacy, AMS for special duty opportunities, etc.), (4) PME requirements, seat availability, and opportunities (e.g. instructor, adjunct instructor, etc.) (5) Eligibility (promotion, special duty assignments, deployments, TDYs, etc.) (6) Private Organizations (Top 3, AFSA, Toast Masters, 5/6, etc.)

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33
Q

What are some examples of future job/role responsibilities?

A

Team Leader, Ceremony MC, Scout Leader, Honor guard, Youth League Coach, Church Volunteer, First Sergeant, Recruiter, Defense Attaché, PME instructor, Superintendent, NCOIC, Flight Chief, Additional duties (e.g. safety, RA, shirt)

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34
Q

As a leader, how have you exercised position power?

A

Coercive, Connection, Reward and Legitimate

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35
Q

As a leader, how have you exercised personal power?

A

Referent Power, Informational Power, Expert Power

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36
Q

Involvement Level

A

at this level, subordinates produce good quality work because they truly enjoy what they do—they believe in their job and their reward is personal satisfaction.

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37
Q

Performance Level

A

tend to be more involved in the work center and often contributes but only as long as leadership recognizes their contributions.

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38
Q

Membership Level

A

at this level subordinates meet minimum standards, but do not get too involved in their jobs. They complain about things but never make an effort to solve the problem or even offer solutions.

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39
Q

What motivational theory focused on the belief that an individual’s most basic needs must be filled before that individual could move on to higher needs or ambitions?

A

Abraham Maslow

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40
Q

List three examples of a System Level Reward.

A

System level rewards are things the organization provides such as pay, training, annual leave, medical and dental benefits, etc.

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41
Q

What is a leader’s responsibility as it relates to system level rewards?

A

Supervisors must ensure their subordinates meet all standards, and ensure that they receive their system level rewards.

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42
Q

In your own words define negotiation.

A

is a process involving two or more people or groups who have a degree of difference in positions, interests, goals, values, or beliefs and who are striving to reach agreement on issues or courses of action. Negotiation can also be defined as a dialogue intended to resolve disputes, to produce an agreement upon courses of action, to bargain for individual or collective advantage, or to craft outcomes to satisfy various interests.

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43
Q

list three examples of negotiations you encountered at work

A

-Work hours and schedule -Pay, salary, or benefits -Use of equipment -Sequester for additional -personnel or assistance -Work-related problem solving

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44
Q

list three examples of negotiations you encountered at home

A

-Who does what household chores and errands -Times for watching favorite television shows -What to eat for dinner -What to pay for major purchases like homes and cars

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45
Q

list three examples of negotiations you encountered at other

A

-Haggling with dealer at car dealership on a new or used car -Working out a child pick-up or carpool schedule with friends -Working a price with mechanic on car repair

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46
Q

What does the acronym BATNA stand for?

A

Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement

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47
Q

Are you a convergent thinker or a divergent thinker? Explain.

A

-Convergent Thinkers tend to be reliable, rational, principle-based, work to reduce uncertainty and ambiguity, and prefer thorough planning. -Divergent thinkers tend to be creative, spontaneous, are comfortable with uncertainty and ambiguity, an Trust is the foundation of relationships d prefer flexible planning.

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48
Q

Explain how Trust impacts negotiations.

A

Trust is the foundation of relationships with others and faith in a system. There are two categories of trust: trust in a person and trust in a process.

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49
Q

What are the stakes when it comes to a negotiated situation?

A

The stakes in a negotiated situation are what you stand to (or are wiling) to lose if negotiations fail. These can be either low (little to lose) or high (detrimental to reaching desired outcome).

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50
Q

What is the difference between task and people orientation?

A

Task orientation places more importance on reaching an outcome, solution, or resolution (the task at hand and the expected outcome). People orientation centers on the relationship that exists between the individuals or groups involved.

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51
Q

What are the five steps in the Cooperative Negotiation Strategy Process?

A

Step 1: Positions Step 2: Interests Step 3: BATNA Step 4: Brainstorming Step 5: Solution

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52
Q

What are the two categories of negotiations?

A

Distributive and Integrative

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53
Q

What are the seven “hardball tactics” associated with distributive negotiations?

A

Good Cop-Bad Cop Highball-Lowball Exploding Offer Lying Intimidation/Aggressive Behavior Snow Job Nibble

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54
Q

What is mediation?

A

is an alternative form of dispute resolution that supports negotiations between two disputing parties.

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55
Q

What is the difference between evaluative and facilitative mediation?

A

-Evaluative Mediation offers an opinion on the strengths and weaknesses of each party’s side, and suggests options to resolve the matter. -Facilitative Mediation is where a third party (mediator) encourages the parties to discuss matters freely and voluntarily participate in the mediation process. Here, the parties clarify issues, reevaluate positions, and analyze interests—all with an eye towards resolving the dispute that brought them to the mediation table.

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56
Q

List the five stages to mediation?

A

Stage 1 Mediator Opening Statement Stage 2, Parties’ Opening Statement Stage 3, Joint Discussion Stage 4, Caucus Stage 5, Closure

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57
Q

Using the Cooperative Negotiation Strategy (CNS) in cross-cultural situations means we must consider the ___ involved.

A

people

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58
Q

In ___ cultures, behaviors are not explicitly presented as members already know what behaviors are expected of them based on years of interaction with each other.

A

high-context

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59
Q

___ is a method for ripening a negotiated situation where the other party is willing to join in the search for a negotiated solution based on a past, recently avoided, or impending consequence.

A

wayout

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60
Q

Using the Cooperative Negotiation Strategy (CNS) in cross-cultural situations means we must consider the ___ at hand.

A

task

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61
Q

___ is the capacity of parties to decide it is in their best interest to negotiate an agreement rather than to continue a dispute.

A

readiness

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62
Q

___ cultures are task-oriented, rule-oriented, and will most likely use the Insist negotiation style and their position powers to get what they want.

A

low-context

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63
Q

To determine ___ of a negotiated situation, consider whether or not all the parties involved are actually interested in negotiating and if the issues are even negotiable.

A

ripeness

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64
Q

What are some examples of the verbal and nonverbal cues commonly relayed in communication?

A

-Verbal cues include: vocal (verbal) pauses, interjections like “uh-huh”, “oh”, “wow”, and “Really?” -Nonverbal cues include eye movement and eye contact, body position (e.g. slouching, leaning forward and attentive, crossed arms and legs (closed)), hand gestures, shoulder movements, etc.

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65
Q

What is the difference between Paraphrasing and Mirroring?

A

-Paraphrasing demonstrates that you were listening and understand, clarifies content, highlights issues, and improves active listener techniques. Paraphrasing statements begin with, “Are you telling me…?” or “So what you are saying is…” -Mirroring (or reflecting) is repeating the last word or phrase spoken in the form of a question and asks for more input without guiding the direction of the speaker’s thoughts. It elicits information when you do not have enough to ask a pertinent question and is useful when you are lost for words.

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66
Q

In your own words, what is Emotion Labeling?

A

is often the first active listening skill used in a communicated crisis situations. We often attempt to move to the problem-solving phase too early and usually, the speaker is not prepared to reason just yet. Common phrases include, “You sound…,” “You seem…,” or “What I hear is…”

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67
Q

Why are verbal pauses effective when communicating?

A

is the use of silence in communication that prompts others to talk (because the empty sound of silence is uncomfortable) and can also be used to emphasize a point.

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68
Q

Why is it necessary for you to be able to acquire resources such as supplies, people, facilities, and equipment?

A

for accomplishing the mission

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69
Q

Why do NCOs need to know how to manage resources?

A

According to AFI 36-2618, Enlisted Force Structure, the primary focus of the NCO tier is mission accomplishment. To accomplish the mission, NCOs need to be able to use assigned personnel, material, financial, information and technology, energy, and warfare resources efficiently and effectively.

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70
Q

Define resource stewardship.

A

Resource stewardship is the careful and responsible management of resources under one’s control.

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71
Q

Personnel

A

considered “most valuable resource”

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72
Q

Financial

A

required to procure the material, energy, information and technology, and warfare resources

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73
Q

Material

A

physical goods that are required by personnel to complete assigned duties

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74
Q

Warfare

A

war-related materials (training equipment, body armor, and armored personnel carriers, etc.)

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75
Q

Information & Tech

A

technological advancements (cell phones, computers, email, Internet-enabled devices, etc.)

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76
Q

Energy

A

powers businesses, manufacturing, transportation, and your

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77
Q

What is meant by discipline?

A

is training expected to produce a specific character or pattern of behavior, especially training that produces moral or mental improvement.

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78
Q

Explain at least four ways effective discipline positively impacts mission accomplishment in the Air Force.

A

-Increases personnel readiness -Builds professional skills of personnel -Strengthens personal discipline -Promotes camaraderie, esprit de corps, and morale -Enhances national security and the nation’s confidence in the Air Force -Helps to maintain air and space superiority

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79
Q

In the Prevention Arena what are the 3 key actions that must take place? Who must take those actions?

A

Set standards, establish rapport, and create a climate of accountability. The NCO/supervisor.

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80
Q

When operating in the Correction Arena, NCOs must use the __________ Process.

A

Progressive Discipline Process

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81
Q

When subordinates violate the rules, fall below standards, or commit infractions, list at least two corrective actions NCOs can use to rehabilitate subordinates.

A

Corrective actions NCOs can use to rehabilitate subordinates include: - Verbal counseling, admonishment and reprimand - Letters of counseling, admonishment and reprimand - Recommend establishment of a UIF - Recommend placement on control roster - Recommend administrative demotions - Recommend denial of reenlistment - Recommend nonjudicial punishment action - Awareness training (as a deterrent)

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82
Q

Why is it important to know about budget timelines and milestones?

A

NCOs can monitor and align mission requirements with the budget cycle to ensure funding is continuously available. Also to anticipate and prepare for shortfalls by requesting additional funding early to minimize impact on the mission.

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83
Q

Briefly summarize the two parts of the Budget Execution Review (BER) process?

A

The first part requires every level of command to identify, validate, and prioritize its unfunded requirements and then submit them to higher headquarters for funding consideration. The second part requires each level of command to review and prioritize (rack and stack) all subordinate command unfunded requirements.

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84
Q

What is the purpose of the Budget Execution Review (BER), and why is it important?

A

To redistribute funds to meet unfunded requirements based on priority. Identifies unforeseen or initially unanticipated mission-related expenses. To reallocate funds to support other mission requirements in other locations throughout the wing. Ensures prudent use of limited funds.

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85
Q

How would you describe the purpose and benefits of Financial Execution Plans (FEPs)?

A

Used to balance available funding. Associated with O&M funds. Used by all levels of the organization. Ensures funds provided by Presidential Budget are distributed in a manner that supports Air Force objectives. Identifies and prioritizes current and next FY key requirements.

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86
Q

As an NCO, what is your role in the budget process?

A

NCOs are most concerned with the Budget Execution Review (BER) process, financial execution plans, and hitting budget spending targets.

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87
Q

What is the difference between a funded and unfunded position requirement?

A

Both are authorized positions. Those that are funded will have actual people assigned and working in the position. Those that are unfunded remain authorized but go unfilled.

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88
Q

Your organization just experienced a recent change to your mission that requires you to change the skill level requirement of an authorized position. What would you need to do to request this change? Be sure to specifically mention any documents or products involved.

A

The Unit Manpower Document would need to be changed. This requires a formal Authorization Change Request (ACR), which must be signed by the appropriate commander.

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89
Q

In the scenario above, what would you need to do to complete the process once the change has been approved? Again, be sure to specifically mention any documents or products involved.

A

Once the change has been approved, the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is then updated with the qualified person (the “face”) to match the attributes of the position.

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90
Q

Why is it so important for you, as an NCO, to know about the four competencies of manpower and some of the documents used to manage personnel?

A

NCOs can assist leadership in providing oversight in the management of available personnel to authorized positions and assist in gaining these resources to meet mission requirements. Useful as you prepare for SNCO responsibilities. These responsibilities may be delegated to your level as you face reduced manning authorizations. Develops your skills as a resource manager and steward. It is your responsibility to ensure mission success. Having the manpower to complete your objectives is key to accomplishing this.

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91
Q

Why is it important to conserve resources?

A

If necessary resources are misused and/or depleted, it may impact your organizational goals and mission accomplishment in the present and possibly in the future.

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92
Q

What does it mean to use resources as directed?

A

Using resources “as directed” refers to the use of resources under your control as instructed by existing rules and regulations, in accordance with laws and policies, and as specified in orders issued by leadership as long as these orders are ethical and in the best interests of the Air Force.

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93
Q

What does it meant to use resources as available?

A

Using resources “as available” refers to the use of resources that are in-place and accessible without violating law or regulation.

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94
Q

How can you support the development of others as future resource stewards?

A

NCOs can promote an organizational culture that promotes a resource-conscious attitude. NCOs can be role models who demonstrate the right attitude and behaviors that promote resource stewardship.

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95
Q

Budget process cycle 1st Quarter

A

-Funds allocated downward—actual funds or CRA; create FY spend plan -Cost center begin working first BER (unfunded requests) -25% of budget obligated and/or spent

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96
Q

Budget process cycle 2nd Quarter

A

-Resource Advisor submits first BER -Cost Centers submit inputs for next FY’s FEP -50% of budget allocated and/or spent

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97
Q

Budget process cycle 3rd Quarter

A

-Cost Centers submit updated /revised BER; second BER occurs -75% of budget obligated or spent

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98
Q

Budget process cycle 4th Quarter

A

-End of FY closeout begins -Congress approves next fiscal year budget -FY ends (100% of budget spent) and new FY begins

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99
Q

Why is it important to correct substandard behavior?

A

maintains good order and discipline, it motivates Airmen to accomplish the mission in the most effective and efficient manner possible.

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100
Q

What is primary purpose of the Correction Arena?

A

is to get subordinates’ behavior back to the standard using the least amount of force necessary.

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101
Q

What is the difference between Corrective and Punitive actions?

A

Corrective actions are administrative in nature, punitive actions are legal sanctions designed to take something away from the member, (e.g. time in the form of extra duties, loss of money, loss of freedom, reduction in rank, and loss of career via less than honorable and dishonorable discharges).

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102
Q

What is the NCO’s primary role when operating in the Punishment Arena?

A

The NCO’s primary role is to provide the commander with facts concerning the member (e.g. duty performance, previous violations, family/financial situation and so forth), and, if asked, recommend actions that would be most effective in rehabilitating the member.

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103
Q

What should NCOs do before applying the PDP and when applying it?

A

A NCO should establish standards to clearly explain to the subordinates each standard and Line of Acceptability, and monitor subordinate behavior to ensure compliance and reinforce as needed.

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104
Q

State the 3 steps of the Progressive Discipline Process.

A

Establish Standards, Monitor, Apply the PDP

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105
Q

Name the 3 Arenas that make up the Discipline Model.

A

Prevention, Correction, and Punishment.

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106
Q

Punishment

A

to correct and rehabilitate those who repeatedly or grievously violate standards

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107
Q

Correction

A

address inappropriate behavior and seek to bring subordinates’ behavior back within acceptable boundaries using the least amount of force necessary

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108
Q

Prevention

A

stop problems of behaviors that are detrimental to the personnel or productivity of a work center before they occur

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109
Q

What are the 3 key actions that occur during the Prevention Arena in the DM and who bears the responsibility for preventing disciplinary problems?

A

The key actions that occur during the Prevention Arena in the DM are: Set standards, establish rapport, and create a climate of accountability. Supervisors, First sergeants, and commanders are responsible for preventing disciplinary problems from occurring.

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110
Q

Describe what is meant by the Progressive part of the Progressive Discipline Process Model.

A

The Progressive part of the PDP Model means using the least force necessary to modify a behavior that is progressing in severity by imposing an infraction that also increases or progresses in severity, i.e. verbal counseling to LOC.

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111
Q

Why are adverse administrative and punitive actions issued when an individual commits an infraction or their behavior falls below the Line of Acceptability?

A

Adverse administrative and punitive actions help to maintain good order and discipline. MFRs, LOCs, LOAs, and LORs serve as written documentation of actions taken to correct behavior when more severe actions such as an Article 15, Court-Martial, or Discharge.

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112
Q

When applying the PDP, what factors are used to determine appropriate corrective actions?

A

Severity of the infraction and judgment of the supervisor.

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113
Q

Explain what is meant by the phrase, “Prudence first, Justice second.”

A

Prudence first, Justice second” means it is always prudent to consider the facts and extenuating circumstances surrounding a situation. This will ensure people are treated in a fair and equitable manner while still ensuring the correction/punishment fits the crime. Although one can legally, “throw the book at someone” that is almost never the prudent thing to do.

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114
Q

List three things a NCO must ensure while engaged in a disciplinary action involving a subordinate.

A
  • use the Discipline Model and PDP effectively. - protected the rights of the accused. - know their limits. - ensure accused are treated with respect.
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115
Q

Explain the NCO’s role when a subordinate, who has been accused of a crime, returns to the unit pending his/her trial?

A

NCOs must ensure other members of the unit DO NOT treat members awaiting trial unprofessionally. This is an important part of maintaining good order and discipline. As an NCO, it is your responsibility to squelch rumors, to keep others from discussing the issue, and to keep people from treating the accused badly. Always remember, “Innocent Until Proven Guilty”

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116
Q

NCOs should advise someone of his/her rights when they:

A

If you SUSPECT a crime has been committed, and you intend to question the individual, you MUST perform a rights advisement.

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117
Q

How would you summarize the wingman concept/philosophy?

A
  • Airmen taking responsibility for each other by being alert to others in distress and intervening when they need help - Airmen seeking help from their Wingman when needed - Have the confidence and willingness to approach others who appear to need help - Staying with them through a crisis until you can ensure a safe hand-off to a supervisor or other competent individual.
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118
Q

Relationship and financial problems, family crisis, grief and loss, experiencing failure, illness or injury, difficulty adjusting to a new life changes, Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), career problems, and low self-esteem.

A

Emotional

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119
Q

This dimension of wellness determines one’s ability to find comfort, meaning, and hope when faced with these difficult and often tragic circumstances allowing them to return to a state of psychological well-being.

A

Spiritual

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120
Q

This type of wellness requires a support network consisting of family, friends, and coworkers offers tremendous benefits for your health and wellness especially when dealing with difficult situations.

A

Social

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121
Q

This type of wellness requires one to focus on five specific components: Cardio respiratory Endurance, Muscular endurance, Muscular strength, Body composition, and Flexibility.

A

Physical

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122
Q

Why do people commit suicide?

A

Although no one knows for sure, theory suggests it is because they believe they: - Are a burden to others - Do not contribute to the group - Are a liability to the group’s well-being or safety - Have no sense of belonging or connection to others or to the unit - Have lost a meaningful relationship

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123
Q

List some advanced warning signs of suicide.

A
  • Expresses an intention of harming self or others - Behaves in a manner which would lead you to conclude that there was imminent risk of this harm - Decreased or impaired emotional status - Thoughts of suicide - A suicide plan - Access to the method of suicide described - Stating they intend to complete the plan
124
Q

According to trend data, what are the most prevalent problems associated with suicide?

A
  • Relationship problems (70%) - Legal problems (44%) - Financial problems (29%) - Deployed in previous year (21%) - Receiving psychological services (25%)
125
Q

What are common barriers to seeking out help by at-risk personnel?

A
  • Denying the problem exists - Avoiding the problem altogether - Fear that accessing help will result in a negative career impact - Fear that the chain of command will be contacted (i.e., breach of privacy and confidentiality)
126
Q

How can NCOs/leaders/supervisors help themselves and others seek help to prevent suicide?

A
  • Know that open communication, support systems, and easy access to referral agencies may help the person see another option - Know and promote protective factors, recognize warning signs of suicide and be willing to take appropriate action to be good a Wingman - Must instill and support a culture that believes asking for help is a strength NOT a weakness, and you must expose and eliminate the myths surrounding the implications of seeing mental health providers - Ensure Airmen understand: (1) that seeking help is encouraged and not a statement that they are somehow incompetent; and (2) that negative career impact for seeking counseling is unlikely when Airmen seek help on their own and when it occurs before any misconduct
127
Q

What would be common reactions to actual or potential suicide situations?

A

Fear - Helplessness: “I can’t do anything to help” - Hopelessness: “Nothing I do matters” Anxiety - Over-protectiveness: Reduce autonomy - Under-protectiveness: Casual avoidance Anger - Lack of compassion: Inability to care - Criticism: Blaming

128
Q

What are some Do’s and Don’ts when dealing with actual or potential suicide situations?

A

DO: -Be direct and matter-of-fact. -Listen openly without judgment. -Accept their feelings. -Show interest and support. -Get help. -Stay with them. -Remove potential means of self-harm. DON’T: -Ignore what you see or hear -Debate what is right or wrong -Criticize or condemn them -Act shocked or repulsed, or avoid them -Keep secrets -Leave them alone -Assume they’ll be okay

129
Q

How would you explain the confidentiality and privacy rules as it relates to suicide?

A
  • Confidential communication is defined as communication not intended to be disclosed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of the rendition of professional services to the patient or those reasonably necessary for such transmission of the communication. - Communications between a patient and a psychotherapist or an assistant to a psychotherapist made for the purpose of facilitating diagnosis or treatment of the patient’s mental or emotional condition are confidential communications and shall be protected from unauthorized disclosure. However, confidential communications will be disclosed to persons or agencies with a proper and legitimate need for the information and who are authorized by law or regulation to receive it, unless the evidentiary privilege applies.
130
Q

What are some responsibilities of leaders in the aftermath of a critical incident such as suicide?

A
  • Providing support and preventing further harm - Collaborate with the Disaster Mental Health (DMH) team and base helping agencies to address the needs of survivors - Demonstrate concern for unit members’ well-being - Ensure that the basic needs of survivors are met (i.e., shelter, food, safety, and security) - Let people talk about their experience (“emotional first aid”) - Minimize exposure to environmental stressors (e.g., heat, cold, noise, disturbing visual scenes) - Be attentive to the needs of family members - Provide factual information; prevent the spread of rumors - Continuously evaluate the environment for additional threats; ensure that needs are continued to be me - Foster unit cohesion - Foster resilience and recovery through social support mechanisms (e.g., friends, family, and religious organizations)
131
Q

What are the general goals for post-suicide intervention?

A
  • help friends and colleagues understand and begin the grieving process - to help maintain mission readiness, full functioning and morale - identify/refer individuals who are at increased risk for distress
132
Q

How does the Air Force define substance misuse?

A
  • The use of any illicit drug, the misuse of any prescribed medication, or the abuse of alcohol - Any substandard behavior or performance in which the consumption of alcohol is a primary contributing factor - Any pattern of unconventional misuse of any substance for nonmedical purposes that produces a known health risk or constitutes a danger to self or others
133
Q

Why is it important for Air Force members to know how the Air Force defines substance misuse?

A
  • So they can keep their behaviors within standards - To be aware of substandard behavior in others - So they can enforce the standards in their duty sections or squadrons
134
Q

Why do you think the Air Force makes this distinction between those that exhibit substandard behavior that occurs while drinking is labeled alcohol abuse, when many people would just consider that acting drunk or making fools of themselves?

A
  • To increase awareness of how a member’s drinking habits are viewed - Make members aware of the impact of their behaviors - To ensure members know that inappropriate behavior isn’t excused because they were drunk - To encompass a broader range of offenses to ensure intervention occurs before alcohol use get worse
135
Q

What are your responsibilities in the intervention process as it relates to substance misuse?

A
  • Observe and listen to subordinates’ problems and assist with appropriate referrals - Document all incidents of deteriorating work performance, unexcused absences, or tardiness, unacceptable conduct, and any steps already taken to help members resolve these problems. - Report all substance misuse or suspected substance misuse incidents - Provide pertinent information to the ADAPT office on patient’s duty performance, on and off duty behavior, drinking patterns or other incidents - Report all slips and relapses so the treatment team can assist the member to get back on track before an incident occurs
136
Q

What do the numbers in the 0-0-1-3 formula represent?

A

0 = Number of underage individuals drinking alcohol 0 = Number of individuals driving under the influence (DUI) of alcohol 1 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per hour 3 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per night

137
Q

How can this guideline help you prevent possible alcohol problems in your work center?

A
  • Provides a simple, concrete example of responsible behavior to explain to subordinates - Gives a standard that is easy to follow - Gives supervisors a standard to measure alcohol-related behavior against - Promotes thought instead of mindless drinking
138
Q

How would you describe the Air Force’s approach to preventing substance misuse?

A

Substance misuse prevention is a collaborative effort shared among various agencies to include the mental health (ADAPT), drug demand reduction, and health promotions and includes: - Education - Counseling - Referral, and - Follow-up

139
Q

How can leaders effectively educate subordinates about substance misuse issues?

A
  • Incorporate personal, or at least relevant, examples of substance misuse incidents into safety briefings - Describe and detail expenses incurred from a substance misuse incident - Ensure new personnel receive thorough briefings upon arrival to the unit - Post visual aids in the work center explaining Air Force policy on substance misuse - Conduct periodic discussions on harmful effects of substance misuse impacting the work center environment.
140
Q

What are some examples of how enlisted leaders can practice and advocate the de-glamorization of substance misuse?

A
  • Responsible drinking at social outings - When sponsoring a social event, ensure nonalcoholic drinks are also available - Share consequences of risky behavior - Be responsible for your guests by not serving intoxicating drinks after a specific time - Don’t promote alcohol-drinking contests - Don’t promote drinking at all
141
Q

What might be some far-reaching effects of substance misuse prevention?

A
  • Promotes responsible behavioral patterns - Environment of open communication - Less time spent on administrative actions - Less physical and mental health-related expenses - Less lost duty time
142
Q

What are the five methods used by the Air Force to identify substance misuse?

A
  • Self-identification - Commander referrals - Medical identification - Substance-related incidents - Drug testing
143
Q

What are some observable behaviors that may help to identify substance misuse issues affecting your subordinates?

A
  • Frequently deals with financial shortages - Avoids friends and colleagues - Blames others for his or her own problems and shortcomings - Has complaints leveled concerning domestic disturbances or problems at home - Demonstrates a decline in personal appearance - Complains of vague illnesses
144
Q

What signs of substance misuse have you heard about or observed in your work center?

A
  • Absenteeism - Temporary departures from the job - Mood changes - Red or bleary eyes - Paranoia - Tremors - Denial - Smell of alcohol
145
Q

Why is documentation so important for leaders, especially in this arena?

A
  • Provides necessary information to justify getting medical or other support your subordinate may need - Helps make counseling sessions constructive and productive - Used for administrative and punitive proceedings
146
Q

Why should you document behavior associated with substance misuse after the first incident?

A
  • Prevents further occurrences - Allows for early intervention - Demonstrates enforcement of standards - Better to document early and not need it than to wait and wish you had - It’s hard to finally document a first incident when subsequent incidents have occurred (backdating, pencil-whipping)
147
Q

How might delaying, or failing to document behavior associated with substance misuse affect the work center?

A
  • Deterioration of behavior continues - Increased risk for more severe behavior - Demoralization of other Airmen who are aware of the behavior - Undermines good order and discipline - Negative behaviors may be imitated by peers
148
Q

How might identifying substance misuse affect work center performance?

A
  • Brings issues out into the open - Ensures everyone knows that supervisors are serious about the issues - Increases awareness in the duty section - Makes substance misuse symptoms more widely known - Establishes firm standards of behavior - Encourages people to seek help if they need it - Ensures mission is not impeded
149
Q

How would define intervention as it relates to substance misuse?

A

The process of helping the member recognize at the earliest possible moment that he or she needs treatment for self-destructive drinking or drug abuse. This professionally structured event includes significant others in the member’s life.

150
Q

Why is an NCO/leader’s communication necessary during intervention for suspected substance misuse?

A
  • Ensures subordinate knows what behaviors have been observed - Allows no room for confusion or deception - Opens path to clearly discuss issues that may be contributing to questionable behaviors - To effectively find the root source of substandard performance - Conveys to subordinates that the supervisor is really attempting to assist with beating the substance misuse
151
Q

As an NCO/leader, what are effective methods to communicate your observations concerning substance misuse issues with a suspected misuser?

A
  • Private counseling or feedback session - Firm questions, yet sensitive to subordinate’s situation and needs - Inquiring with a nonjudgmental, open-minded attitude - Sincerity and genuine concern in actions - Using observed behaviors and other facts as the basis for discussion
152
Q

What are the primary objectives of the Air Force ADAPT Program?

A
  • Promote readiness and health and wellness through the prevention and treatment of substance misuse - Minimize the negative consequences of substance misuse to the individual, family, and organization - Provide comprehensive education and treatment to individuals who experience problems attributed to substance misuse - Return identified substance misusers to unrestricted duty status or to assist them in their TRANSITION to civilian life, as appropriate
153
Q

When should a supervisor refer a subordinate to ADAPT?

A
  • After an alcohol-related incident - Whenever substance misuse is suspected - When alcohol abuse is witnessed
154
Q

What factors might a commander consider when deciding whether to let someone continue service?

A
  • Successful completion of ADAPT - Severity of impact from behaviors - Member’s acceptance of responsibility and need for change - Duty performance, recent and historical - Self-identification versus caught through random testing - Repetition of behaviors or incidents
155
Q

What is the positive impact of substance misuse intervention on work center effectiveness?

A
  • Improved morale - Dependable workers - Better communication - Decreased mission interruptions - Healthy subordinates
156
Q

What are some possible negative impacts of substance misuse intervention on work center effectiveness?

A
  • Absences for subordinate and supervisor for issue-related appointments - Increased duty pressures on coworkers - Feelings of “being watched” by coworkers may increase stress or tension - Lack of understanding from other subordinates
157
Q

How would you summarize the impact of substance misuse on: Mission and Readiness Morale Health and Wellness

A

Mission and Readiness - Adversely affects or impairs mood, coordination, judgment, safety, and it increases impulsive behavior - Members under the influence do not perform effectively in leadership roles, areas of substantial responsibility, and technical knowledge - Members are in a higher risk of Drunk Driving (a leading cause of death among 18-24 year olds - DUI is a serious breach of discipline) - Members are in a higher risk of suicide (1/3 of all suicides involve alcohol use) - Increased risk of accidents, falls, burns and drowning Morale - Members are in a higher risk of relationship problems - personal and professional Health and Wellness - Increased risk of high blood pressure, stroke, heart disease, birth defects, addiction, gastritis (ulcers), diseases of the liver (fatty liver, hepatitis, and cirrhosis), pancreatitis, malnutrition, and overall high mortality etc. - Risky sexual behavior- increased risk of contracting a variety of sexually transmitted diseases

158
Q

Educating

A

-Incorporate personal, or at least relevant, examples of substance misuse incidents into safety briefings -Conduct periodic discussions on harmful effects of substance misuse impacting the work center environment. -Describe and detail expenses incurred from a substance misuse incident -Ensure new personnel receive thorough briefings upon arrival to the unit -Post visual aids in the work center explaining Air Force policy on substance misuse

159
Q

Deglamorizing

A

-Be responsible for your guests by not serving alcoholic drinks after a specific time -Don’t promote alcohol-drinking contests -Don’t promote drinking at all -Responsible drinking at social outings -Share consequences of risky behavior -When sponsoring a social event, ensure nonalcoholic drinks are also available

160
Q

Leading

A

-Less time spent on administrative actions -Promote responsible behavioral patterns -Provide an environment of open communication

161
Q

From your reading, how would you define stress?

A
  • The body’s reaction to an external demand (stressor) - The physical, mental, and emotional response to a situation - An individual’s response to a perceived stressor - Eustress is positive stress - Distress is negative stress
162
Q

Task demands

A
  • Factors related to one’s job such as: - Job Design (autonomy, task variety, degree of automation) - Working conditions (physical layout, temperature, noise, safety conditions, overcrowded rooms, location with frequent interruptions)
163
Q

Role demands

A
  • Pressures placed on people as a function of their particular role in the organization and includes: - Role conflict: Inability to reconcile or satisfy two conflicting expectations - Role overload: not enough time to complete all assigned tasks - Role ambiguity: Unsure of role and/or expectations
164
Q

Interpersonal demands

A

Pressures created by other individuals such as: - Lack of social support from coworkers - Poor interpersonal relationships

165
Q

Organizational structure

A
  • Includes: Organization with many levels of supervision and control Number and type of rules and regulations - Level where decisions are made
166
Q

Organizational leadership

A
  • Leaders who create a culture that is characterized by tension, fear, and anxiety unrealistic pressures to perform excessively tight controls (micro-management) - Routine firing of individuals who “don’t measure up”
167
Q

Why do people react differently to various stressors?

A
  • People perceive things as more or less stressful based on personal experience, values, temperaments, etc. - Some people believe they can control a situation, where others feel the outcome is out of their control
168
Q

Physiological Stressors

A

-changes in metabolism -headaches/backaches -increased blood pressure/heart attacks -increased heart and breathing rates

169
Q

Psychological Stressors

A

-anxiety -boredom -dissatisfaction (job, relationships, etc) -irritability -procrastination -tension

170
Q

Behavioral Stressors

A

-changes in eating -changes in productivity -rapid speech

171
Q

Risk Factors

A

-Long/repeat deployments with insufficient time to recover and reset -Being injured in combat -Handling remains -Witnessing death close-up

172
Q

Behaviors

A

-Anxiety -Appetite changes -Diminished confidence -Emotional display over dead/wounded -Irritability -Loneliness and isolation -Sleep troubles

173
Q

Warning signs factors

A

-“Spaced out” appearance -Hyperactivity -Memory loss -Misconduct -Poor hygiene -Reckless behavior -Significant mood changes -Withdrawal

174
Q

Reliving the Event

A

-Backfire brings back memories of gunfire -Seeing a news report of sexual assault brings back memories of one’s own sexual assault -Seeing an accident reminds one of a crash survivor or their own accident

175
Q

Hyperarousal

A

-Easily startled -Fear for safety–always on guard. -Hard time sleeping / concentrating -Sudden anger or irritability

176
Q

Feeling Numb

A

-Hard to express feelings -Incapable of having/showing positive or loving feelings toward other people—avoids relationships. -Lost all interest in activities once enjoyed -Unable to remember or talk about parts of the traumatic event

177
Q

Avoiding Situations

A

-Not talking or thinking about an event -Staying away from situations or people that trigger memories of the traumatic event

178
Q

What are some ways the Air Force practices lawful discrimination?

A
  • Male and female bathrooms - Different types of uniforms - Different dress and appearance standards - Different Rank - Enlistment requirements (height, weight, ASVAB scores, credit score, financial history, etc.) - Job qualification standards - Handicapped parking spaces, doors, and bathrooms
179
Q

What makes certain types of discrimination lawful?

A
  • do not deny people a right - merely recognize differences among people - help compensate for physical/mental limitations - Are needed for good order and discipline - Differentiate job applicants based on knowledge, skill or ability (rather than race, color, creed, etc.)
180
Q

How would you define unlawful personal discrimination?

A

Action(s) taken by an individual to deprive a person or group of a right because of color, national origin, race, religion, or sex. Such discrimination can occur overtly, covertly, intentionally or unintentionally.

181
Q

What are some examples of unlawful personal discrimination?

A
  • Treating members of one particular religious group better or worse than members of a different religious group - Providing less support (e.g. on-the-job-training) to individuals of a particular group, and thus “setting them up for failure” by limiting their ability to progress in training - Placing targeted group members in jobs that do not provide progression, recognition, or increased levels of responsibility. - Purposely withholding critical information from a targeted individual, resulting in the individual looking bad in the eyes of others, especially superiors
182
Q

How would you define unlawful systemic discrimination?

A

Actions by an institution (or system) that through its policies or procedures, deprive a person or group of a right because of (that person’s or group’s) color, national origin, race, religion, or sex. Such Discrimination can occur overtly, intentionally, or unintentionally.

183
Q

What are some examples of unlawful systemic discrimination?

A
  • Base chapel prohibits use of its facilities by all religious groups except Jewish, Protestant, and Catholic. - Squadron policy prohibiting women from operate heavy equipment.
184
Q

How might NCOs become guilty of unlawful systemic discrimination?

A

By helping to establish, implement, and enforce policies, procedures, rules, and laws that unlawfully discriminate

185
Q

Why should NCOs scrutinize policies and procedures before implementing and/or enforcing them?

A
  • Because you represent “the system” and as such, you must ensure the system does not discriminate either intentionally or unintentionally. - In addition, others may perceive an NCO as practicing discrimination via association with the institution if the NCO fails to scrutinize and correct unlawful policies or procedures.
186
Q

Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature when three specific things occur. List and describe those three things.

A
  • Submission to such conduct is made, either explicitly or implicitly, a term or condition of a person’s job, pay, or career (quid pro quo harassment); - Submission to or rejection of such conduct by a person is used as basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person (quid pro quo harassment); - Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s performance, or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.
187
Q

What are some verbal, nonverbal, and physical behaviors associated with sexual harassment?

A

Verbal - Sexual compliments, pressure for dates, ridicule with harsh sexual message, etc. Nonverbal - Leering, ogling, or sexually suggestive cartoons, notes, drawings, pictures, calendars, etc. Physical - Touches and brushes, hugging, patting, “footsies,” etc.

188
Q

Sexual Harassment? It could be, if…

A

-Repetitive -One-sided -Unwanted -Intimidating -Can’t get offender to stop

189
Q

Sexual Harassment? It probably isn’t, if…

A

-Single incident -Mutual -Acceptable -Agreeable -Person says stop, and offender stops

190
Q

Why must you be concerned with sexual harassment in your organization?

A

Sexual harassment is a high concern to the Air Force because it creates environments that: - Are intimidating, offensive, and hostile - Affects the well-being and personal security of Air Force people - Negatively impacts the mission

191
Q

How have you seen human relations incidents impact work centers throughout your career?

A
  • Communication suffers - Workers can’t concentrate on their jobs - Tasks fail to be accomplished - Time usually spent completing tasks is now spent dealing with these issues - Interpersonal relations are strained - Quality of life suffers - Morale suffers
192
Q

Concerning human relations issues, what must be your primary focus as a supervisor and leader?

A
  • Detecting adverse morale trends and devoting total effort to resolving the causes of a problem before it becomes a major issue - Providing feedback to commanders, immediate supervisors, officers, and staff concerning trends or problem areas - Establishing and maintaining rapport and communication with subordinates to remain attuned to their needs - Developing your individual subordinates into a cohesive team - Ensuring enlisted members are treated fairly by all agencies and activities, both on and off base - AFI 36-2618, para 4.1.2.3.2, tells NCOs to help subordinates resolve problems and see referral agencies when necessary - DO NOT IGNORE the situation - Investigate the circumstances - Devote total effort to resolving the problem - Appropriately address the issue with work center personnel to dispel rumors and maintain mission focus - Refer to MEO if necessary
193
Q

How would you explain the complaint process when dealing with unlawful discrimination and/or harassment?

A

Complaint - An allegation of unlawful discrimination based on race, color, national origin, religion, or sex. Formal Complaint - Allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment that is submitted in writing on AF Form 1587-1 to the authority designated for receipt of such complaints. Informal Complaint - Allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment, made either orally or in writing on an AF Form 1587-1, that is not submitted as a formal complaint.

194
Q

What are your responsibilities as a supervisor/leader as it relates to equal opportunity and treatment?

A
  • Are able to present complaints in an atmosphere not conducive to retaliation. - Are encouraged to discuss problems and complaints. - Know the various channels and procedures for filing complaints or otherwise seeking outside assistance. - Know that unlawful discrimination is illegal and will not be tolerated. - Implement preventive measures to promote EOT in the work center - Take action to address allegations of discrimination
195
Q

How does sexual, suggestive, or demeaning language and behaviors influence the climate of a work center or a unit?”

A
  • This kind of behavior is demeaning to all Airmen. - It encourages more of the same kind of behavior - Left unchecked, it could escalate along the continuum of harm.
196
Q

What skills and knowledge do subordinate supervisors need to help prevent sexual assault? Respond to sexual assault?

A
  • Ignore it. I don’t consider this inappropriate behavior. - Take people aside and ask them to be more respectful. - Make it clear, but in a joking way, that the behavior is inappropriate.
197
Q

As a leader, how can you support a climate that helps prevent sexual assault?

A
  • model appropriate behavior myself- will not make sexist or derogatory jokes or comments. - let my subordinate supervisors know that I do not tolerate sexist or otherwise harmful language or behavior, and I expect them to uphold this expectation as well. - commend people when they take action to uphold this climate. - When I see or hear inappropriate behavior intervene as it is happening. - remove the offending person from the situation. - take those who behave inappropriately aside afterward and talk about it. - encourage bystanders to act. - focus on facilitators as well as potential perpetrators.
198
Q

What are your guidelines for immediate response?

A
  • Keep in mind that first response has great impact on the victim’s ability to move forward and through the trauma. Negative responses can be devastating to victims and result in further psychological harm. - Attend to the victim’s immediate needs. If the victim comes to you right after an assault, for example, she or he may need medical assistance. - Contact the SARC. Get professional help immediately. - Listen with sensitivity and support the victim. Sometimes she or he just needs to talk. Do not judge.
199
Q

When do you report a sexual assault to your commander?

A

If an individual comes to you to report a sexual assault and you are in that person’s chain of command, you are a mandatory reporter and the victim will lose the ability to make a restricted report. Unrestricted Reporting: An official investigation is conducted. This is initiated by reporting a sexual assault to chain of command, law enforcement, or the SARC. Restricted Reporting: A sexual assault victim can confidentially disclose the details of her or his assault to specified individuals without triggering the official investigative process. Victims who want to do this may only report the assault to the SARC, Victim Advocate, or a Health Care Provider.

200
Q

With unrestricted and restricted reporting, the victim is entitled to medical treatment and counseling. What are the important differences between the two?

A
  • There is no official investigation under restricted reporting. - Restricted reporting is confidential, unless there is an imminent threat to the victim or another person. - Only active duty military personnel are eligible for restricted reporting. - Some victims want to pursue unrestricted reporting immediately so that the crime is investigated and the perpetrator held accountable. Others, though, do not.
201
Q

Why do so few victims report sexual assault?

A
  • They are embarrassed. - They are afraid that people will talk about them. - They are worried about their careers. - They are worried about their reputations. - They are afraid people will not believe them. - They think it is better for their unit if they do not report.
202
Q

How might trust and unit cohesion break down while a sexual assault is being investigated?

A
  • People start to take sides - Victim cannot trust anyone - Rumors develop - Other people feel that they cannot trust anyone - Schedules are interrupted and getting the work done is more difficult - Subtle or not so subtle harassment or intimidation or retaliation
203
Q

How do you restore trust and unit cohesion?

A
  • Be alert to the harmful effects that sexual assault can have on individuals and on your unit, and act accordingly - Communicate with your unit to stop rumors, blaming, and taking sides - Take care of victims and get them the help they need - Think ahead, anticipate problems, and provide solutions - Support your subordinate supervisors - Make sure the alleged perpetrators are treated fairly as well
204
Q

workplace violence intervention and prevention plan: Section I: Prevention

A

Workforce education and training that addresses: - Organization’s workplace violence policy - Phone numbers for quick reference during a crisis or an emergency - How to recognize and report incidents of violent, intimidating, threatening, and disruptive behavior - To ALWAYS treat threats in a serious manner and act as though the person may carry out the threat - Encouragement to report incidents and the procedures to do so - Ways of preventing or defusing volatile situations or aggressive behavior - Ways to deal with hostile persons - Managing anger - Techniques and skills to resolve conflicts - Stress management, relaxation techniques, wellness training - Security procedures, e.g., the location and operation of safety devices such as alarm systems - Personal security measures - Programs, agencies, organizations and resources that assist employees in resolving conflicts

205
Q

workplace violence intervention and prevention plan: Section II: Intervention/Initial Response

A

Workforce education and training that addresses: - Crisis response plans (Emergency plans in case of actual or potential violence) - Procedures for calling for help - Procedures for calling for medical assistance - Procedures for notifying the proper authorities or whoever is acting in their place, security personnel and the police - Emergency escape procedures and routes - Safe places to escape inside and outside of the facility - Procedures to secure the work area where the incident took place - Procedures for accounting for all employees if a facility is evacuated - Procedures for identifying personnel who may be called upon to perform medical or rescue duties - Training and educating employees in workplace violence issues and the emergency action plan

206
Q

workplace violence intervention and prevention plan: Section III: Recovery

A

Following a violent incident, employees experience three stages of “crisis reactions” to varying degrees. Workforce education and training should address: - What to do immediately after violence - Alerting the traumatic stress response team - Providing support to survivors - Providing support to witnesses - Arranging for follow-up care and support of individuals or groups as needed Included in your response may be the three stages of “crisis reaction” following a violent incident Stage One. In this stage, employees experiences emotional reactions characterized by shock, disbelief, denial, or numbness. Physically, the employee experiences shock or a fight-or- flight survival reaction in which the heart rate increases, perceptual senses become heightened or distorted, and adrenaline levels increase to meet a real or perceived threat. Stage Two. This is the “impact” stage where employees may feel a variety of intense emotion, including anger, rage, fear, terror, grief, sorrow, confusion, helplessness, guilt, depression, or withdrawal. This stage may last a few days, a few weeks, or even a few months. Stage Three. This is the “reconciliation stage” in which employees try to make sense out of the event, understand its impact, and through trial and error, reach closure of the event so it does not interfere with their ability to function and grow. This stage may be a long-term process.

207
Q

workplace violence intervention and prevention plan: Section IV: Follow-up / Evaluation

A

Comprehensive workplace violence intervention and prevention plans include a mechanism: - To evaluate what took place to determine if everything was done that could have been done to have prevented the incident and to determine what can be done to prevent it from happening again - That requires regular evaluation and updating of the plan - To identify lessons learned and procedures for debriefing participants - To review policies on troubled employees and crisis response actions

208
Q

Define Adaptability.

A

is the ability to adjust self to changed, unexpected or ambiguous situations by actively seeking information and by demonstrating openness and support of different and innovative change ideas.

209
Q

Name the three elements of adaptability.

A

Cognitive Flexibility, Emotional Flexibility, Dispositional Flexibility

210
Q

List three adaptability skills you can improve to develop flexibility.

A

Cognitive Development, Emotional Development, Dispositional Development

211
Q

An example of _______________________ ________________________ is having a working Plan A; while having a Plan B, C, and D or in other words, having the ability to have multiple scenarios in mind so that changes can be made due to changed, unexpected, or unclear situations.

A

Cognitive Flexibility

212
Q

NCOs with _______________________ ________________________have the ability to change their approach to dealing with their own and others’ emotions.

A

Emotional Flexibility

213
Q

A leader who displays _______________________ _________________________ operates from a place of optimism grounded in realism and openness. They acknowledge bad situations while imaging a better future, at the same time.

A

Dispositional Flexibility

214
Q

Change Sponsor

A

initiate change because they have the power to determine why, when, and how changes occur.

215
Q

Change Agent

A

are responsible for implementing change initiated by the change sponsor.

216
Q

Change Target

A

are those key players and stakeholders who actually undergo the change, the ones most affected by the new policies, procedures, etc.

217
Q

_______________________ _____________________is a proactively coordinated and structured period of transition from situation A to situation B using a systematic approach that addresses planning for the change, implementing, monitoring, and controlling the change effort, and effecting the change by minimizing resistance through the involvement of key players and stakeholders…resulting in lasting change within an organization.

A

Change Management

218
Q

Name the two change cycles.

A

Directive Change Cycle and the Participative Change Cycle

219
Q

Name the phases of organizational change.

A

Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing

220
Q

Mayo’s four levels of change present in people with their characteristics. Group Behavior

A

This change is the hardest level of change especially if you have to change customs and traditions that have been around for many years.

221
Q

Mayo’s four levels of change present in people with their characteristics. Attitude

A

Changes in this are more difficult to make because this level is characterized by strong positive or negative emotions.

222
Q

Mayo’s four levels of change present in people with their characteristics. Individual Behavior

A

Changing this is more challenging than change at the previous levels because people don’t like to change the way they do things

223
Q

Mayo’s four levels of change present in people with their characteristics. Knowledge

A

This change is generally the easiest change to bring about. Change at this level occurs after acquiring new information.

224
Q

Name the five individual reactions to change.

A

Innovators, Early Adapters, Early Majority, Late Majority, Laggards

225
Q

_____________________ focuses on generating efficiencies and improving combat capabilities across the Air Force and applies to all processes associated with the Air Force mission.

A

AFSO 21

226
Q

_____________________ _____________________ is the strategic, never-ending, incremental refinement of the way you perform tasks.

A

Continuous Improvement

227
Q

Just Do It

A

is a quick fix to a process irritant; a simple answer to an obstacle in an individual process.

228
Q

Rapid Improvement Events (RIE)

A

usually last a week and apply a series of problem solving steps to determine root causes of problems, eliminate waste, set improvement targets, and establish clear performance measures to reach desired effects.

229
Q

High Value Initiatives (HVI)

A

are more complex and involve a cross functional team to ensure that identified improvements are incorporated into the day-to-day operations of an organization.

230
Q

Increase productivity of your people

A

Doing more of the right things with the availability rates same or less effort

231
Q

Increase critical equipment

A

All assets available at a greater rate from aircraft, to information technology, to range, space, etc.

232
Q

Improve response time and agility

A

Quicker response time to the Warfighter

233
Q

Sustain safe and reliable operations

A

Reduce injury rates, increase people safety, and safe use of materiel assets

234
Q

Improve energy efficiency

A

Make energy conservation a consideration in everything you do

235
Q

Define decision making.

A

is the mental (cognitive) process that results in the selection of a course of action from among several alternative scenarios.

236
Q

How would you summarize System 1 Reactive Thinking?

A

is thinking that relies heavily on situational cues, prominent memories, trial and error, and heuristic thinking (discovering solutions for self) to arrive quickly and confidently at judgments, particularly when situations are familiar and immediate action is required.

237
Q

How would you summarize System 2 Reflective Thinking?

A

is broad and informed problem-solving and deliberate decision making. It is useful for judgments in unfamiliar situations, for processing abstract concepts, and for deliberating when there is time for planning and more comprehensive consideration.

238
Q

Systematic decision analysis forces you to stand back from the situation and evaluate what four components?

A

Decision Statement, Determine Objectives, Locate Alternatives, Risk Analysis

239
Q

What purpose does the Decision Statement accomplish in the decision making process?

A

Determines your objectives and provides a specific level of success or resolution

240
Q

Name the four distinct processes within the Kepner-Tregoe Problem Solving and Decision Making process.

A

Situation Appraisal, Problem Analysis, Decision Analysis, Potential Problem Analysis

241
Q

What is the relationship between OODA Loop and the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process?

A

You can never accomplish S-1 thinking and S-2 thinking independently. The two systems work together in a “push pull” fashion with S-2 being the initiator. When encountering a familiar situation, System 1 Thinking is used to quickly run through all four steps of the OODA Loop. When you encounter an unfamiliar situation, System 2 Thinking comes into play, which requires a systematic and deliberate process for solving problems such as the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process.

242
Q

What is the relationship between AFSO 21 and the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process?

A

is about constantly finding efficiencies to channel saved monies toward improving combat capabilities across the Air Force, and the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process is a team-centered, systematic, common-sense problem solving approach aimed at increasing combat capability, making Air Force units more effective and efficient, and enhancing and enabling the Warfighter.

243
Q

What is the importance of distinguishing causes from symptoms and identifying primary causes?

A

The better you understand the problem, the better the solution. Only by thoroughly evaluating a problem are you able to judge the impact of selected and alternative solutions.

244
Q

The basic communication process includes the following four elements:

A

Sender, message, receiver, and feedback

245
Q

What are the three ways communication flows?

A

a. Upward Communication b. Downward Communication c. Lateral Communication

246
Q

List the four General Purposes of AF communication and give an example of each one.

A

a. Direct b. Inform c. Persuade d. Inspire

247
Q

List each phase of effective communication process in the squares below.

A

-Diagnose Communication Needs -Prepare the Communication -Deliver the Message Equals Effective Communication

248
Q

Which one of the following is NOT an example of a general purpose? a. Inspire b. Inform c. Convince d. Direct

A

c. Convince

249
Q

The best way to narrow the topic is to:

A

a. List all of the major aspects of the broad area. b. Include all significant and insignificant details. c. Ask the audience to prioritize the subtopics for you.

250
Q

Why is the specific objective so important to effective communication?

A

Bottom line of communication

251
Q

Analyzing your audience step includes analyzing the sending, receiving, and external audiences. a. True b. False

A

b. False

252
Q

major parameters that affect supervisory communication: Quantity

A

Amount of product to complete

253
Q

major parameters that affect supervisory communication: Timeliness

A

Amount of time to prepare

254
Q

major parameters that affect supervisory communication: Type

A

Amount of product to complete

255
Q

Topic Sentences In the space provided, write the letter of the sentence that best expresses the main idea (topic sentence) of this paragraph. (a) Is the training provided for these air traffic controllers adequate? (b) Are there sufficient regulations on private aircraft to reduce the possibility of their flying in airspace used by commercial airlines? (c) Questions abound about the safety of air travel in today’s crowded skies. (d) Finally, are the current regulations covering the aging equipment of commercial airlines sufficient to ensure the safest possible air travel? (e) Are there enough air traffic controllers to regulate the current flow of air traffic? Topic sentence is _____

A

(c) Questions abound about the safety of air travel in today’s crowded skies.

256
Q

Unity In the space provided, write the letter of the sentence that does not belong in the following paragraph. (a) The practice of veterinary medicine today is becoming increasingly more specialized. (b) Thus, it is not uncommon, even in midsize cities, to find veterinarians certified as specialists in dentistry, cardiology, and surgery. (c) Many veterinarians have not read James Herriot’s books on the practice of unspecialized veterinary medicine in England in the 1920s. (d) These specialists must take additional course work after they have completed their D.V.M., must pass rigorous exams in their chosen area, and must practice veterinary medicine for a minimum of 2 years. (e) Both the number of specialties and the number of doctors electing to become certified in specialties are increasing, promising to change the nature of veterinary medicine in the near future. Sentence ______ does not belong.

A

(c) Many veterinarians have not read James Herriot’s books on the practice of unspecialized veterinary medicine in England in the 1920s.

257
Q

Unity The following paragraph contains ideas or details that do not support the central idea. Circle the number next to the sentence that best expresses the main idea (topic sentence) of the paragraph and draw lines through any unrelated content in the paragraph. (1) Next to most homes, there is a garden where fresh vegetables are gathered for canning. (2) They use coal or wood burning stoves for heating and cooking. (3) Their homes do not have electricity or indoor bathrooms or running water. (4) The towns can’t afford to put in sewer or power lines because they don’t receive adequate funding from the state and federal governments. (5) In the southern part of the state, some people still live much as they did a century ago. (6) Small, nearby pastures support livestock, including cattle, pigs, horses, and chickens. (7) Most of the people have cars or trucks, but the vehicles are old and junky from traveling on unpaved roads. Topic Sentence is ______ Unrelated content in sentences _____________

A

(5) In the southern part of the state, some people still live much as they did a century ago. (4) The towns can’t afford to put in sewer or power lines because they don’t receive adequate funding from the state and federal governments. (7) Most of the people have cars or trucks, but the vehicles are old and junky from traveling on unpaved roads.

258
Q

_______ _______ help you create a fairly accurate “blueprint” of all your thoughts and with patterns of organization.

A

Mind Maps

259
Q

The Free Writing Rules are:

A

a. Type/write whatever comes to mind and don’t worry about its relationship to the topic - suspend all judgment. b. Do not look back at what you wrote, but keep typing or writing. c. Do not worry about spelling, grammar, complete sentences and thoughts, paragraphs, transitions, etc. d. After exhausting your thoughts, walk away without looking over your work while you take a cooling-off period.

260
Q

It is not necessary to support your communication with sources or references. a. True b. False

A

b. False

261
Q

Proof support includes:

A

a. Definition b. Statistics c. Example

262
Q

One of the most important steps toward effectively reaching your specific objective is _______________________ communication to follow a logical sequence.

A

organizing

263
Q

A typical conclusion has three components: attention, purpose, and overview. a. True b. False

A

b. False

264
Q

By using an outline, you can concentrate on one point at a time to ensure ideas are fully developed. a. True b. False

A

a. True

265
Q

A way to show connections between ideas is to use ______________________.

A

Transitions

266
Q

Choose the correct answer that completes the sentence below. An effective paragraph contains a _________________________________________. a. topic sentence and two supporting sentences b. maximum of five sentences c. minimum of four sentences

A

a. topic sentence and two supporting sentences

267
Q

Paragraph unity means

A

Having a single idea, leading the reader from sentence to sentence, and using transitional words.

268
Q

A topic sentence describes and clarifies the other sentences. a. True b. False

A

b. False

269
Q

Describe the order of the sources for your research plan according to your reading.

A

a. Yourself, others, references sources

270
Q

_____________________ ___________ ___________ is an effort on the part of the United States’ Government to understand and engage key audiences in order to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of the United States Government interests, objectives, and policies.

A

Strategic Communication

271
Q

List four ways you can play a role in Strategic Communication?

A

a. Know the Air Force Message b. Tell the Air Force Story c. Tell what I do and how it supports my wing’s mission and policy d. Stay in my lane

272
Q

Explain SAPP. Under each letter, list what the letter stands for and give an example.

A

S- security: OPSEC A-accuracy: Telling the story correctly P-propriety: politeness, respect, decency P-policy: laws, DOS

273
Q

Define “Outside your Lane.”

A

means that it is outside of their responsibility. It’s meant to tell others to mind your own business.

274
Q

Give three examples of the impact of operating “Outside your Lane.”

A
  • Huge negative impact on your professional career, national security, the Air Force mission, and the public’s perception of the Air Force and the military. - Your personal life could be disrupted (career ending) and you could discredit yourself, the enlisted corps, your unit, the Air Force, and the country. - Impact your fellow Airmen in harm’s way. - Impact the public’s perception of the mission.
275
Q

Give two examples telling why is it important to tell the Air Force story?

A
  • be an ambassador for the Air Force. - give the American public accurate and relevant information.
276
Q

Give three examples of proper media engagement.

A
  • Never divulge classified information. - Stay in your lane on your subject area. - Don’t lie. Stay factual. - Give your opinion but ensure people know it is yours.
277
Q

In general, the Armed Forces view personal Web sites and blogs positively, and it respects the rights of its members to use them as a medium of self-expression. However, you must abide by certain restrictions to ensure good order and discipline. As a military member, you’re on duty 24-hours a day, 365-days a year, and your actions are subject to the ____________________.

A

UCMJ

278
Q

List four of the Air Force’s tips for using new media.

A
  • Identify yourself (but not risking safety). - Put safety first —no death - defying stunts! - Be aware of the image you present. - Use common sense —don’t say things you would not say in front of your mother. - Take calculated risks. - Engage! Remember, the enemy is engaging back!
279
Q

Give three examples explaining the strategic impact of modern communication.

A
  • Negative impact on the Air Force or the nation. - Negative impact on public perception. - National Security - Negatively impact missions
280
Q

Even if you are not representing the Air Force, why is it important that you maintain a positive image?

A

Every Airman is an ambassador for the service. Even if you are not representing the Air Force, the audience may not interpret the information that way.

281
Q

______________ is NOT an example of an emerging channel of modern communication. a. blog b. podcast c. cable television d. Twitter

A

c. cable television

282
Q

What are considerations, benefits, and limitations of communicating Air Force or DOD-related information via personal social media websites?

A
  • OPSEC - Stay In Your Lane and don’t discuss issues that are not related to your AFSC. - Replace error with fact, not argument. - Identify to readers that the views you express are yours alone and not of the Air Force. - Be the first to respond to your own mistakes. - Be careful what you write and upload. - Be aware of the image you present. - Avoid being offensive. - Make sure you don’t infringe on trademarks. - The Air Force cautions you to avoid endorsements. - NEVER use the Air Force name to endorse or promote products, opinions, or causes.
283
Q

You cannot release ___________ ___________ (information that is not available to the public and would not be released under the Freedom of Information Act) except to authorized individuals with the proper security clearance and a need to know.

A

Classified Information

284
Q

How does OPSEC play a vital role in protecting the nation?

A

Because there are many countries and organizations in the world that would like to harm the United States and destroy its influence as a world leader.

285
Q

“Staying in your lane” means a. not sharing any Air Force information with strangers, unless approved by your commander. b. discussing your area of expertise, but NOT discussing a friend’s area of expertise. c. NEVER discussing your own or your friend’s area of expertise. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

A

b. discussing your area of expertise, but NOT discussing a friend’s area of expertise.

286
Q

Appropriate use of social media would be: a. Uploading a video to Facebook that you made of your Afghan base to share your experience with family and friends. b. Telling about an enemy engagement that just happened on your blog, and then uploading pictures to Blue Tube. c. Both a and b. d. None of the above.

A

d. None of the above

287
Q

Define interpersonal communication

A

is a face-to-face, multidirectional exchange of verbal messages and nonverbal signals between two or more people for the purpose of gaining a shared meaning.

288
Q

List the three components of interpersonal communication.

A

-Depth -Scope -Suitability Equals Interpersonal Communication

289
Q

The three factors influencing interpersonal communication are:

A

a. Knowing Yourself b. Knowing Others c. The Message

290
Q

List an example of each paralanguage characteristic under the correct heading.

A

Rate: Number of words spoken Diction: Articulation Pronunciation Tone: Manner of expression, Relative pitch Rhythm: Recurring patterns of variation/ rises in speech volume, pitch and sound Fluency: Pauses Volume: Volume Quality: Fidelity of timbre of sound

291
Q

List the two barriers to interaction.

A

a. Competitive Interrupting b. Overusing the Content-Only Response

292
Q

Explain the differences between translate and interpret.

A

translate- To turn into one’s own or another language, often in written format. interpret- To explain or tell the meaning of; present in understandable terms.

293
Q

List five examples of non-verbal behavior.

A

a. Gestures b. Facial expressions c. Eye contact d. Body language e. Positioning

294
Q

Why is the setting important in interpersonal communication? List three examples.

A

a. Location b. Intimate space c. Social and consultative spaces d. Public space e. Time

295
Q

Identify the two types of feedback.

A

a. Rehabilitative b. Preventive

296
Q

Explain when you should provide negative feedback?

A

Whenever subordinate performance changes and/or falls below standards and expectations

297
Q

Explain when you should provide positive feedback?

A

Whenever behavior improves organizational effectiveness, (high quality/quantity of work, ethical, promotes teamwork and harmony, etc.)

298
Q

Compare/Define the difference of each: Feedback versus Counseling

A

FEEDBACK: • Feedback is the active communication process where you evaluate or judge subordinate performance and respond by either promoting a change in behavior or by reinforcing present performance. • The feedback process controls effectiveness through evaluations and judgments, whereas counseling works to maintain or improve effectiveness through guidance. • Feedback provides meaningful feedback to individuals on expectations and advice on how well they are meeting those expectations, and advice on how to better meet those expectations. The second purpose is to provide a reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance. The third purpose is to provide…senior NCO evaluation boards, the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS). COUNSELING: • Counseling is a type of communication used to empower subordinates to achieve goals. It is more than simply telling subordinates how they are doing, that is feedback. Good counseling focuses on developing subordinates’ abilities to achieve individual and unit goals and when performed correctly, it guides subordinates toward appropriate changes in behavior. • There are times when a leader is required to counsel, but effective unit managers realize there are also times when they must choose to counsel

299
Q

List five Guidelines for a more productive counseling session.

A

a. Outline b. Environment c. Length of Sessions d. Inform Counselees e. Plan of Action

300
Q

What are the three approaches to counseling?

A

a. Supervisor-Centered b. Nondirective or Subordinate-Centered c. Combined

301
Q

________-_________ _________ is simply a style of communicating where the subordinate is not a passive listener, but a vital contributor in the communication process.

A

Subordinate - Centered Communication

302
Q

An important aspect of managerial roles in interpersonal communication is ______.

A

assertiveness

303
Q

List the five concerns that impact your conversations.

A

a. Concern for clarity b. Concern for not hurting the other’s feelings c. Concern for nonimposition d. Concern for avoiding negative evaluation by the hearer e. Concern for effectiveness

304
Q

List three things that impact the work center climate.

A

a. Dehumanized climate b. Overhumanized Climate c. Situational Climate

305
Q

Explain the basic assumptions of a Dehumanized and Overhumanized climate.

A

Dehumanized-The basic assumptions of the dehumanized climate are that subordinates are lazy, will not take responsibility, lack desire to achieve significant results, demonstrate inability to direct their own behavior, show indifference to organizational needs, prefer to be led by others, and avoid making decisions whenever possible. Overhumanized- The basic assumptions of the over humanized approach are that human relations are more important than organizational objectives, conflicts and tensions should be reduced at all costs, motivation of subordinates should be almost totally intrinsic and self-directed, and participative decision making is always superior to decisions made by one or a few.

306
Q

What are the three assumptions basic to establishing a situational climate?

A

a. A flexible climate that can adapt to the complex and changing nature of individual and organizational needs is superior to a fixed climate. b. Individuals are not naturally passive, resistant to organizational needs, or reluctant to assume responsibility. c. Since individuals are not lazy, you can structure work to bring individual and organizational goals in line with one another.

307
Q

List at least three ways the use of good interpersonal skills affect the climate in a work center.

A

Subordinates - who have been helped by a supervisor’s interpersonal skills can empathize with others in similar situations - learn to be mutually supportive and embrace innovation - often help coworkers in much the same way they were helped by managers with effective interpersonal skills Peers - By sharing ideas and recommendations, coworkers establish a network of cooperation Others in the Chain of Command - Superiors place trust in subordinates who are sincere in expressing their strengths, weaknesses, and goals - Based upon the open and supportive relationship you have with your manager, other coworkers will seek to establish similar relationships with their managers