NCLEX - Week 2 Flashcards
A nurse is administering a medication to a patient. The patient asks the nurse to explain the difference between the generic name and the brand name of the drug. What is the best response by the nurse?
a. “The generic name is the original chemical name and is only used for a short time, then the company develops a brand name.”
b. “There is no difference between the generic and brand name, it is just a marketing strategy.”
c. “The generic name is the official name given by the US Adopted Names Council and the brand name is the name given by the company that markets the drug.”
d. “Generic drugs are less effective than the brand-name drug.”
c. “The generic name is the official name given by the US Adopted Names Council and the brand name is the name given by the company that markets the drug.”
Rationale: The generic name of a drug is the official name given by the US Adopted Names Council. The brand name is the name given by the company that manufactures and markets the drug.
A patient is prescribed a new medication that was just released on the market. The patient is concerned about the safety of the drug since it is so new. What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to provide to this patient?
a. “You should not be concerned because the FDA thoroughly tests all drugs before they are released to the public.”
b. “It is important to be aware that new drugs may cause adverse effects that were not detected during clinical trials. You should report any unusual symptoms to your provider.”
c. “If you experience any side effects, you can simply stop taking the medication.”
d. “All new drugs are safe because they have to undergo rigorous testing.”
b. “It is important to be aware that new drugs may cause adverse effects that were not detected during clinical trials. You should report any unusual symptoms to your provider.”
Rationale: Premarketing clinical trials cannot detect all adverse effects of a new drug. It is important for patients to be aware of this and report any unusual symptoms to their pro
A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the different phases of drug development. Which of the following statements by a student indicates the need for further teaching?
a. “Preclinical testing involves testing the drug on animals.”
b. “Clinical testing involves testing the drug on humans in four phases.”
c. “Phase IV clinical trials are conducted before the drug is released to the market” d. “Phase I clinical trials usually involve healthy volunteers.”
c. “Phase IV clinical trials are conducted before the drug is released to the market”
Rationale: Phase IV clinical trials, or post-marketing surveillance, occur after the drug has been released to the market.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a Schedule II drug. The nurse understands that Schedule II drugs:
a. “Have a low potential for abuse and are readily available over the counter”
b. “Have a high potential for abuse and require strict record keeping when dispensed.”
c. “Can be obtained without a prescription” d. “Are not considered to be addictive”
b. “Have a high potential for abuse and require strict record keeping when dispensed.”
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and require strict record-keeping when dispensed. Every time a controlled substance is purchased or dispensed, the transfer must be recorded.
What piece of landmark drug legislation in the United States set rules for the manufacturing and distribution of drugs considered to have a potential for abuse?
a. The Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
b. The Harris- Kefauver Amendments to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1962 c. The Controlled Substances Act of 1970
d. The FDA Modernization Act of 1997
c. The Controlled Substances Act of 1970
Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 set the rules for the manufacturing and distribution of drugs that are considered to have abuse potential.
A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication list and notes that the patient is taking a drug with a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean?
a. The drug is very expensive.
b. The drug has a small difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose.
c. The drug can be safely taken by pregnant women.
d. The drug does not interact with any other drugs.
b. The drug has a small difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose.
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means there is a small difference between a dose that is therapeutic and a dose that is toxic. Close monitoring of serum drug levels is often required to ensure patient safety and prevent adverse effects.
A patient is prescribed an over-the-counter (OTC) medication for a cold. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to emphasize to the patient regarding OTC medications?
a. “OTC medications are safe and do not have any side effects.”
b. “You can take any OTC medication without consulting your doctor.”
c. “OTC medications are less expensive than prescription medications, so they are not as effective.”
d. “Even though you can purchase OTC medications without a prescription, it is important to read the label carefully and follow the instructions.”
medications without a prescription, it is important to read the label carefully and follow the instructions.”
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Rationale: It is essential to teach patients that although OTC medications are available without a prescription, they should still be treated with caution. Patients need to read labels carefully, follow instructions and consult their healthcare provider with any questions
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A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safety of taking medications during pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?
a. “It is perfectly safe to take any medication during pregnancy.”
b. “You should avoid taking any medications during pregnancy.”
c. “It is important to talk to your healthcare provider before taking any medications during pregnancy, as some medications can be harmful to the developing fetus.”
d. “All medications are assigned a pregnancy category that indicates their safety.”
c. “It is important to talk to your healthcare provider before taking any medications during pregnancy, as some medications can be harmful to the developing fetus.”
Rationale: It is crucial to emphasize to pregnant women that they should always consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medications. Some drugs can have harmful effects on the fetus.
A patient with a history of liver disease is prescribed a medication. What is an important consideration for the nurse when administering medications to this patient?
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a. “Patients with liver disease may require lower doses of medication due to impaired drug metabolism.”
b. “Patients with liver disease should not take any medications.”
c. “The patient’s liver disease will not affect the way the medication works.”
d. “The patient will need to take the medication on an empty stomach.”
a. “Patients with liver disease may require lower doses of medication due to impaired drug metabolism.”
Rationale: Liver disease can impair drug metabolism, which may increase the risk of drug toxicity. Patients with liver disease may need dosage adjustments or alternative medications.
What federal agency is responsible for approving new drugs and monitoring the safety of drugs after they are released to the market?
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
b. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
d. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Rationale: The FDA is responsible for protecting the public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs. They approve new drugs and monitor drug safety.
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a patient. Which of the following is not one of the six rights of medication administration?
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a. Right Patient
b. Right Route
c. Right Drug
d. Right Cost
d. Right Cost
Rationale: The six rights of medication administration are right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation.
A patient tells the nurse they are taking several over-the-counter medications in addition to their prescribed medications. Why is it important for the nurse to assess for potential drug interactions?
a. OTC medications are not as effective as prescription medications
b. OTC medications can interact with prescribed medications, leading to adverse effects.
c. The patient does not need to worry about drug interactions with OTC medications.
d. OTC medications can only be purchased in small quantities.
b. OTC medications can interact with prescribed medications, leading to adverse effects.
Even though they are readily available, it is important for nurses to assess for potential drug interactions with OTC medications. OTC medications can interact with prescription medications, leading to potential adverse effects or decreased effectiveness of the prescribed medication.
Which of the following statements about the properties of an ideal drug is false?
a. An ideal drug should be effective in treating the condition it is prescribed for. b. An ideal drug should be safe and not cause harmful side effects.
c. An ideal drug should be selective and only produce the desired therapeutic effect.
d. An ideal drug should have a very complex generic name to avoid confusion.
d. An ideal drug should have a very complex generic name to avoid confusion
Rationale: It is actually desirable for an ideal drug to have a simple generic name so that it is easy to remember and there is less potential for confusion when prescribing or administering the drug.
Which of the following acts allows for accelerated approval of drugs for AIDS and cancer?
a. Changes in regulations to the FDA rules in 1992
b. The Prescription Drug User Fee Act of 1992
c. The FDA Modernization Act of 1997
d. The Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act of 2002
a. Changes in regulations to the FDA rules in 1992
Rationale: The FDA made changes to their regulations in 1992 to allow for accelerated approval of drugs for AIDS and cancer.
Which clinical trial phase uses patients to test the drug?
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a. Phase I
b. Phases II & III
c. Preclinical testing
d. Phase IV
b. Phases II & III
Rationale: Phases II & III of clinical testing use patients to test the safety and effectiveness of a new drug.
What resource provides the most up-to-date information regarding a drug that a nurse is unfamiliar with?
a. Ask a colleague who has administered the drug before.
b. Consult a reputable drug guide or pharmacology textbook
c. Search the internet for patient testimonials.
d. Rely on the patient’s knowledge of the drug.
b. Consult a reputable drug guide or pharmacology textbook
Rationale:
While it may be helpful to consult with colleagues or the patient, the most accurate and reliable source of information about an unfamiliar drug would be a reputable drug guide or pharmacology textbook. These sources are continuously updated and evidence-based.
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What is the primary purpose of the Pediatric Research Equity Act?
a. To restrict the marketing of drugs to children
b. To ensure that medications are affordable for children.
c. To promote research on the safety and effectiveness of drugs in children
d. To prevent the use of placebos in clinical trials involving children.
c. To promote research on the safety and effectiveness of drugs in children
Rationale: The Pediatric Research Equity Act (PREA) of 2003 encourages pharmaceutical companies to conduct studies on the safety and effectiveness of drugs in children. It offers incentives such as a 6-month patent extension to manufacturers who evaluate drugs already on the market for their use in children.
Which organization identifies drugs that are hazardous for handling and publishes guidance on the safe handling of these drugs?
a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
c. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
Rationale:
The NIOSH is the organization that identifies drugs that are hazardous for handling and publishes guidance on safe handling.
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Which type of drug name is often lengthy and complex and describes the chemical structure of the drug?
a. Generic Name
b. Brand Name
c. Chemical Name
d. Proprietary Name
c. Chemical Name
Rationale: The chemical name provides a detailed description of the chemical structure of the drug using nomenclature of chemistry
A drug that elicits only the response for which it is given is said to have which ideal property?
a. Effectiveness
b. Safety
c. Selectivity
d. Predictability
c. Selectivity
Rationale: Selectivity refers to a drug’s ability to elicit only the response for which it is given.
The nurse is educating a patient on a newly prescribed medication. What is the most important reason for the nurse to educate the patient on the generic name of the drug?
a. The generic name is easier to pronounce b. The generic name is shorter than the brand name.
c. Using the generic name can help prevent confusion if the patient receives the medication from different pharmacies or providers.
d. The generic name is the only name the patient needs to know.
c. Using the generic name can help prevent confusion if the patient receives the medication from different pharmacies or providers.
Rationale: Educating patients on generic drug names is crucial because it helps to prevent confusion if the patient receives medication from different pharmacies or providers who may use different brand names for the same medication
Which of the following is true regarding the use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
a. OTC medications do not have any side effects.
b. OTC medications are always less expensive than prescription medications. c. Patients should inform their healthcare providers about all OTC medications they are taking, including herbal supplements. d. It is safe to take any OTC medication, regardless of pre-existing health conditions.
c. Patients should inform their healthcare providers about all OTC medications they are taking, including herbal supplements.
Rationale: Even though they are easily accessible, patients need to inform their healthcare providers about any OTC medications they are taking. OTC medications can have side effects, can be expensive and can interact with prescription medications
Which type of study is considered the most reliable way to objectively assess the effectiveness of a new drug therapy?
a. Case Study
b. Cohort Study
c. Randomized Controlled Trial
d. Observational Study
c. Randomized Controlled Trial
Rationale: A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is considered to be the gold standard for assessing the efficacy and safety of new drug therapies because of its rigorous methodology. It minimizes bias and allows for a more objective evaluation.
Which of the following is a potential drawback of the accelerated approval process for new drugs?
a. It delays the availability of potentially life-saving medications.
b. It increases the cost of drug development.
c. Manufacturers may fail to conduct required post-marketing surveillance studies to confirm the drug’s benefit.
d. It discourages innovation in the pharmaceutical industry.
c. Manufacturers may fail to conduct required post-marketing surveillance studies to confirm the drug’s benefit.
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Rationale: One of the drawbacks of the accelerated approval process is that the manufacturers may fail to complete post-marketing studies, which are crucial for verifying long-term benefits and identifying any potential risks that may not have been detected during the initial trials.
What right of medication administration is the nurse upholding when they compare the medication label to the MAR three times before administering the medication?
a. Right Patient
b. Right Time
c. Right Drug
d. Right Dose
c. Right Drug
Rationale: Comparing the medication label to the MAR three times helps ensure the nurse is administering the correct medication.
What is blinding in a randomized controlled trial designed to do?
a. Ensure that the researchers are aware of which subjects are receiving the new drug.
b. Speed up the recruitment process for clinical trials.
c. Minimize the risk of bias in the study results.
d. Reduce the cost of conducting the clinical trial.
c. Minimize the risk of bias in the study results.
Rationale: Blinding in a randomized controlled trial is meant to prevent bias by ensuring that either the participants or the researchers (or both) are unaware of who is receiving the experimental treatment and who is receiving the placebo or standard treatment.
What is the main goal of Phase I clinical trials in new drug development?
a. To determine the drug’s effectiveness in treating a specific disease.
b. To identify potential side effects and determine safe dosage ranges.
c. To compare the new drug to existing treatments.
d. To monitor the drug’s long-term effects after it is marketed.
b. To identify potential side effects and determine safe dosage ranges.
Rationale:
Phase I clinical trials focus on assessing the safety of the drug in humans and identifying potential side effects and safe dosage ranges. They usually involve healthy volunteers.
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication through an intravenous (IV) line. The patient asks why they are receiving the medication IV instead of by mouth. What is the best response by the nurse?
a. “Giving the medication IV makes it less expensive.”
b. “IV medications are always safer than medications taken by mouth”
c. “Giving the medication IV allows it to reach the bloodstream faster and provides a more rapid therapeutic effect.”
d. “You can’t take this medication by mouth because it tastes bad.”
c. “Giving the medication IV allows it to reach the bloodstream faster and provides a more rapid therapeutic effect.”
Rationale: Administering a medication intravenously allows for faster absorption into the bloodstream compared to oral administration. This is particularly important in situations where a rapid therapeutic effect is necessary.
What additional property of an ideal drug describes the desire for medications to have a limited duration of action?
a. Reversible Action
b. Predictability
c. Ease of administration
d. Chemical Stability
a. Reversible Action
Rationale: An ideal drug should have a reversible action, meaning its effects should subside over time.
Why are there often limitations in the information available about the effects of drugs on women and children?
a. Women and children typically refuse to participate in clinical trials.
b. Historically, women and children have been excluded from participating in clinical trials due to concerns about potential risks to the fetus or child.
c. There are no ethical concerns about including women and children in clinical trials.
d. The FDA does not require drug companies to study the effects of drugs on women and children.
b. Historically, women and children have been excluded from participating in clinical trials due to concerns about potential risks to the fetus or child.
Rationale: Historically, clinical trials often excluded women of childbearing age due to concerns about potential risks to the fetus. Additionally, children have often been excluded from trials due to ethical considerations and difficulties obtaining informed consent. This limited participation has resulted in knowledge gaps regarding drug effects in these populations.
