NCLEX Review Flashcards

1
Q

Stay with client for 1st ____ min of blood transfusion

A

15

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2
Q

Infuse blood within ____ hours

A

4

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3
Q

What type blood transfusion reaction manifests in pruritus, respiratory distress,urticaria, and flushing

A

allergic

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4
Q

What type of blood transfusion reaction manifests in flank pain, chest pain, fever, chills, tachycardia, and tachypnea

A

hemolytic

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5
Q

Erythropoietin is produced in the _________

A

kidneys

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6
Q

Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency in _____ usually caused by lack of the intrinsic factor in gastric juice

A

B12

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7
Q

Lead poisoning can cause _____________ anemia

A

hemolytic

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8
Q

Pain med of choice for sickle cell anemia

A

dilaudid

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9
Q

Dilute liquid ________ preparations in juice or water and administer with a plastic straw to avoid staining teeth

A

iron

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10
Q

Avoid antacids, coffee, tea, dairy products or whole grain breads for ___ after oral iron administration

A

1 hr

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11
Q

Massage after injecting iron. t/f

A

FALSE

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12
Q

Change needles between drawing up iron and injecting to prevent staining. t/f

A

TRUE

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13
Q

A 45 year old man’s lipid profile results are sent to the nurse practitioner. They are as follows total cholesterol= 287; HDL= 30’ LDL= 165; triglycerides =150. The nurse interprets these results as:

A

Abnormal: the total cholesterol and LDL levels are elevated, and the HDL is too low.

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14
Q

Increased fluids and laxatives may be prescribed after a swallow series to increase elimination of ________

A

barium

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15
Q

Give clear liquid diet and laxative day before procedure, NPO after midnight, and cleansing enema before a ________________ and _____________

A

barium enema study, colonoscopy

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16
Q

Have client lie on ______ side for 1-2 hours after a liver biopsy

A

Right

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17
Q

Assess placement of NG tube before each feeding and every ___ hours with continuous feeding

A

4

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18
Q

Always refeed residual of NG tube unless it exceeds ____ mL

A

100

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19
Q

TPN must be administered through a ___________ for rapid dilution and blood flow

A

central line

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20
Q

Maintain __________ technique during TPN dressing changes

A

aseptic

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21
Q

Change all TPN tubing and filters every ____ hours

A

24

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22
Q

Check blood glucose every __ hours for TPN

A

4

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23
Q

Methods to avoid ____________ include eating small frequent meals, avoiding liquids with meals, lying down after meals, and eating high-protein, high-fat, LOW-CARB meals

A

Dumping syndrome

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24
Q

Eat a _____ residue diet to prevent diverticulitis and a ____ residue diet to heal it - ALWAYS avoid ______

A

high, low, seeds

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25
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

Bowel disease effecting large bowel, causing bleeding, pain, weight loss, and severe diarrhea

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26
Q

Crohn’s Disease

A

Bowel disease effecting small bowel, causing perianal involvement, fistulas, colicky pain, weight loss, and diarrhea

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27
Q

Hepatitis A

A

Virus transmitted by fecal-oral contact; often seen with contaminated water or shellfish

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28
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Virus transmitted through infected blood or unprotected sex - most common

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29
Q

Hepatitis C

A

Virus transmitted through blood transfusions, IV drug abuse, health care exposure

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30
Q

Appropriate immune serum globulin must be administered within ____ days of exposure to Hepatitis viruses

A

7-Feb

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31
Q

cirrhosis diet

A

This condition requires a high-calorie; low/no protein; low-fat; low-sodium diet

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32
Q

medication used to lower blood ammonia levels

A

lactulose

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33
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

Palpation of right subcostal area while client takes a deep breath - extreme pain indicates acute cholecystitis

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34
Q

Elevated serum amylase and lipase are seen with __________

A

pancreatitis

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35
Q

NPO with NG tube in place and TPN for moderate to severe cases occurs with ____________

A

pancreatitis

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36
Q

watch for sciatic nerve whene using what site

A

dorsogluteal

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37
Q

Potassium High sources include

A

bananas, peaches, melons, raisins, dried fruits, black licorice, nuts, salt substitutes, vegetables, and tomato, orange, and grape juices,

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38
Q

Which side effect of hydrochlorothiazide, a thizide diuretic should a diabetic patient be monitored for?

A

Increased hyperglycemia

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39
Q

An elderly white man with a long history of asthma has recently ben given a diagnosis of hypertension. Which class of antihypertensive agents should the nurse avoid for this client?

A

Beta Blockers

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40
Q

Your patient is receiving unfractionatedheparin. In addition to the PTT, which laboratory value must be monitored?

A

Platelets

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41
Q

Which drug counteracts heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

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42
Q

CD4 count less than _______ indicates AIDs

A

200

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43
Q

chronic inflammatory disease involving vascular and connective tissue of multiple organs causing butterfly rash on cheeks and across nose, polyarthralgia, anemia, fever, malaise, weight loss, Raynaud’s

A

Lupus

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44
Q

Which birth control method is contraindicated for patients with Lupus?

A

IUD

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45
Q

The shock phase of a burn victim occurs for ___ -____ hours - this is when massive edema, protein and fluid loss, and increase in potassium occurs

A

24-48

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46
Q

For burn victims, give half of total fluids in first ___ hours

A

8

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47
Q

Sodium High sources include

A

table salt, processed foods, baking soda, MSG

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48
Q

Calcium High sources include

A

dairy products, sardines, salmon, tofu, soy,and nuts

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49
Q

Magnesium High sources include

A

fruits, peas, nuts, pumpkin seeds, sunflower seeds, spinach, salmon, halibut, black and navy beans

50
Q

Administration of glucose and insulin facilitate entry into cells

A

Potassium

51
Q

Kayexalate can be given for excess of this electrolyte

A

Potassium

52
Q

Never give this electrolyte by bolus IV or PO - Must be diluted and infused at no greater than 40 mEq/L

A

Potassium

53
Q

Use ___ instead of tap water for irrigation or enemas in the presence of hyponatremia

A

NS

54
Q

In the presence of surplus _________, signs include edema, hypertonicity, dry sticky mucous membranes, elevated temperature, flushed skin, and thirst

A

Sodium

55
Q

Proportions in body are always inversely related to phosphorus proportions

A

Calcium

56
Q

May be deficient in hypoparathyroidism or removal of thyroid

A

Calcium

57
Q

Calcium Deficiency causes

A

tetany, cramps, tingling, numbness, hyperactive reflexes, cardiac arrhythmias, and Chvostek and Trousseau’s signs

58
Q

This vitamin facilitates absorption of calcium

A

D

59
Q

Deficiency of this can be related to alcoholism

A

magnesium

60
Q

Do not administer antacids containing ______________ to renal failure patients

A

magnesium

61
Q

Post-renal biopsy, patient must remain in a _______ position and be on bed rest for ___ hours

A

supine, 24

62
Q

Antibiotics of choice for UTIs

A

sulfonamides

63
Q

Type of acute renal failure resulting in inflammation of the kidney’s that is thought to be related to strep infection

A

glomerulonephritis

64
Q

This type of acute renal failure usually occurs in children and has a good prognosis

A

glomerulonephritis

65
Q

Reduce dietary protein and sodium and increase calories for ____________________

A

glomerulonephritis

66
Q

acute renal failure Symptoms include

A

sudden onset of oliguria, edema, elevated BUN, creatinine, potassium, decreased protein and calcium, phosphate, decreased specific gravity, acidosis, heart failure

67
Q

Diet for _________ renal failure is low-protein, low-potassium, low sodium, low phosphate, high-carb,, with vitamin and calcium supplements with fluid restriction

A

Chronic

68
Q

Never clamp a nephrostomy tube. t/f

A

TRUE

69
Q

Medications which promote urinary flow

A

alpha-blockers

70
Q

If fluid intake is encouraged, this usually means at least ___________mL per day

A

3,000

71
Q

TURP syndrome

A

Hyponatremia, confusion, brady./tachycardia, hypo/hypertension, N/V, or visual changes resulting from absorption of irrigating fluids through prostate tissue during surgery

72
Q

Urge incotinence

A

Type of incontinence in which patient cannot hold urine when stimulus to void occurs

73
Q

Functional incotinence

A

Type of incontinence when the patient cannot physically get to the bathroom or doesn’t know to

74
Q

Stress Incotinence

A

Type of incontinence when pressure such as coughing, straining, or laughing causes urine to escape

75
Q

Decorticate

A

Abnormal posturing indicated by rigidity, flexion of arms, clenched fists, extended legs

76
Q

Decerebrate

A

Abnormal body posturing indicated by rigid extension of arms and legs, downward pointing of toes, and backward arching of head

77
Q

__ or less on the Glasgow coma Scale indicates that the patient is in a coma

A

7

78
Q

After a lumbar puncture, it is correct to position the patient flat for 20-60 minutes. T/F

A

TRUE

79
Q

The first sign of increased ICP is altered _____

A

LOC

80
Q

Change in LOC, N/V, pupil changes, diplopia, widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and elevated temperature are signs of _______________

A

elevated ICP

81
Q

With elevated ICP, keep HOB at ___-___ degrees and head in ________ position

A

30-45, neutral

82
Q

Opiates and sedatives are contraindicated for ___________, but ___________ may be used if uncontrolled

A

elevated ICP, barbituates

83
Q

This med can only be administered with NS and has side effects of ataxia, diplopia, hirsuitism, and gum hypertrophy

A

Phenytoin

84
Q

medication of choice for status epilepticus

A

Ativan

85
Q

autonomic dysreflexia

A

Life threatening syndrome of sudden, severe hypertension in response to noxious stimuli below cord damage such as bowel/bladder distension, pressure ulcers or points, and pain or spasms

86
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

Chronic, progressive disease of the CNS, characterized by small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord

87
Q

Parkinson’s Manifestations include

A

bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor, expressionless fixed gaze, drooling, slurred speech, constipation

88
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

Disorder affecting neuromuscular transmission of voluntary muscle causing extreme muscular weakness, increased by fatigue

89
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Ascending, reversible paralysis cause by acute inflammatory disease of peripheral nerves

90
Q

presbycusis

A

progressive disorder associated with aging in which the patient loses the ability to hear sounds at high frequencies

91
Q

presbyopia

A

farsightedness associated with aging

92
Q

Meniere’s Disease

A

Disorder of the inner ear that causes vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and pressure in the ear due to increased fluid

93
Q

Risk for _________ is an area for concern with patients with Meniere’s disease

A

Falls

94
Q

It is important to take precautions against increasing _______ after a cataract surgery - severe pain should be reported immediately

A

ICP

95
Q

Patients with glaucoma should avoid all ______________ medications

A

anticholinergic

96
Q

Infant birth weight doubles by ____ months and triples by ____ months

A

6, 12

97
Q

The posterior fontanel closes by ___ months

A

2

98
Q

The anterior fontanel closes by __-___ months

A

18-Dec

99
Q

Age of child in months minus 6 equals number of ______

A

teeth

100
Q

Solids can be introduced into an infants diet around __-___ months

A

6-Apr

101
Q

Infant can sit alone by __ months

A

7,8

102
Q

Infant can pull self to feet by ___ months

A

9

103
Q

Use a semi-reclining infant car seat that faces rear until ___ lbs

A

20

104
Q

Forward facing seats for children weighing __-___ lbs

A

40-80

105
Q

Sensorimotor Cognitive stage

A

12-14 months - objects are cause of action; separation anxiety

106
Q

Preoperational Cognitive stage

A

2-7 years - egocentric in though and behavior; concrete, tangible thinking; vivid imagination (magical thinking, peak age for fears)

107
Q

Play of the toddler

A

parallel

108
Q

Play of the Preschooler

A

cooperative

109
Q

Concrete Cognitive stage

A

7-11 years - classifies and sorts; enjoys collecting; concrete logic and problem solving; less egocentric; inductive thinking

110
Q

formal operations Cognitive stage

A

11+ years - abstract thinking; ability to hypothesize

111
Q

Ortalani’s sign

A

Audible click that can be heard with congenital hip dysplasia as the examiner slips the femoral head forward

112
Q

_________ is used during an acute asthma attack, ________ is used daily for chronic asthma

A

albuterol, salmeterol

113
Q

Overdose of ________ can cause tinnitus, hyperpyrexia, seizures, bleeding, and hyperventilation

A

aspirin

114
Q

Overdose of _______ can cause liver necrosis in 2-5 days, N/V, Right upper gastric pain; coagulation abnormalities

A

tylenol

115
Q

Consumption of _________- can cause developmental regression, impaired growth

A

lead

116
Q

chelation therapy

A

Treatment for lead poisoning (or other heavy metals)

117
Q

Activated charcoal and gastric lavage are treatment for ______________ and _______________ - do NOT induce emesis

A

hydrocarbons, corrosives

118
Q

rheumatic fever

A

Inflammatory disease affecting the heart, joints, and CNS 2-6 weeks after a upper respiratory strep infection

119
Q

Wilm’s tumor

A

renal cancer usually in children around age 3 - Do NOT palpate abdomen

120
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

renal disorder in very young children with increased permeability of the glomerular membrane to protein