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NCLEX-RN 2023 > NCLEX Review > Flashcards

NCLEX Review Flashcards

1
Q

What do you do first if a patient has a purulent wound?

A

Place on precautions

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2
Q

Lymphadenopathy best indicates what?

A

An infection

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3
Q

Airborne precautions

A

MTV=Measles, Tuberculosis, Varicella

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4
Q

Varicella aka

A

Chicken pox

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5
Q

Droplet precautions spacing

A

3 feet distance and open door is okay

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6
Q

WBC

A

5,000-10,000

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7
Q

Serum Creatinine

A

0.5-1.5

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8
Q

AST

A

10-40

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9
Q

AST indicates

A

Measures amount of damage to the liver and heart

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10
Q

How to remove a mask with loops?

A

By the loops

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11
Q

How to remove a mask with ties?

A

Remove top ties, hold. Remove bottom ties.

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12
Q

What needs to be done when gloves are removed?

A

Handwashing.

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13
Q

Incubation period

A

Time between when a person gets infected and when actual symptoms occur.

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14
Q

Who is at risk for latex allergy?

A

A patient with spinal bifida due to many procedures

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15
Q

What foods can contribute to eczema?

A

Milk, wheat, and egg whites

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16
Q

Epinephrine can be given through what route?

A

IM, Subcutaneous

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17
Q

What is more a priority, an artificial airway or epinephrine?

A

Epinephrine

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18
Q

What is agranulocytosis?

A

An extreme decrease in WBC

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19
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Hives

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20
Q

Agranulocytosis symptoms within 2-3 days?

A

Sore throat, fever, fatigue, and weak rapid pulse

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21
Q

What foods are highly allergenic for infants?

A

Eggs and meats

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22
Q

When should egg and meat be introduced?

A

Close to 9 months of age

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23
Q

What organs are part of the immune system?

A

Spleen and thymus

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24
Q

A Schilling is what type of test?

A

A 24 hour urine test. The 24 hours start after discarding the first urine. Time and date info recorded before and after. Urine stored in fridge/ice.

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25
Q

What happens in percutaneous anemia?

A

Vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed due to a lack of an intrinsic factor, therefore it must be given parentally.

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26
Q

What is a priority for a bone marrow biopsy?

A

Apply pressure to the biopsy site.

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27
Q

What are two big sources of iron?

A

Eggs and spinach

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28
Q

What is the most common type of anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

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29
Q

Why is someone with a total gastrectomy at a high risk for percutaneous anemia?

A

Loss of mucosal surface that secretes intrinsic factor

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30
Q

Can cooking with iron utensils increase iron in the food?

A

Yes

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31
Q

What types of food contain iron?

A

Dried fruit, dark leafy greens, green beans, and raspberries.

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32
Q

How long will someone with percutaneous anemia need B12 injections for?

A

May need lifelong injections.

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33
Q

What type of gastric problem can cause percutaneous anemia?

A

Gastric ulcer

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34
Q

What causes pallor in severe anemia?

A

Shunting of blood to heart and brain.

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35
Q

Which food is rich in folic acid?

A

Spinach

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36
Q

B12 Intake does what?

A

Increase RBC maturation

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37
Q

What does the Schilling test measure?

A

The amount of vitamin B12 in the urine after the client ingests radioactive vitamin B12

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38
Q

Why is intrinsic factor important?

A

It is needed for B12 absorption

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39
Q

What exam is needed to confirm percutaneous anemia?

A

Schilling test

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40
Q

What are risk factors for percutaneous anemia?

A

Family history and autoimmune disease.

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41
Q

How to give iron?

A

After food, diluted, provide lots of water.

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42
Q

What can iron supplements cause?

A

Constipation and stained teeth

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43
Q

Hemophilia is what type of trait?

A

It is an x-linked recessive trait found primarily in males.

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44
Q

What is the priority for injured hemophilia clients?

A

Apply ice and elevate

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45
Q

What happens during a hemolytic reaction?

A

Destruction of blood cells occur

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46
Q

S/S of a hemolytic reaction

A

Kidney pain, hematuria, cyanosis

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47
Q

What is the primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Microscopic or macroscopic (gross) hematuria

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48
Q

Glomerular damage causes what?

A

RBC and protein plugs or casts to be eliminated in the urine. This makes the pee look cola-colored or reddish-brown.

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49
Q

Dyspnea indicates what in a blood transfusion?

A

Circulatory overload

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50
Q

The nurse is most concerned if what is observed during a blood transfusion?

A

Hematuria occurs (Indicates a blood incompatibility)

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51
Q

Therapy for hemophilia

A

Antihemophilic factor (AHF)

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52
Q

Hemophilia A factor

A

VIII

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53
Q

Hemophilia B factor

A

IX

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54
Q

Hemophilia C factor

A

XI

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55
Q

Hemophilia B aka

A

Christmas disease

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56
Q

Hematocrit measures what?

A

Ratio of red blood cells to fluid volume

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57
Q

Oatmeal bath helps what

A

Relief itching

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58
Q

Blood should run no faster than what for the first 15 minutes

A

5mL/min

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59
Q

Blood should be infused within how long of refrigeration?

A

Four hours

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60
Q

What do you do for every unit of blood?

A

Change the entire IV system

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61
Q

Severe blood reactions occur when

A

Within the first 50mL of blood

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62
Q

What treatment is controversial with DIC?

A

Anticoagulation with heparin

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63
Q

What medication should be administered with DIC?

A

Oxygen

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64
Q

What medication route should be avoided with hemophilia?

A

IM

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65
Q

Heparin does what?

A

Provides immediate anticoagulation when manifestations of thrombosis occur

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66
Q

What data should the nurse collect from a patient with hemophilia

A

ROM (pain might indicate hemorrhage)

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67
Q

How to communicate with someone with AIDS dementia?

A

Simple instructions

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68
Q

What needs to be avoided if diarrhea?

A

Nutritional supplements due to dairy.

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69
Q

Can assisting someone brushing their teeth spread HIV?

A

No

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70
Q

What CD4 count puts someone at risk for developing pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Less than 200

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71
Q

What helps prevent pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Chemoprophylaxis

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72
Q

Can people with AIDS still have sex?

A

Yes

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73
Q

What degrades condoms?

A

Petroleum jelly

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74
Q

A person with AIDs is at risk for developing what skin problem?

A

Kaposi sarcoma

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75
Q

What test helps confirm an HIV diagnosis

A

Western blot

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76
Q

What puts an HIV patient at risk for opportunistic infections?

A

Decreased T cell or CD4 cell count

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77
Q

What should be decreased if a patient with HIV has diarrhea?

A

Decrease roughage in the diet like fatty and caffeinated foods.

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78
Q

What should the nurse recommend if a client with HIV experiences fatigue?

A

Sit while preparing meals

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79
Q

What kills people who have aids?

A

AIDS virtually cripples the body’s normal protective immune response.

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80
Q

What type of medication is sulfasalazine?

A

sulfonamide and DMARD

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81
Q

What is sulfasalazine used for?

A

Mild or moderate chronic RA and inflammatory bowel disease like ulcerative colitis

82
Q

What are some sulfa medications?

A

trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

83
Q

Most sulfa drugs have what side effects?

A

Crystalluria (Drink water), Photosensitivity, Folic acid deficiency, agranulocytosis, and Steven’s Johnson syndrome

84
Q

Is a dust allergy the same as animal dander?

A

No

85
Q

Hydroxychloroquine is what type of medication?

A

Antimalarial drug

86
Q

What must a client with SLE due when taking hydroxychloroquine?

A

Have an ophthalmic examination every 6-12 months

87
Q

Does hydroxychloroquine work fast?

A

No, it can take several months

88
Q

Hydroxychloroquine severe adverse drug reactions?

A

Retinal toxicity and visual disturbances

89
Q

What might hydroxychloroquine be prescribed for?

A

SLE and joint inflammation

90
Q

When might a tonsillectomy be indicated?

A

Tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess, or obstructive sleep apnea

91
Q

What should the nurse anticipate after a tonsillectomy?

A

Ear pain (give Tylenol) and bad breath

92
Q

Halitosis meaning

A

bad breath

93
Q

What should someone not do after a tonsilectomy?

A

Drink with a straw, since it can increase pressure and increase the risk for bleeding.

94
Q

Can someone after a tonsillectomy be suctioned?

A

No

95
Q

What position should someone not be in during an NG feeding?

A

Supine

96
Q

Side effects of anticholinergic medications?

A

Blurred vision, dried mouth, decrease in pee and poop

97
Q

What medication is given for torsades de pointes?

A

Magnesium

98
Q

What is amiodarone?

A

An antiarrhythmic

99
Q

When is amiodarone given?

A

After epinephrine in V-Fib and V-tach

100
Q

What is vassopressin?

A

A medication that can increase blood pressure

101
Q

When is atropine given?

A

Bradycardia

102
Q

How to make a cast dry completely?

A

Reposition the limb every two hours

103
Q

Do all visitors need to be restricted for an internal radiation implant?

A

No

104
Q

What needs to be done for an internal radiation implant?

A

Donning gloves when emptying the client’s bedpan. Wearing a lead apron when providing direct care. Keeping all linens in the room until the implant is removed.

105
Q

Which element regarding age of blood cells is important to check?

A

Expiration date

106
Q

What happens to the skin when pressed upon in acrocyanosis?

A

Color returns quickly after blue area is blanched.

107
Q

What is the range for each category in the apgar score?

A

0-2

108
Q

What is an apgar score of 0 in HR

A

Less than 60 BPM

109
Q

What is an apgar score of 1 in HR

A

60-100 BPM

110
Q

What is an apgar score of 2 in HR

A

More than 100

111
Q

If patient is suspected to be abused, then you do what?

A

REPORT!!!

112
Q

Is it safe to reduce the volume of ringers and pagers?

A

Yes

113
Q

Benign tumors can cause what to the tissue?

A

Destruction by size and location in the body

114
Q

What is performance improvement?

A

The creation of projects after seeing clinical issues. Research findings are used to fix issue.

115
Q

Signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis in someone with Grave’s disease.

A

Fever, Excessive sweeting, Tachycardia

116
Q

What is atraumatic care?

A

Causing little to no trauma

117
Q

Serum Calcium Level

A

8.6-10.2

118
Q

Ionized Calcium Level

A

4.5-5.1

119
Q

What food is high in calcium?

A

Almonds

120
Q

What food has no calcium?

A

Asparagus

121
Q

What lab must be checked if pancreatitis is suspected?

A

Serum amylase

122
Q

What does creatinine kinase evaluate?

A

Muscle function

123
Q

What does creatinine and BUN evaluate?

A

Renal function

124
Q

If platelets are low, what assessment must be done?

A

Neuro checks to assess for possible brain bleed

125
Q

What are the 6 vasopressors?

A

Norepinephrine.
Epinephrine.
Vasopressin (Vasostrict)
Dopamine.
Phenylephrine.
Dobutamine.

126
Q

What needs to be done before a vasopressor is given?

A

Adequate fluid volume must be achieved, since they vasoconstrict.

127
Q

What type of line dopamine is best administered?

A

Central line

128
Q

What are the 5 p’s of compartment syndrome?

A

Pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis

129
Q

What are the 5 p’s of compartment syndrome?

A

Pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis

130
Q

Epiglottitis aka

A

Obstruction

131
Q

Any drooling is a —

A

Priority and might indicate an obstruction

132
Q

What causes duodenal ulcerations?

A

With Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), the bacteria penetrate the intestinal mucosa, altering the function and consistency, leading to ulcerations. (The bacteria enters the intestine and alters the lining.)

133
Q

radical retropubic prostatectomy priority

A

Kegel exercises

134
Q

Measles is the same thing as

A

Rubeola

135
Q

What do stations in OB mean?

A

The relationship of the presenting fetal parts to the ischial spines

136
Q

utilization review

A

identifies and eliminates the overuse of diagnostic and treatment services prescribed by health care providers caring for clients on Medicare.

137
Q

Nurse-sensitive indicators

A

client outcomes and nursing workforce characteristics that are directly related to nursing care, such as changes in clients’ symptom experiences, functional status, safety, total nursing hours per client day, and costs.

138
Q

If there seems to be no indication for bleeding, do you check the surgery site or assess for pain?

A

Assess for pain

139
Q

Guided Imagery

A

visualize images and focus on relaxing to reduce pain.

140
Q

A client can use yoga to

A

learn how to perform exercises that will improve circulation, promote relaxation, and alleviate pain.

141
Q

biofeedback

A

control physiological responses of the body, such as pain, using electronic equipment to evaluate specific responses.

142
Q

Music therapy

A

induce distraction and relaxation, thus reducing pain.

143
Q

How far away should a heparin injection be?

A

At least two inches away from umbilicus

144
Q

Are heparin injections aspirated?

A

No

145
Q

Is massaging indicated after subcutaneous injection?

A

No

146
Q

Rugs

A

Teach family members to use throw rugs sparingly.

147
Q

For fall risk, should a patient be advised to avoid walking if unsteady?

A

No

148
Q

What should you do if a patient has low calcium levels?

A

Initiate seizure precautions

149
Q

Why might a doctor not perform a splenectomy?

A

The spleen is important in immune function, and without it the chance of overwhelming infection becomes high.

150
Q

Glipizide medication type

A

Second-generation sulfonylurea

151
Q

What type of medication is metformin?

A

biguanide

152
Q

Repaglinide medication type and for?

A

Meglitinide and for diabetes

153
Q

Miglitol medication type and for?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor and for diabetes

154
Q

What does miglitol do?

A

This delays carbohydrate digestion after meals slowing glucose entry into the systemic circulation.

155
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

A breakdown of muscle tissue that releases a damaging protein into the blood.

156
Q

Rhabdomyolysis leads to what and what are nursing considerations?

A

myoglobinuria, which can put the kidneys at risk for acute renal injury. Keep the client hydrated and a urine output of 200 to 300 ml per hour.

157
Q

A MAP of what is adequate to perfuse organs?

A

> 60

158
Q

Fresh frozen plasma is often used for what?

A

volume expansion caused by fluid and blood loss.

159
Q

What must the nurse do when faxing to a facility?

A

Confirm that fax numbers are correct before sending. Use a cover sheet with the name of the recipient printed. Fax the information that is required for immediate needs. A fax can be sent any time with the identifiers.

160
Q

What is associated with a risk of fetal macrosomia?

A

Maternal obesity and gestational diabetes

161
Q

What is fetal macrosomia?

A

A large fetus

162
Q

Dependent personality disorder?

A

Clingy behavior

163
Q

What abbreviation does JCO want to be avoided

A

U, cc, OS

164
Q

Qid

A

Four times a day

165
Q

O.D.

A

Right eye

166
Q

O.S.

A

Left eye

167
Q

O.U.

A

Both eyes

168
Q

What is more important, pH or PaCO2?

A

PaCO2

169
Q

What is not needed if a charge nurse?

A

Incident report

170
Q

Huff cough

A

a forced expiratory technique that mobilizes secretions from the small airways for easier expectoration.

171
Q

What are early signs of digitalis toxicity?

A

Nausea, anorexia, and vomiting

172
Q

Normal calcium levels

A

9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL

173
Q

Normal hemoglobin levels

A

12 to 18 mg/dL

174
Q

Normal creatinine levels

A

0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL

175
Q

Normal phosphate levels

A

3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL

176
Q

In chronic kidney disease, will phosphate be high or low?

A

High

177
Q

What technique to use if pain is coming from the kidneys?

A

Blunt percussion.

178
Q

The hooking technique is used for what?

A

Palpate the edges of the liver

179
Q

Blunt percussion is used for what?

A

over the costovertebral angle to assess for kidney tenderness.

180
Q

What is a characteristic of generation X?

A

Individuals in this generation have a tendency to want work-life balance.

181
Q

Generation X years

A

1965 to 1980

182
Q

What is a characteristic of generation Y?

A

Wanting to be rewarded for time spent at work

183
Q

What year is generation Y?

A

1982 and 1994

184
Q

How often should meticulous perineal care be done?

A

Every day

185
Q

Normal BNP

A

Less than 100

186
Q

ESR for males over 50

A

Less than 20

187
Q

ESR for males less than 50

A

Less than 15

188
Q

ESR for females less than 50

A

Less than 25

189
Q

ESR for females over 50

A

Less than 30

190
Q

Normal C-reactive protein (CRP)

A

1 mg/L

191
Q

Normal INR

A

2 to 3.5

192
Q

A high BNP indicates what?

A

congestive heart failure

193
Q

An elevated sedimentation rate indicates what?

A

indicates an inflammatory process

194
Q

What does a high CPR indicate

A

inflammation, tissue injury, infection, or atherosclerosis

195
Q

Conjunctival icterus

A

Yellowing of the white of the eye

196
Q

What s/s can indicate a liver rejection?

A

Light/clay colored stools,dark colored urine, high AST/ALT, CONJUNCTIVAL ICTERUS

197
Q

AST

A

10-40

198
Q

What is Fondaparinux?

A

anticoagulant that inhibits factor Xa

199
Q

Fondaparinux is excreted through what?

A

The kidneys, creatinine level should be monitored periodically, and the drug stopped in clients who develop unstable kidney function or severe renal impairment.

200
Q

Energy level of defib

A

For an initial defibrillation for a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation, the nurse sets the defibrillator at 120 to 200, not 80 to 100, Joules for biphasic machines.

201
Q

How to reduce the risk for falling

A

The nurse should instruct the client to avoid attempting to do anything beyond reach to reduce the risk for falling.

202
Q

Hastens

A

To be quick to do something

NCLEX-RN 2023 (1 decks)

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