NCLEX Everything! Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Most common areas affected by scabies

A

hands and feet

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2
Q

Where should a portable shield be placed for a client with a radioactive implant?

A

on the hallway side of the client’s bed

not at the foot of the bed

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3
Q

what might you see if there is fecal impaction

A

oozing liquid stool. can be mistaked for uncontrolled diarrhea.

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4
Q

Interventions when a veteran is having a flashback

A

maintain a safe environment, protect self. client is in a war zone

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5
Q

What drink should be recommended for a client taking furosemide and digoxin?

A

Orange Juice- containes 496 mg of potassium

low potassim precipitates dig toxicity

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6
Q

When is glucagon normally used?

A

If client is a ketoacidosis or coma. They are usually unconscious

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7
Q

2 Types of Drugs that contain tyramine (MAOIs)

A

Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid,

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8
Q

Metronidazole

(Flagyl)

A
  • *Indication** intra-abdominal infections, gynecoligical infections, septicemia, endocarditis, amebic liver abscess, peptic ulcer
  • *Action** inhibits dna and protein synthesis in bacteria
  • *Class** anti-infective, antiprotoxoals, antiulcer
  • *Nursing Considerations** obtain cultures before therapy, monitor neruologic status, monitor intake and outpus and daily weights. May alter liver enzymes
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9
Q

What fluid and electrolyte imbalance happens with vomiting?

A

loss of acid in the stomach. Metabolic Alkalosis

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10
Q

Signs of Diabetes insipidus

A
  • cracked lips due to dehydration
  • large urine output
  • low specific gravity as urine is not concentrated in the kidney
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11
Q

What is a sign of a fat embolism

A

petechiae

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12
Q

what is a good gift for a patient with parkinson diseaes?

A

warming tray for food. Keeps it hot and appealing for their slow eating process.

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13
Q

What drugs may lead to agranulocytosis

A
  • Hyperthyroid drugs
    • Propylthiorucil
    • Methimazole
  • Clozapine- 2nd gen antipsychotic
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14
Q

what type of precautions is pertussis

A

Droplet

tonsilittis, CF, and bronchitis are all standard.

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15
Q

Where is dorsalis pedis artery located

A
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16
Q

Insulin Long Acting

Detemir, Glargine, Levemir, Lantus

A
  • *Indication** hyperglycemia with diabetes type 1 and type 2, ketoacidosis
  • *Action** stimulates uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells, inhibits production of glucose in the livere, prevents breakdown of fat and protien

Detemir onset 3-4 hr, Peak 3-14hr

Glargine 3-4,, no peak

  • *Class** lpancreatics, antidiabetics
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor body weight over time, may cause decreased inorganic phsophates, potassium and mag. Monitor B/S Q6, monitor A1C every 3-6 months
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17
Q

Why is pain med a priority for MI

A

pain wil increase oxygen demand

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18
Q

Hallmark Signs of Tensions Pneumothoraz

A

chest pain, muffled heart/lung sounds. medistinal shift, respiratory distress.

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19
Q

Why is it important to assess blood pressure for pt coming off spinal anasthesia?

A

blocakge of autonomic nervous system may still be presen and cause hypotension. Gradually elevate head of bed.

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20
Q

If pt is experiencing chest pain and nausea and dizziness what lab values should you request

A

CBC, Cardiac Enzymes. R/t MI or Angina

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21
Q

Tyramine rich foods

A

aged cheese, wine, tofu, chocolate, lunchmeats, fermented foods, caffeine

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22
Q

Why is a patient with hemophilia at risk for knee and joint deformities

A

most frequent site of bleeding is in the muscles and joints; repeated bleeding episodes causes changes in bones and muscles

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23
Q

When should PPIs (prazole) be given with regard to mealtime

A

on an empty stomach BEFORE meals

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24
Q

Signs of Autonomic Dysreflexia

A
  • severe headache
  • profuse sweating
  • full bladder
  • bradycardia
  • hypertension
  • goosepumps
  • nasal congestion
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25
Q

best lab value to confirm diagnosis of MI

A

Troponin Levels

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

priority assessment post op

A
  1. respiratory highest priority (breathing)
  2. cardiac status (circulation)
  3. dressing
  4. positioning
  5. check the surgical notes
  6. monitor incision site
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28
Q

Priorities if a patient has fallen out of bed

A
  1. Obtain Vital Signs
  2. Assist client back to bed (if does not appear injured)
  3. Call HCP to report Incident
  4. Incident Report
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29
Q

What action is benefical to prevent hypercalcemia

A

walking as much as possible keeps the calcium in the bone

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30
Q

What level of training should be assigned to triage

A

you need at least one experienced RN, an inexperienced RN could be provided training.

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31
Q

This condition may be caused by gallstones, chronic alcohol use, infections, medications, and trauma.

A

Pancreatitis

tx with IV fluids, antibiotics, pain relievers

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32
Q

Atropine Overdose

A

Hot as a hare, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, dry as a bone

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33
Q

What are the 5 Stages of grief?

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Barganing
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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34
Q

what is a common occurence with patients with hyperparathyroidism

A

urinary tract calcui- hematuria is a sign

parathyroid function: increase the concentration of plasma calcium by increasing the release of calcium and phosphate from bone matrix, increasing calcium reabsorption by the kidne​

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35
Q

what are WBCs when patient is neutropenic

A

low

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36
Q

Why is carbazapine used for Trigeminal Neuraglia (tic durex)

A

for agonizing pain. Inhibits nerve impulses and reduces pain of the condition

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37
Q

Normal therapeutic range for PTT

A

1.5-2 times normal

Normal: 20-25

Upper: 32-39

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38
Q

A-S-T-H-M-A MGMT

A
  • Albuterol (Adrenergic)
  • Steroids
  • Theophylline
  • Hydration
  • Mask
  • Antibiotics
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39
Q

When is a patient in coma according to glascow scale

A

below 8. 15 is the best

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40
Q

Iodine

A
  • *Indication** thyroidectomy, thyrotoxic crisis, radiation exposure
  • *Action** inhibits release of thyroid hormones
  • *Class** antithyroid agent
  • *Nursing Considerations** GI bleed, diarrhea, hypothyroidism, goiter, monitor for hypersensitivity
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41
Q

when is phototherapy for an infant needed?

A

if bilirubin is greater than 15 mg/dL at 72 hours of age.

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42
Q

What type of pain delivery system is well suited for pts with cancer

A

SubQ

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43
Q

what could a multipara patient that is requesting to go to the bathroom to have a bowel movement mean?

A

imment birth, urgent. Do not allow to use the bathroom.

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44
Q

Who is the only employee from a health care organization that can be a lega withness of signing of an advance directive

A

clinical social worker

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45
Q

Which clients are at greates risk factor for respiratory depression while receiving opioids for analgesia?

A

elderly, opiate naive, pulmonary disease. Count the risk factors.

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46
Q

What does CSF have in meningitis

A

high protein, low glucose

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47
Q

What is the general rule with nutrition and renal patients?

A

decrease proteins because protein increases BUN

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48
Q

chvostek sign location

A
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49
Q

Lab Values for Metabolic Alkalosis

A

ph HIGH PCO2, HIGH, HCO3 High

Low Potassium

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50
Q

Why is morphine contraindicated in pancreatitis?

A

causes spasm of the spincter. Demerol should be given.

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51
Q

First action for chest pain (MI, Angina)

A

EKG, ST wave will have and issue

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52
Q

What can LVNs never do

A

assessments or evaluations. but can implement the tasks on the plan of care

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53
Q

What complication is at risk with Kawasaki Disease

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

Affects mucus membranes, lymph nodes and walls of the blood vessels. Can cause inflammation of the arteries, possible heart attack in child, fever lasting more than 2 weeks.

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54
Q

Methlergonovine

A
  • *Indication** postpartum hemorrhage
  • *Action** stimulates uterine muscles causing uterine contraction
  • *Class** oxytocic, ergot alkaloids
  • *Nursing Considerations** can cause hypertension, cramps, N/V, dyspnea. Monitor BP, HR and uterine response. Assess caclium levels
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55
Q

Lactulose

A
  • *Indication** Constipation, portal systemic encephalopathy
  • *Action** draws water into the stool and softens stool, inhibits ammonia passing into the colon
  • *Class** osmotic laxative
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with DIabetes, may cause cramps ab distention and hyperglyciema, mental status, ammonial levels , avg 2-3 bowel movement per day
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56
Q

-sartan

A

ARBs

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57
Q

How high should a pregnant women let her heart rate go?

A

not above 140 bpm

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58
Q

Bucks traction is for

A

knee immobility

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59
Q

what type of exercises whould be recommended if a patient is in a cast

A

isometric exercises.

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60
Q

INR- international normalized Ratio

A

2 - 3 for standard warfarin therapy

3 - 4.5 for high dose warfarin therapy

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61
Q

Altepase

A
  • Indication MI, Acute ischemis strok, occluded central lines
  • Action converts plasminogen to plasmin, degrades fibrin in clots
  • Class thrombolytic
  • Nursing Considerations Intracranial hemorrhage, bleediing, anaphylaxis, HTN, neuro status
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62
Q

Possible SE of Imipramine (trycyclic antidepress)

A

sore throat, fever, increased fatigue, N/V, diarrhea

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63
Q

What type of precautions does a patient with mengiococal pneumonia have?

A

droplet

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64
Q

A harrington rod is used for scoliosis, what do you want to assess

A

neuro checks b/c of spine

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65
Q

What is assessment is necessary when oxytocin is given

A

palpate the uterus. Oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract. Can lead to uterus rupture.

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66
Q

What is a common temporary side effect of Pepto Bismol (Bismuth Subsalicylate)

A

dark tint of the tongue

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67
Q

Paroxetine

A
  • *Indication** major depressive disorder, OCD, anxiety, PTSD
  • *Action** blocks reuptake of CNS
  • *Class** antianxiety agent, antidepressant, SSRI
  • *Nursing Considerations** neurleptic malignant syndrome, decrease effectiveness of digozin, increase bleeding with warfarin, suicidal thoughts
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68
Q

What could administering morphine do for a critical patient with a head injury

A

could mask signs of ICP

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69
Q

Examples of selective beta 1s

MEAANe

A
  • Metroprolol
  • Exmolol
  • Acebutolol
  • Atenolol
  • Nebivolol
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70
Q

If you see a question with Who, What Where…?

A

consider the question that asks in a different way.

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71
Q

signs of hemolytic reaction

A

hypotension, back ache, low back pain, fever, dyspnea

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72
Q

Why should you be worried about a patient taking haloperidol with a fever?

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome, lethal side effect

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73
Q

What is the nurse practitioner’s role in short words

A

perform physical examinations/recommends diagnostic testing

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74
Q

what does a myelogram test?

A

lumbar puncture with injection of contrast medium. allows visualization of the vertebral canal.

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75
Q

Haloperidol

A

Indication schisophrenia, mania, aggressive and agitated

Action alters effect of dopamine

Class antipsychotic, butryrophenones

Nursing EPS, caution in QT prolongation. seizures, constipation, dry mouth, agranulosytosis. Assess for hallucinations, Monitor hemodynamics, monitor neurleptic malignant syndrome. CBC with differential

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76
Q

the lower the glascow coma scale indicates

A

coma.

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77
Q

Maneuver used to asses carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Phallen’s maneuver. Put the back of hand together and bend both wrists at the same time. Produces parathesia of median nerve

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78
Q

for a forensic inviestigation why should material NOT be placed in a plastic bag?

A

should be paper, b/c bacteria could destroy DNA evidence if plastic bags are used.

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79
Q

what assessment is MOST important post op knee surgery

A

neurovascular checks every hour for 12 hours, then every 2-4 hours. Surery may interrupt blood supply to affected extremity and immediate intervention is required.

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80
Q

Med of choice for status epilepticus

A

valium

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81
Q

The assesssment of flattened neck veins when client is in supine position, goes with what nursing diagnosis

A

decreased cardiac output related to decreased plasma volume

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82
Q

which method of administration offers the client the longest duration of medication action?

A

rectal administration

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83
Q

What is the cause of late decelerations

A

placental insufficiency

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84
Q

Pancrelipase

A
  • *Indication** pancreatic insufficiency, ductal obstruction
  • *Action** replacement of pancreatic enzymes: lipase, amylase, protease
  • *Class** digestive agent
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated in pig products, SOB, rash, assess nutritional status, monitor for steatorrhea, increase uric acid levels, take with meals
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85
Q

What does the nurse need to do after a cast is applied

A

elevate for first 24-48 hours to minimize swelling.

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86
Q

what are the most life threatening conditions after a cesarean birth?

A

fluid and electroylte imbalances. Hemorrhage and shock.

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87
Q

Vasopressin

A
  • *Indication** MGMT of diabetes insipidius, Vt/VF, unresponsibe to initial shock, GI hemorrhage
  • *Action** increases water permeability of the kidney collecting duct and distal convoluted tubule elading to water retention, also increases peripheral vascular resistance leading to increased BP
  • *Class** antidiuretic hormone
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with HF, and CV disease, contraindicated in renal failure, hypersensitivity to pork. Monitor vitals. Monitor urine specific gravity & osmolality. Weight pt and assess for edema. Monitor electrolyte panel. DO NOT USE alcohol
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88
Q

what disease is associatd with glaucoma

A

diabetes

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89
Q

What should be done if a physician yells at a nurse in front of a client

A

nurse manager should request an immediate private meeting with HCP and staff nurse

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90
Q

-terol

A

bronchodilator

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91
Q

Nystatin

A
  • *Indication** Candidiasis (thrush)
  • *Action** causes leakge of funcal cell contents
  • *Class** antifungal
  • *Nursing Considerations** diarrhea, N/V, caution with dentures, assess mucus membranes
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92
Q

What foods should a patient with diverticulitis avoid?

A

corn, seeds, cucumber, tomatoes, strawberries, figs. These may block diverticula

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93
Q

How long should a client wait before brushing teeth after hypophysectomy

A

1-2 weeks to allow incision to heal

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94
Q

What type of drug is ethacyrnic acid

A

loop diuretic (potassium wasting)

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95
Q

How is most pain relieved in orthopedics

A

elevation, cold packs and analgesics (toherwise something is WRONG)

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96
Q

a push pull toy is good for which age group

A

18-21 months

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97
Q

HELLP

A
  • Hemolysis
  • Elevated
  • Liver Function Tests
  • Low
  • Platelet Count
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98
Q

what position is a client placed for liver biopsy

A

supine with right arm behind their head

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99
Q

Hallmark signs of emphysema

A

carrel chest, chronic cough, SOB, wheezing, Weight loss

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100
Q

Best practice for confirming NG tube?

A

aspirating gastric contents and testing pH (should be below 5)

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101
Q

What is an important intervention to take if you are delivering an IV push medication?

A

time the med administration with a watch

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102
Q

T wave indicates

A

ventricular repolarization

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103
Q

Fluticasone (Flovent)

A

Indication prophylactic asthma treatmt

Action local anti-inflammatory

Class corticosteroid, inhalation, anti-asthmatic

Nursing watch for untreated infectios and suppressed immune function. Can cause headaches, insomnia, bronchospasm, nasal congestion, adrenal suppression. Monitor respiratory status, may lead to decreased bone density. Bronchodilators should be used BEFORE corticosteroids. Stop smoking

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104
Q
A
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105
Q

dunlap traction is for

A

skeletal or skin

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106
Q

Montelukast

A
  • *Indication** prevent asthma, manage seasonal allergies, prevent exercise induced bronchoconstriction
  • *Action** disrupts the effects of leukotrienes which effect airway edema.
  • Class** allergy, cold, cough remedis, bronchodilator. Leukotriene antagonist*
  • *Nursing Considerations** assess respiratory status, liver function, does not treat acute asthma
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107
Q

if a client is incontinent w/ frequent UTIs, what is an important intervention

A

intermitten catheterization for any residual urine volume. Bladder may not empty completely.

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108
Q

Primary clients for C. Difficile

A

hospitalized, receiving antibiotic therapy- Ampicillin, amoxicillin and cephalosporins (Cephalexin)

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109
Q

what type of socks are recommended for diabetic patient with foot problemts

A

cotton to absorb moisture

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110
Q

First signs of cystic fibrosis

A

meconium ileus at birth. Baby is inconsolable, does not eat, not passing meconium.

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111
Q

A client is in the third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells a nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby’s father. Which of these nursing interventions is best at this time?

A

counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening

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112
Q

10 year old cognitive capabilities

A

able to think logically in the organization of facts

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113
Q

Guthrie Test

A

tests PKU, baby should have eaten source of protein first

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114
Q

classic symptoms of guilland barre

A

respiratory failure, flaccid paralysis, urinary retention

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115
Q

what position for shock, and why not trendelenburg

A

Elevate lower extremetities, trendenleburg puts too much pressure on throacic cavity which can increase workload on the heart. Lower extremeities iimproves circulation to the brain and vital organs.

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116
Q
A
  • Atrial Fibrillation
  • Irregular
  • Heart Rate 60
  • PRI- n/A
  • QRS Interval 0.04 -0.06
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117
Q

what should you expect with perforated bowel

A

lead to peritonitis, expect surgery

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118
Q

What can a UAP help with

A
  • ADLs
  • hygiene
  • feeding
  • ambulation
  • NO nursing judgment
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119
Q

What is a major side effect of INH

A

peripheral neuropathy

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120
Q

Dexamethasone

A

Indication cerebral edema, assess for cushing’s dissease

Action suppress inflammation and normal immune response. Used in inflammatory states

Class antiasthmatics, corticosteroids,

Nursing watch liver, avoid in untreated infections, may cause CNS alteration, peptic ulcers, cushings, weight gin, osteoporosis, decrease wound healing, elevated blood sugars, watch lipid and cholesterol

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121
Q

If a patient has and SCI injury at C-5, what is his sexual functioning

A

sexual functioning may be possible, depends on severity of the injury, age of the client.

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122
Q

What is the symptothermal method

A

non prescription birth control. Combines cervical mucus and basal body temperature.

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123
Q

what happen is a patient has low serum albumin

A

third spacing.Pretibilal edema. Albumin prevents plasma from leaking into interstitial fluid

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124
Q

tidine

A

H2 blocker

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125
Q

Normal Newborn Blood Pressure

A

50-75

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126
Q

MI & dysrhythmias go together like peas and carrots.

A
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127
Q

Where can you find standard of care?

A

institutional policy and procedure documents

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128
Q

when you are obtaining an assessment of a client with a headache, what should be your FIRST assessment

A

get a description in clients own words of the headache. Usually a symptom and not a disease, can be a result of neurolgical disease, caused by vasodilation or skeletal muscle tension

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129
Q

what is the first symptom of fat embolism

A

extreme confusion. Obtain blood gases.

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130
Q

What is an emergency situation for a patient with bulimia nervosea

A

a hoarse vois that is barely audibly. Indicates tracheosophageal fistula. Tear, laryngitis is a danger sign.

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131
Q
A
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132
Q

Propolol

A
  • *Indication** anaesthia, induction, sedation
  • *Action** hypnotic, produces amnesia
  • *Class** general anesthetic
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with CVD, lipid disorder, increased ICP, apnea bradycardai, hypotension. Burnign pain at insertion site. Can turn urine green, assess respiraotry status and hemodynamic. Maintain patent airway. Assess level of sedation
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133
Q

A pt with BPH has a distended bladder due to acute urinary retention. What should nurse understand about care of this client

A

tx includes catheterization (starting w. smallest catheter size). Complete and rapid emptying of the bladder. Bladder irrigation is performed.

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134
Q

when a client is wearing bilateral eye patches, what is a necessary action to take

A

frequently touch the client while speaking to him.her

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135
Q

The most common healthcare associated infection

A

caused by staff

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136
Q

adverse reactions to atropine that should be reported to HCP

A

transient arrhythmias & paradoxical bradycardia.

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137
Q

For a client that received TURP, what is the purpose of continuous bladder irrgation

A

enables urine to keep flowing and prevent clots

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138
Q

what is a risk factor if membranes have ruptures for more than 24 hours after birth

A

infection

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139
Q

antihistamine eyedrops side effects

A

headache, burnig, rhinitis, sinusitis, blurred visions, pruritus,

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140
Q

What is the most important interventions with burn management

A

fluid replacement, hypoxia is alwasy the priority, hyperkalemia

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141
Q

What could be indicative of peripheral vascular disease

A

legs throbbing when going for a walk. Requires follow-up

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142
Q

What position should you place a client after a tonsillectomy?

A

prone or side lying with bed elevated.

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143
Q

What is the rule for UAPs for documentation

A

they cannot document what they cannot assess

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144
Q

What is fetor

A

breaths smells like ammonia

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145
Q

Why do daytime activities help clients that are immobilized in bed

A

it causes them to nap less during the day and provides relief from tension so they can relax at night

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146
Q

What is the first sign of worsening asthma

A

a fall in peak flow rates. Feeling tired, sneezing, stomach ache, poor appeptite, night time cough.

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147
Q

Swanz Ganz Catheter or Pulmonary Artery Catheter does what?

A

inserted into the the right side of the heart thru the groin or neck using conscious sedation (at the bedside). can measure different pressures in the heart and lungs.

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148
Q

What is Kawasaki disease, and what is the demographic?

A

boys younger than 5 and asian descent. Red eyes (conjuctivitis), rash on the body and genital area, strawberry tongue. Red skin on palms of hands. Last 2-12 wks without treatment

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149
Q

what is considered a positive PPD test

A

5mm or greater induration

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150
Q

Common findings in mitral valve regurgitation include

A

heart murmurs, SOB, fatigue, Paroxysmal noctural dyspnea

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151
Q

Coumadin Antidote

A

Vitamin K

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152
Q

Glucagon

A

Indication severe hypoglycemia, antidote for beta blockers and calcium channel blockers

Action stimulates production of glucose, relaxes GI tract

Class pancreatic, hormone

Nursing anaphylaxis, hypotensionn. Assess for hypoglycemia, neuro status. Monitor serum glucose. Teach pt signs of hypoglycemia

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153
Q

What can immunoglobulin therapy interfere with?

A

body’s ability to form appropriate amts of antibodies. Live attenuated immunizations should be delayed.

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154
Q

Medication Antidotes

A
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155
Q

If a patient with MS is having exacerbations what position should they be in

A

prone. May minimize spasms of the flexor muscles. If not relieved, contractures could occur and pressure ulcers

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156
Q

what is your most important assessment with gloerulonephritis

A

blood pressure.

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157
Q

first sign of pyloric stenosis in a baby

A

mild vomiting that progesses to projectile vomiting.

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158
Q

Meperidine

A
  • *Indication** moderate to severe pain, sedation
  • *Action** binds to opiate receptors in the CNS and alters perception of pain, while producing a general depression of the CNS
  • *Class** opioid Analgesic
  • *Nursing Considerations** altered mentation, hypotension, constipation, N/V. Assess BP, pulse and respriatory rate. Use caution if matient is receiving MAOIs. Narca is the antidote. Can cause seizures. May increase pancreatic enzyme levels. Assess bowel function
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159
Q

If a client is showing early signs of shock, what position

A

lower head of bed, place client on left side, air rises to right atrium

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160
Q

Do calcium channel blocker effect preload or afterload

A

afterload

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161
Q

What is the pathogen of peptic ulcer disease

A

heliobacter pylori

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162
Q

What is important to know for all anti-infective drugs

A

decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives

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163
Q

HCO3

A

22-27 mm Hg

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164
Q

How do you know there is a therapeutic response for patient with edema

A

weight loss

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165
Q

what are the proper procedures when a neonate is hooked to a warming device

A

Continuous temperature monitoring using a probe

priority due to skin burns, brain damage

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166
Q

Left CVA impacts

A

speech

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167
Q

How much water must pt drink prior to ultrasound of urinary bladder

A

32 ounces

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168
Q

What is the rule for a pancreatitis client

A

keep stomach empty and dry. Kee client NPO, have NGT to suction, bed rest!

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169
Q

Drugs that are ototocxic?

A
  • Loop diuretics
  • Aminoglycoside Antibx (Gent)
  • Aspirin
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170
Q

What is the highest schedule drug, not used in a clinical setting

A

Schedule I.

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171
Q

Potassium

A

3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L

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172
Q

what does an elevated d-dimer test indicate following aprution of placenta

A

concern for DIC. Notify HCP right away.

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173
Q

how can you tell if an infant is in pain

A
  • increased pulse rate
  • rubbing part of the body and crying
  • eyes closed tightly, mouth opened
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174
Q

murphy’s sign

A

pain with palpation of gall bladder seen with cholecystitis

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175
Q

what is the primary purpose to turn cough and deep breath?

A

promote ventilation, and prevent respiratory acidosis

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176
Q

The bubbling in a water seal chest tube chamber indicates

A

lung has not yet re-expanded

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177
Q

Metered Dose Inhaler

A
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178
Q

What type of communication technique is best for patient with Wernicke’s Aphasi

A

non verbals, actions, movements, props. Wernicke have no understanding of language. They can speak, but it makes no sense

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179
Q

What type of breathing occurs with metabolic acidosis

A

deep rapid respirations, hyperpnea

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180
Q

How do you know if pt has toxic effects of aminophylline?

A

confusion, headache, flushing, tachycardia, seizure, palpitations, nervousness. Notify HCP.

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181
Q

A child with burn is at risk for dehydration, what finding would indicate decrease in status

A

increased hematocrit and decrease in urine volume

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182
Q

Fentanyl (Sublimaze)

A

Indication supplement to general anethseia, continuous IV infusion for purpose of analgesia

Action binds to opiate receptors in the CNS altering perception of pain, producing CNS depression

Class opioid analgesic

Nursing watch for ICP, head trauma and adrenal insufficiency. Avoid MAOIs. Can cause apnea, laryngospasm, decreased respiration, bradycardia, hypotension. Do not consume grapfruit juice. Monitor hemodynamics. Assess pain scale

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183
Q

What are signs of strabismus?

A

seeing double, might close one eye to see.

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184
Q

What is wander band used for

A

a sensor bracelet allows patients to roam around (dementia pt) trips an alarm system if they decide to leave.

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185
Q

What does crepitus mean?

A

air in sub q space (usually due to pneumothorax)

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186
Q

Order of operation for instilling eye drops

A
  1. Have client sit down, tilt head
  2. Pull tissue under eye downward
  3. hold dropper stabilize hand
  4. have client look up
  5. Close eye and move it around
  6. Press on lacrimal duct for 1 full minute
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187
Q

Bicarb

A

22-29 mEq/L

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188
Q

What is a common complication of nephrotic syndrome

A

venous thrombosis

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189
Q

major side effects with statin drugs include

A

must get liver function test and eye exams (will have eye lens opacities)

do not think of blood pressure with this drug

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190
Q

What is a good handoff report technique

A
  • Introduction (yourself)
  • Patient name, identifiers,
  • Assessment, chief complaint, Vital signs/sx, Dx
  • Situation (code status, recent changes, response to tx)
  • Safety concerns (lab values, socioeconomic factors, allergies, falls
  • Background (comorbidities, currend meds, family hx
  • Actions (what did you do)
  • Timing (level of urgency and explicit timing, priotixation actions
  • Ownerhip (who is responsible)
  • Next (blocking discharge, plan)
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191
Q

If a client is hallucinatying, why is it important to ask what they voices are saying?

A

must assess the nature of command hallucinations

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192
Q

Venturi Mask

A
  • Most accurate oxygen delivery system
  • helpful for adminstering low, constant O2 for COPD patients
    *
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193
Q

What happens to nitrogen balance in burns, infections, injuries, fever or starvation

A

negative nitrogen balance. Protein is the body’s only source of nitrogen. Must be balanced by excretion of urea wastes.

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194
Q

What are signs of hypertensive crisis due to ingesting tyramines

A

headache, nasuea, tachycardia, vomitting.

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195
Q

early signs of hypoxemia

A
  • increased HR
  • Resltessness
  • Irritability
  • Nasal flaring
  • cyanosis is a late sign
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196
Q

concentric training

A

muscle tense while shortening

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197
Q

If nurse makes a medication error, what are the appropriate actions to take?

A
  • Monitor vital signs
  • notify HCP
  • Document the administration
  • Notify nurse manager
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198
Q

what is usually the cause of a bladder infection

A

e.coli, not r/t glomerulonephritis (streptococcus)

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199
Q

what teaching should be recommended for clients with low back pain?

A

avoid standing for long periods of time

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200
Q

Fetal Attitude

A

the relationship of the fetall body part to one another

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201
Q

Fire Rescue plan, what does PRC stand for

A

Protect clients, Report the Fire, Contain the Fire

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202
Q

Common symptoms of measles

A

koplik spots

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203
Q

CHAIN OF COMMAND

ALWAYS FOLLOW THIS!

A
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204
Q

Signs ofr meningitis

A

Kerniq/Brudinski

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205
Q

What should you be concerned if observed after giving chlordiazepoxie

A

blurred vision, drowsiness. Anti-anxiety drug.

other SE’s include constipation, slurred speech, anorexia, polyuria, pancytopena, administer meals ro with milk to decrease GI irritation

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206
Q

-dil-

A

Vasodilator

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207
Q

What are signs of infection in elderly patients?

A

tachycardia, tachypnea, and confusion (not fever)

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208
Q

Sign of a big risk factor after CABG

A

chest tube drainage suddenly stops. Hallmark sign of cardiac tamponade

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209
Q

According to Erickson’s Stages, when does a client develop trust

A

birth - 18 months of age

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210
Q

Bryant’s traction

A

children

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211
Q

Write down the complications you expect with regard to days after surgery (i.e. 24-48 hours, 72 hours)

A
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212
Q

If pt has latex allergy, what else do you want to assess?

A

bananas, apricots, cherries, grapes, kiwis, passion fruit, avocados, chestunuts, tomatoes, peaches

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213
Q

What are signs of toxicity with aspirin

A

tinnusitis, headache, hyperventilation, diarrhea, confusion, diaphoresis.

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214
Q
A
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215
Q

What is the action behind morphine for MI

A

decreases blood return to the right side, and decreases peripheral resistance. Decreases pre load and afterload. Causes vasodilation

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216
Q

Erikson Stages thru Teenager

A
  • 0-18 months– Trust vs Mistrust
  • 18-3 years– autonomy vs shame/doubt
  • 3-5 years– initiative vs guilt (preschooler)
  • 5-13 years– industry vs inferiority
  • 13-21 years– identity vs role confusion
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217
Q

Cortisone

A

Indication adrenal insufficiency, Addison’s Disease

Action suppress inflammation and normal immune response. Adrenal glands exrete steroid, cortisol, blood sugars, metabolism of fat, protein and carbohydrates. decreasing bone formation

Class antiasthmatic, corticosteroids

Nursing watch liver, avoid untreated infections, CNS alteration, peptic ulcers, Cushings, Weight, gain, osteoporosis, decrease wound healing

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218
Q

Methylphenidate

(ritalin)

A
  • *Indication** ADHD, narcolepsy
  • *Action** improves attention span
  • *Class** CNS stimulatn,
  • *Nursing Considerations** sudden death, hypertension, plapitations, anorexia, hyperactivity, insomnia. decreased effects of warfarin and phenytoin. Do not use with MAOIs. Do not consume caffeniated beverages. Monitor for dependence
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219
Q

What does a Swan-Ganz catheter do?

A

indirectly measures the pressure in the ventricles. Meausures the pulmonary artery wedge pressure.

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220
Q

What intervention is needed for an infant after a cleft lip repair

A

arm restrains to rpevent rubbing suture line

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221
Q

What do you want from a non stress test

A

it to be reactive

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222
Q

Why is Z-Track administration utilized

A

because IM technique is too irritating to the Sub Q tissues.

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223
Q

What is a common misconception with hemophilia A

A

bleeding all the time

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224
Q

what does stable eschar do for skin care?

A

serves as body’s natural cover

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225
Q

Hep A Precautions

A

wear gown and gloves during client contact

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226
Q

White Blood Cell Count

A

4500-11,000 cells/mm3

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227
Q

BUN

A

8-25 mg/dL

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228
Q

Norepinephrine

A
  • *Indication** tx of severe hypotension and shock
  • *Action** increase BP and COutput by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors in the blood vessels, demonstrates minor beta activity
  • *Class** vasopressor
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor bp every couple minutes, can result in rebound hypotension due to tissue ischemia, monitor EKG and CVP if possible. Instruct pt to report headaches, dizziness, and chest pain
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229
Q

how do you know a woman is in the transition phase of labor?

A

asks to go to the bathroom. Increases pelvic pressure intense desire to urinate

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230
Q

What are the next steps if child has diarrhea and dehyrdation has stopped?

A

once rehydration has occured, start to introduce usual diet.

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231
Q

Other than hypertension and mental health. What can beta blockers be used for?

A

essential tremors

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232
Q

What should you NOT do after amputation

A

do not elevate after 24 hours. May result in flexion contracture. Expose to air.

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233
Q

What is the priority for cardia dysrthythmias

A

decreased cardiac output

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234
Q

how far apart should intake and output be from eachother?

A

200-300ml

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235
Q

what is the MOST importatn to consider when a client is immobile?

A

skin integrity

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236
Q

In poison control when should you NOt induce vomiting

A

if contains alkaline or acid agents. I.E. lye, houseehold cleaners, oven cleaner, furniture polish, metal cleaners, battery acids, petroleum products

can neutralize using activated charcoal

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237
Q

Lorazepam

A
  • *Indication** anxiety, sedation
  • *Action** general CNS depression
  • *Class** anesthetic, antianxiety, sedative hypnotic, bonzo
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with COPD and sleep apnea, avoid alcohol use, antidote is Flumazenil, may cause cardiac arrest, bradycardia, hypotension, administer slowly and dilute to decrease complications
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238
Q
  • arone
    ex: Amiodarone
A

antiarrhythmic

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239
Q

If a client has a blood glucose of 175 and reports being hungry and thirsty what should you do?

A

administer Humulin R- Insulin (short acting, regular). Will work in 30 mintues, pt should wait to eat breaskfost so insulin can begin working

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240
Q

What is the most widely accepted test to examine the presence of tardive dyskinesia

A

Abnormal involuntary movement scale

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241
Q

SATA questions, what do you need to pay attention to

A

once a week, daily, once a month

ensure that the timing is appropriate.

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242
Q

What should you do if there is lots of water in a tracheostomy tubing?

A

empty the fluid, pt at risk for aspriation.

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243
Q

Client with Irritable Bowel Syndrome is having problems with fiber, what should you do

A
  • increase fiber gradually 2 - 3 mg per day, help to reduce gas and bloating
  • Dairy products can contribute to gas formation
  • small frequent meals to reduce gas

goal is to reduce gas and bloating

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244
Q

What drug is used for autonomic dysreflexia

A

hydrazaline, fast acting antihypertensive.

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245
Q

Airborne precuations

A

mask, gloves

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246
Q
A

Atrial Flutter

250-350 bpm

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247
Q

Prothrombin Time (PT)

A

9.5 - 11.8 seconds

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248
Q

How often should self breast exams be performed

A

monthly

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249
Q

What is the most important intervention when body iimage is a factor

A

touch

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250
Q

Proper actions to take if you administer incorrect dose of medication

A
  • record the dose of med administered
  • perform an assessment on the client
  • contact the physcian
  • chart any adverse reaction
  • submit the report to risk manager within 24 hours
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251
Q
A

Quadrigeminy

PVC after 3 normal QRS

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252
Q

How do you protect against extravasation in vesicant drugs for cancer?

A

aspirate positive blood return prior to use

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253
Q

femoral pulse is located..

A
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254
Q

What does justice mean?

A

fairness

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255
Q

Diazepam

A

Indication anxiety, pre-op sedation, conscious sedation, tx of seixures, insomnia, mgmt of alcohol withdrawal

Action depress the CNS

Class benzodiazepine, antianxiety, anticonvulsant, skeletal muscle relaxant

Nursing ccontraindicated in hepatic dysfunction, wathc renal impairment, dizziness, drowsiness, lethargy, hypotension, physical dependence, tolerance, caution with alcohol use

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256
Q

What is the preferred site for ABG

A

radial. Apply firm pressure 5 min prior. Leave oxygen on. Sample should be cold on ice to minimize chemical reaction

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257
Q

What is the primary purpose of a transitional care program

A

reduce readmissions to the hosptial

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258
Q

Cefaclor

A

Indication tx of respiratory tract infections, skin infections, otitis media

Action bacteriacidal, binds to bacterial cell wall causing cell death

Class cephalosporin 2nd generation, anti-infective

Nursing contraindicated cephalosporin and penicillin allergies, may lead to seizures, pseudomembranous colitis, diarrhea, phlebitis at iv site, anaphalzis, assess infection and allergies, obtain cultures prior to therapy, monitor bowel function, can lead to super infection

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259
Q

what discomforts should be noted for a laparscopy exam

A

carbon dioxide is trapped in the abdomen and may cause shoulder pain

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260
Q

findings that indicate elder abuse

A
  • over/undernourished,
  • absence of needed dentures and glasses
  • poor nutritional status
  • dehydration
  • urine burns
  • excoriation
  • pressure ulcers
  • bruises
  • battering (fractured hip can be osteoporosis)
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261
Q

How can you tell a patient is taking lithium

A

shaky hands

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262
Q

when does the potestorir fontanelle close?

A

6 to 8 weeks

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263
Q

what indicates cardiovascular fluid overload

A

rales and tachycardia

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264
Q

What is a milkwakee brace used for?

A

scoliosis 1-2 years, during periods of growth

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265
Q

What do insurance companies have a problem with when ordering supplies on discharge?

A

ordering extra suplies is considered stockpiling and they may refuse to pay the bill

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266
Q

what food should you avoid with chronic kidney disease

A

high potassium foods, risk for hyperkalemia

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267
Q

Common symptoms of cholera

A

rice watery stool

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268
Q

What is contraindicated for HEP B vaccine

A

anaphylactic rx to baker’s yeast

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269
Q

Classic findings of pulmonary stenosis

A

heaviy brathing, dyspnea, tachycardia, peripheral edema

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270
Q

Common symptoms of leprosy

A

lioning face

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271
Q

What is the most accurate procedure to rule out interstitial cystitis

A

cytoscopy procedure

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272
Q

VEAL CHOP

A
  • Variable Cord Compression
  • Early Head Compression
  • Accelerations Okay
  • Late Placental Insufficiency
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273
Q

Nursing Consideration with Fentanyl patch

A
  • slowly absorped thru sub Q tissue, can take up to 12-24 hours before effective analgesia
  • short acting opioid can be given for breathrough pain
  • the pt can shower/bathe, but should not be exposed to hot tubs or heating pads. Speeds absorption of medication
  • throw them away but folding in half, not by cutting in half
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274
Q

Amiodarone

A
  • *Indication** ventricular arrthythmias, SVT, ACLS V-fib, Vtach
  • *Action** prolongs action potential, inhibits adrenergic stimulation, decreases peripheral vascular resistance causing vasodilation
  • *Class** Antiarrthymic Class III, Potassium channel blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** can cause ARDS, pulmonary toxicity, CHF, bradycardia, hypotension, increases dig levels, increases activity of warfarin, 2 RN check, monitor pulse daily and pt report abnormaility, avoid drinking grapefruit juice
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275
Q

Meniere’s syndrome makes client dizzy what intervention should nurse ensure

A

do not turn head

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276
Q

cullen’s sign

A

ecchymosis in umbilical area, seen with pancreatitis

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277
Q

Ketorolac (Toradol)

A
  • *Indication** pain
  • *Action** pain relif due to prostaglandin inhibition
  • *Class** nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent, non-opioid analgesics, pyrroziline carboxylic acid
  • *Nursing Considerations** Steven Johnson Syndrome, anaphylaxis, drosiness, GI bleed, should not exceed 5 days of tx, increased bleeding risk with garlic, ginger and ginkgo, decrease HTN meds and diuretics
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278
Q

Olanzapine

A
  • *Indication** schizophrenia, mania, depression, anorexia nervosa, N/V, r/t chemo
  • *Action** antagonizes dopamine and serotnin
  • *Class** antipsychotic, mood stabiilizer, thienbenzodiazioines
  • *Nursing Considerations** do not use while breastfeeding, neurlyptic malignant syndrome, seizures, suicidial thoughts, inosmonia, tardive dyskinesia, aggranulocytosis, constipation, tremors, assess mental status, hemodynamics, Blood sugars, intake and output. liver function tests
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279
Q

When should you do an allen’s test?

A

prior to doing an abg to check for sufficient blood flow

negative test if color return in less than 7 seconds

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280
Q

Chancres, flu-like symptoms, hair loss, palmar rash signs of

A

syphyillis

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281
Q

Insulin (Short Acting)

A
  • *Indication** hyperglycemia with diabetes type 1 and type 2, ketoacidosis
  • *Action** stimulates uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells, inhibits production of glucose in the livere, prevents breakdown of fat and protien
  • IV onset 1-2 hr, Peak 4-12 hr*
  • *Class** lpancreatics, antidiabetics
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor body weight over time, may cause decreased inorganic phsophates, potassium and mag. Monitor B/S Q6, monitor A1C every 3-6 months
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282
Q

Responsibilities of UAP

A
  • No scope of practice
  • Non-invasive and non-sterile treatments
  • bathing, transferring, ambulating, feeding, toileting, Vital signs
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283
Q

when is a very low calorie diet acceptable

A

an obese client (BMI greater than 30). Need professional monitoring.

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284
Q

What type of diet does a patient with preeclampsia need?

A

protein. Lie on the left side, adequite fluids. Protein restores osmotic pressure

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285
Q

What is the mneomonic for a client with celiacs

A
  • Barley
  • Rye
  • Oats
  • Wheat
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286
Q

What is BUN

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen. How much concentration, if highly concentration, kidneys are not functioning properly

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287
Q

Situations where Promethazine would be prescribed.

A
  • going on a cruise
  • preoperative sedation or surgery
  • enhancing pain med after surgery due to sedation

anti-emetic, drowsiness

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288
Q

If a mother is RH negative and rbeastfeeding exclusively, what is a concern

A

hyperbilirubemia

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289
Q

How much radiation in mammography is it equivalent to?

A

one hour of sun exposure

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290
Q

what drugs are used for gout

A

colchicine, allopurinol, probenecid

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291
Q

how often should trach be cleaned

A

every 4 hours

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292
Q

S2 Auscultation

A
  • closing of the aortic valve
  • after short systolic pause, before long diastolic pause
  • heard best over aorta, secon right interspace
  • high pitched dull in quality
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293
Q

Hydralazine

A

Indication Hypertension

Action arterial vasodilator

Class anti hypertensive, vasodilator

Nursing tachycardia, sodium retention, dysrthymias, angina. Use caution with MAOIs. Monitor BP. Instruct pt on how to take BP

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294
Q

What are minors known as if they are married

A

emancipated minors through marriage, pregnancy, high school graduation, independet living or service in the military (have the legal capacity of an adult)

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295
Q

Sucralfate

A
  • *Indication** GI ulcers, GI injury prevention form high dose aspirin, NSAID tx
  • *Action** reacts with gastric acid to form a paste that dheres to ulcer
  • *Class** antiulcer, GI protectant
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution in renal failure, concurrent use of antacids may decrease the effect of sucralfate. Administer 30 min before or after. Adminsiter on empty stomch 1 hour before meals
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296
Q

Signs Symptoms of Buerger’s disease

A

vasculitis of blood vessels in upper and lower extremities. Digital sensitivity to cold

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297
Q

principle of safe assignments of nurse has never done a procedure before

A

change the assignment. Match the skills with the tasks.

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298
Q

CNS infection examples

A

meningiits, encephalitis

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299
Q

Oxytocin

A
  • *Indication** labor induction, postpartum bleeding
  • *Action** stimulates uterine smooth muscle
  • *Class** hormone, oxytocics
  • *Nursing Considerations** ICH in fetus, asphyxia in fetus, may cause coma and seizures in mother. Monitor blood pressure, assess maternal electrolytes. Uterine Tetany
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300
Q

what drug is given for myesthenia gravis

A

neostigmine. before eating will hep with chewing and swallowing.

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301
Q

What is a problem an infant could have if mother has diabetes?

A

hypoglycemia due to increased output of insulin

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302
Q

Terbutaline

A
  • *Indication** asthma, COPD, preterm leabor
  • *Action** prdouces bronchodilation
  • *Nursing Considerations** nervousness, restlessness, tremors, assess respiratory status. monitor for hypoglycemia, may cause decreased potassium level.
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303
Q

Common symptoms of pneumonia

A

rusty sputum

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304
Q

Care after myelogram

A
  • drink lots of clear liquids
  • remain in bed for 8 hours, slightly elevated
  • resume regular diet and meds
  • avoid alcohol for 24 hours
  • no strenuous activity for 48 hours.
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305
Q

What procedures should be implemented following a broncoscopy

A

semi-fowlers position, vitals q15. assess respiratory difficulty

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306
Q

What do you need to know about DIC

A

always secondary to something else

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307
Q

What is the maximum dose of IM injection for infants and toddlers

A

1mL

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308
Q

CABs in CPR stand for

A

compressions, airway, breathing

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309
Q

Trimethroprim/Sulfamethoxazole

A
  • *Indication** bronchitis, UTI, diarrhea, pneumonia, multiple types of infection
  • *Action** bacteriacidal by preventing metabolism of folic acid
  • *Class** folat antagonist, antiinfective, antiprotozoal
  • *Nursing Considerations** renal damage, steven johnson syndrome, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, phlebitis, drink 8-10 glasses of water
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310
Q

When you see coffee brown emesis what should you think

A

peptic ulcer

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311
Q

What is buck’s traction used for

A

to immobilize, position and align the lower extremity.

5-7 lbs is recommended for skin traction

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312
Q

Primary Nursing

A
  • Primary nurse designs, implements and is accountable for nursing care of clients during entire stay on the unit
  • continuity of care, not feasible with varying schedules
  • greater nurse satisfaction, more personalized care, less turn over
  • fewer negative outcomes for patients
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313
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Indication seizure, DM neruopathy, pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia

Action affects sodium channels in neurons leading to decreased synaptic transmission

Class anticonvulsant

Nursing interferes with oral contraceptives, do not use with MAOIs, suicidal thoughts, Steven Johnson syndrom, agranylocytosis, aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia, No grapefruit juice, monitor CBC and platelets, monitor blood levels

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314
Q

What is penatmidine isethoionate used for and how do you know if it is affective?

A

prevent pneumocystitis, (AIDS), drug should decrease crackles and dyspnea.

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315
Q

What is the normal range for prothrombin time?

What is the normal range for Warfarin

A

10-14 seconds

20-28 seconds

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316
Q

Symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis

A
  • muscle weakness that improves with rest
  • ptosis- drooping eyelids
  • impaired speech
  • dysphagia
  • double vision (diplopia)
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317
Q

Findings of Endocarditis

A
  • Red spots on palms/soles (Janeway lesions)
  • Red painful sores on fingetips and tes (Osler’s Nodes)
  • fever, night sweats muscle aches.
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318
Q

Feeding an infant with a cleft lip

A

rubber tip syringe, prevent sucking on the tubing, Tend to swallow excessive amounts of air, require frequent bubbling.

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319
Q

Verapamil

A
  • *Indication**hypertension, angina, SVT, migrain
  • *Action** prevents tranport of calcium, leading to decreased contraction, decreases SA and AV node conduction
  • *Class** antianginal, antiarrthymic, antihtn, vascular headache. CA blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** dont use with 2nd 3rd degree block. can cause anxiety, confusion, cough, dypsnea, CHF, bradycardia, hypotension, elevated liver enzymes, Steven’s Johnson sydrome. Hyperglycemia, gingival hyperplasia. grapefruit can increase effects. Can increase levels of diozin. assess angina.
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320
Q

pregnancy and type 1 insulin requirements

A

increase during pregnancy and decrease after delivery

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321
Q

Magnesium Sulfate

A
  • *Indication** HTN, hypomagnesameia, preterm labor, torsade de pointes, asthma, anticonvulant with eclampsia
  • *Action** magnesium plays a role in muscle excitability
  • *Class** mineral/electrolytes
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with renal insufficiency, decreased respiratory rate, dysrthymias, hypotension, muscle weakness. Monitor EKG and repsiratory status. Monitor Mg levels. 2 practictioner check
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322
Q

Nursing considerattions with Vincristin (Oncovin)

A
  • Used for ALL (Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia)
  • IV use only
  • Intrathetcal admin can be fatal
  • Vesicant can cause local damage if extravasation occurs
    • Tx includes warm compresses
  • Peripheral neuropathy is a major side effect
  • monitor for decreased hepatic functining b/c gets metabolized in the liver
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323
Q

Activity Lifestyle changes after MI

A

decrease physical activites. Need Cardiac Rehab

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324
Q

which is worse, inhaling a chemical or swallowing it?

A

inhaling. Immediate absorption and can impair oxygen exchange

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325
Q

what std is reportable

A

Gonorrhea

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326
Q

What is most valuable tool for school aged children and physical assessment

A

weight and heigh compared to standard tables

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327
Q

Cold vs Hot for pain

A

Cold for acute pain, heat for chornic pain (RA)

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328
Q

Why would a patient with hypertension have increased renin levels

A

increases serum aldosterone levels, increasing kidney reabsroption of soidum and water. Increases blood pressure

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329
Q

where are eye drops placed for a child?

A

in the conjuctival sac as the lower lid is pulled down

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330
Q

Foods to avoid if low WBCs

A

raw fruits and vegetables, undercooked meats, moldy cheeses, luch meat, salads things from the deli counter, brewed teas.

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331
Q

What needs to happen to prep a client for iv pyelogram

A
  • clean out gi tract
  • NPO 8-12 hours
  • administer laxative the evening before
  • enema morning of the test
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332
Q

Precautions to take with RSV

A

no contact lenses or pregnant nurses in rooms where ribavirin is being administered by hood, tent, etc.

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333
Q

What is a major side effect of terbutaline when used for women in labor?

A

tachycardia, withhold the medication. Fetus may have tachycardia and hypoglycemia. Minimal effects aon blood pressure thought.

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334
Q

Dobutamine

A

Indication short term mgmt of heart failure

Action positive inotropic effects, little effect on heart rate. Stimulates beta receptors in the heart

Class inotropic, adrenergic

Nursing hemodynapics, hypertension, increase HR, PVCs, skin reactions, beta blockers may negate therapeutic effects, montior CO, watch peripheral pulses, do not confuse with dopamine

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335
Q

What type of breathing occurs with pneumothorax?

A

rapid respirations/ tachypnea

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336
Q

Procedure for neutropenic precautions

A
  • PPE
  • private room
  • visitor restriction
  • no raw vegetable or fruits
  • bathe daily
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337
Q

Heberden’s nodes are characteristic of

A

osteoarthritis nodules. Strongly inherited.

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338
Q

Metoclopramide

(Reglan)

A
  • *Indication** prevention of N/V hiccups, migrains, gastric stasis
  • *Action accelerates gastric emptying by stimulating motility**
  • *Class** anti-emetic
  • *Nursing Considerations** do not use with GI obstruction. Can cay extrapyramidal reaction, Neurolyptic malignant syndrome, Tardive dyskinesia, dysrithymias, BP alterations, hematologic alteration, facila movements, sedation. Can decrease effects of levodopa. Monitor liver function
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339
Q

-perone

A

antianxiety agent

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340
Q

Demerol contraindication

A

sickle cell crisis

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341
Q

Indications of Intenstinal obstruction

A

abdominal distention, chills fever (toxic megacolon), fitula formation

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342
Q

What are the 3 Ps of hyperglycemia?

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphasia

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343
Q

he client is informed that the ultrasound suggests the baby is small for gestational age (SGA). An earlier ultrasound indicated normal growth. What causes this change?

A

maternal hypertension. Common cause of late pregnancy fetal growth restriction. Vasoconstriction reduces placental exchange of oxygen and nutrients.

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344
Q

Why is it important for a patient with an acute episode of pancreatitis to maintain bedrest

A

decreases the metabolic rate and the secretion of pancreatic enzymes; bathroom priveledges are not allowed.

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345
Q

by 6 months of age, what are the immunizations a child will have received?

A
  • 3 doses of diptheria
  • tetanus
  • pertussis
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346
Q

Heparin

A

Indication venous trhomboembolism, prophylaxis and tx. Low dose used to ensure patency of IV catheters

Action increases the inhibitory effect of antithrombin on factor Xa

Class anticoagulant, antithrombotic

Nursing monitor signs of bleeding, platelet count, hyperkalemia, pt report signs of bleeding

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347
Q

liver biopsy prep

A

administer vit k, npo 6-12 before. Teach pt will need to hold breath for 5-10 secs, supine position, lateral with upper arms elevated. Post- position on rt side, frequent vs. Report severe ab pain stat. No heavy lifting for 1 wk

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348
Q

Guaifenesin (Robitussin)

A

Indication cough suppression

Action decreases viscosity of and mobilizes secretions

Class allergy, cold, cough remedy, expectorant

Nursing avoid OTC meds, assess lung sounds. Adequate fluid intake

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349
Q

Amoxicillin

A
  • *Indication** skin ifections, respiratory infections, sinusitis, endocarditis prophylaxis, lime disease
  • *Action** linhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall leadting to cell death
  • *Class** antiinfective, antiulcer, aminopenicillins
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated w/ penicillin allergy, seizures, rash anaphylaxis, excreted by kidneys-monitor renal albs, monitor pt for diarrhea, bloddy stool should be reported immediately
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350
Q

-cef

A

cephlosporin

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351
Q

When is handwashing a requirement?

A
  • prior to eating
  • after cleaning a wound
  • after contact with inanimate object
  • before having direct contact with a client
  • C.Diff/soiled hands
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352
Q

what is a complication of impetigo

A

poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, watch for periorbital edema.

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353
Q

Which adverse affect of ACE inhibitors need to be reported to the HCP

A

persistent cough, common reason to change to another medication.

(accumulation of bradykinin)

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354
Q

When does a pregnant women need to increase insulin dosage

A

during first 3 months of pregnancy

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355
Q

What medication is the only FDA approved med to treat PTSD

A

SSRIs

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356
Q

russells traction is for

A

femur or lower leg

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357
Q

What symptom from a diabetic patient should be reported immediately?

A

profusion perspiration, sx of hypoglycemia. (numbness and tingling are expected findings)

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358
Q

What is the reasoning of why an OCD patient performs rituals

A

to avoid severe levels of anxiety

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359
Q

what is a controversial seizure precaution

A

padded side railes, may embarras the client and family.

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360
Q

What are you worried about with neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

very high temperature

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361
Q

What type of diet does a patient with chronic kidney disease need?

A

increase pasta and bready. Helps maintain energy requirements

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362
Q

Risk factors for CT scan with contrast

A
  • history of asthma
  • positive pregnancy
  • Poor renal function
  • Beta blockers
  • heart, kidney, thyroid disease
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363
Q
A
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364
Q

What hormone causes a womens period to stop

A

progesterone

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365
Q

Epinephrine

A

Indication adrenalin, asthma, COPD exacerbations, allergic, cardiac arrest, anesthesia adjunct

Action both beta 1 and beta 2, alpha agonist properties. Bronchodilation, increases HR and BP

Class antiasthmatic, bronchodilator, vasopressor, adrenergic

Nursing angina, tachycardia, hytpertension, restlessness, nervouseness, hyperglycemia, MAOIs can lead to hypertensive crisis, do not use stimulants, hemodynamics, chest pain, adequate fluid intake, rinse after inhalation, beta blockers negate effects, increased blood sugar

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366
Q

Priority action for pt with preeclmapsia

A

have the client turn to the left side

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367
Q

What is the antidote for metformin

A

acetylcestein (24-48 hrs after contrast)

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368
Q

characteristics of hyperkalemia

A

muscle cramps, bradycardia, v,fib

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369
Q

What is important to note when planning debridement of a deep partilal thickness burn

A

need adequate time and emotional support

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370
Q

Warfarin

A
  • *Indication** venous thrombosis, pumonary embolism, afib, myocardial infarction
  • *Action** disrupts liver synthesis of Vitamin K dependent clotting
  • *Class** anticoagulatn, coumarins
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated with bleeding, severe hypertension. Azole and anitfungals increase effects. Obtain full hx of supplements and herbsl. Large amounts of Vit K may antagonize effects of warfarin. Therapeutic level PT 1.3-1.5, INR 2.5-3.5/ No alcohol. Monitor bleeding times
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371
Q

-itis is always associated with

A

fever, inflammation, infection

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372
Q

Captopril

A

Indication hypertension

Action block angiotensin I to angiotensin II, Increases renin levels and decreases aldosterone. Vasodilation

Class ACE inhibitor, antihtn

Nursing neurtopenia, watch potassium, watch diuretics, 1 hr before meals, watch weight and fluid status, renal profile, monitor CBC

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373
Q

Proper technique for administering TPN thru Central Line

A
  1. Confirm the order
  2. check solution for cloudiness
  3. select and flusht the correct tubing and filter
  4. Thread IV tubing thru infusion pup
  5. use aseptic technique for handling injection cap
  6. connect to central line
  7. Set infusion pump at prescribed rate.
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374
Q

Med of choice for SVT

A

adenosine or adenocard

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375
Q

Butorphanol

A

Indication severe pain, labor pain, sedation

Action alters perception and response to pain by biding to opiate receptors in the CNS

Class opioid analgesic, agonists

Nursing caution with MAOIs, may cause confusion, hallucination, sedation, Monitor CNS depression, assess BP, pulse and respirations, aminister slowly through IV line

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376
Q

What should clients expect after transurethral resection of the prostate

A

3 way indwelling has a large diamtere, will continuously feel the urge to void for 24-48 hours

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377
Q

What does unstable chronic angina indicate

A

impending heart attack

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378
Q

Common symptoms of asthma

A

wheezon on expiration

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379
Q

How is anthrax spread

A

contact with infected animal hair and hides

standard precautions

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380
Q

Contact Precautions Mrs. WEE

A
  • Multidrug resistant organism
  • respiratory infections
  • skin infections
  • wound infection
  • entereic infetion- c.diff
  • eye infection- conjuctivitis
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381
Q

What could be a cause at home for a child to have an astma attack

A

new pillow

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382
Q

Drugs that alter electrolytes

A
  • diuretics
  • Thiazides- hold on to Ca & Uric Acid
  • ACE- hyperkalemia
  • Steroids- hypokalemia
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383
Q

Characterstics of hyponatremia

A

Nausea, confusion, muscle twitching, ICP, muscle cramps

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384
Q

When should you withold a calcium channel block (-dipine)

A

bradycardia

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385
Q

other than clearing the bowels, what else does IVP require

A

radiopaque dye, allergy to iodine can be life threatening

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386
Q

Fetal Lie

A

the relationship between the head to tailbone axis for both the fetus and the mother

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387
Q

Where is pain in diverticulitis

A

Left Lower Quadrant

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388
Q

Mannitol

A
  • *Indication** increased ICP, oliguric renal failure, edema introcular pressure
  • *Action** reeabsorption of water and electrolytes by increasing osmotic pressure excreted by the kidneys
  • *Nursing Considerations** phlebitis at IV site. Dehydration, F/E imbalance. Monitor neuro status
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389
Q

How might restrains without consent or sufficient justification be interpreted?

A

false imprisonment

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390
Q

When is a child ready for toilet training

A

when myelinationf of the spinal cord is completed this is when voluntary control of sphincter muscles occurs. (between 18 and 24 months). Child has to be walking without holdingo n.

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391
Q

What will a patient experience with placenta previa

A

painless vaginal bleeding (painful bleeding indicated abruptio placenta)

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392
Q

Procedure for dressing change of burn

A
  1. administer morphine
  2. debride the wound of eschar using gauze
  3. obtain wound cultures
  4. apply silvadene ointment
  5. cover wound with sterile gauze dressing
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393
Q

In a math equation requiring dilution factor, what should you watch for as potential trick

A

don’t get confused by the quantitiy of diluent. only the final concentration directs your answer

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394
Q

what does percocet have with it?

A

oxycodone with acetaminophen

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395
Q

Infant milestones

A
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396
Q

Name an example of a hypotonic solution

A

0.45% sodium chloride

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397
Q

LPN/LVN and blood

A

cannot handle

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398
Q

Common cause of aortic stenosis

A

aging heart, or rheumatic fever

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399
Q
A
  • Atrial Flutter
  • Regular Rate
  • QRS 0.06
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400
Q

Infectious Diseaseas that are droplet

A

rubella, meningitis

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401
Q

why should metformin be taken with meals?

A

to reduce side effects such as N/V, anorexia, ab cramps, fatigue.

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402
Q

What is a contraindication for receiving influenza vaccine

A

allergy to egg proteins b/c grown on egg embryos

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403
Q

precautions with a fistula

A

never take blood pressure or draw blood from arm with fistula

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404
Q

Fetal adaptions during labor

A
  • engagement
  • descent
  • flexion
  • internal rotation
  • extension
  • external rotation
  • expulsion
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405
Q

What is lateral communication

A

between staff members i.e. coordinate activities

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406
Q

What can cause false positive result on fecal occult test

A
  • eating red meat
  • NSAIDS
  • steroid use
  • bleeding gums
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407
Q

Cardiopa/Levodopa

A

Indication parkinson’s disease

Action levodopa converts to dopamine and works as a neurotransmitter and carbidopa prevents destruction of levodopa

Class dopamine agonist, antiparkinson agent

Nursing orthostatic hypotension, dark urine, takes weeks to effect, no MAOIs, no with glaucoma/melanoma

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408
Q

Indomethacin

A

Indication inflammaotry disorders when pts do not respond to other meds.

Action decrease pain and inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

Class antirheumatic, ductus arteriosis patency, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent

Nursing monitor hepatitis and GI bleed, dizziness, drowsiness and headache. Assess for anaphylactic reaction. Aspirin may decrease effectiveness. Monitor renal labs. Shake supension before administration. Pt should wear sunscreen and protective clothing to protect against photosensitivity.

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409
Q

What is a major side effect to be noted with mag

A

decreased urine output, oliguria

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410
Q

What is the ONLY insulin that can be given IV push

A

short acting

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411
Q

Purpose of a tracheostomy

A
  • when patient is unable to maintain airway
  • unable to cough productively
  • Permits Use of Positive Pressure Ventilation
  • Prevents aspiration of secretions in unconcsious/paralyzed
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412
Q

Calcium Acetate

A

Indication hypocalcemia, menopausal osteoporosis, hypokalemia,

Action maintains cell membranes, muscle contraction, nerve impulses, blood formation and coagulation

Class antacids, minerl/electrolyte replacement

Nursing cardiac arrest and arrhythmias, phlebitis at insertion, hypotension, bradycardia, hypercalcemia, dig toxicity, watch parathyroid hormone

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413
Q

Alendronate

A
  • *Indication** osteoporosis
  • *Action** linhibits osteoclast activity leading to inhibition of resorption of bone
  • *Class** bone resorption inhibitor, biphophnates
  • *Nursing Considerations** take first thing in the morning w/ water 30 min prior to eating, assess calcium, may cause muscle pain
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414
Q

What is Creatinine

A

by product of muscle breakdown. our body tries to filter this out.

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415
Q

Why might you not put liquid medication down a gastrostomy tube?

A

may contain sorbitol. If client has an allrgy can cause diarrhea.

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416
Q

What are contraindications for a halo crown

A

skull fractures, chest trauma, obesity and avadanced age

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417
Q

on the nclex what is important to watch for if client has COPD or emphysema?

A

Should NOT increase oxygen.

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418
Q

primary goal of managed care is to..

A

reduce health care costs

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419
Q

Bubbling in a suction control chamber vs bubbling in water seal chamber?

A

Suction control bubbling is expected

Water seal, indicates air leak

notify HCP if draining is more than 100mL/hr

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420
Q

Common side effects of sulfonamides?

A

Urticaria/Rash

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421
Q

What is an example of behavioral therapy

A

using positive and negative reinforcement. Assertiveness trainsing and desensitiization.

good for phobias, sexual dysfunction, eating disorders, etc.

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422
Q

What is always an intervention when puncturing the spine

A

need fluids

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423
Q

Losartan (Cozaar)

A
  • *Indication** HTN, DM neuropathy, CHF
  • *Action** inhibits vasoconstrictive properties of angiotensin II
  • *Class** angiotensin I receptor antagonist
  • *Nursing Considerations** hypotension, tachycardia, angioedema, hyperkalemia. May increase digoxin levels. Asses BP and Heart rate. Assess fluids. Monitor dail weights with CHF. Monitor renal and liver.
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424
Q

PO2

A

80-100%

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425
Q

Diphemhydramine (Benadryl)

A

Indication allergy, anaphylaxis, sedation, motion sickness, antitussive

Action antagonizes effects of histamine, CNS depression

Class allergy, cold and cough, antihistamine, antitussive

Nursing drowsiness, anorexia, dry mouth, nausea, chest tightness, thick secreations, hypotension, blurred vision, headache, anticholinergic effects, monitor cough and lung sounds, avoid otc meds.

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426
Q

Trasmission based precaution for C.diff

A

contact precautions

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427
Q

Glipizide

A

Indication type 2 diabetes mellitus

Action stimulate release and sensitivity to insulin to lower blood glucose

Class anti-diabetic, sulfonylureas

Nursing aplastic anemias, hypoglycemia, photosensitivity, dizziness, drowiness, headache, diarrhea. Monitor CBC, assess for allergy to sulfonamides. Beta blockers may creat signs of hypoglycemia. Instruct patient on how to check blood sugars. Carry source of sugar in case of hypoglycemia

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428
Q

What are signs of ectoptic pregnanct

A

unilateral, dull abodminal pain

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429
Q
A
  • Aystole
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430
Q

Major serious symptom of ectopic pregnancy

A

left lower quadrant pain

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431
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Indication hypertension, CHF, renal dysfunction, Cirrhosis, glucocorticoid therapy

Action selectively inhibits reuptake serotonin

Class anti hypertensive, diuretics, thiazide diuretic

Nursing dizziness, hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia, dehydration. hypokalemai can increase risk for dig toxicity. Monitor BP and I/Os. Monitor electrolyte levels. Take same time each day. How to take BP.

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432
Q

how should pain med be administered for a cancer patient with chronic pain

A

around the clock is more affective with cancer

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433
Q

What is an issue with infants who have a diabetic mother?

A

congential anomalies

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434
Q

What is the leading cause of skin breakdown?

A

decrease in tissue perfusion

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435
Q

Things the nurse CANNOT delegate

A
  • assessment
  • evaluation of client date
  • nursing judgment
  • teaching and evaluation
  • nursing dx, or care planning
  • admission/discharge
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436
Q

in a psychiatric unit, which client should you see first typically

A

auditory hallucination, make sure they are not telling the lcient o harm self or others

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437
Q

RACE stands for

A

Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate

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438
Q

What could a patient who is 27 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding during intercourse.

A

could mean lots of things. could be placenta previa– more serious.

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439
Q

For a patient who is receiving chemotherapy, which laboratory result is of particular importance?

A

WBC, b/c chemo can decrease wbcs (neutropenia). Leaves the patient vulnerable to infection.

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440
Q

How can you tell the difference between Cerbro Spinal Fluid and other drainage?

A

Halo test, CSF will be + for glucose. When present there will be a halo around the blood spot

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441
Q

Med of choice for Vtach?

A

lidocaine

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442
Q

what pelvic inflammatory disease is frequently caused by what infectious disease

A

chlamydia and gonorrhea

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443
Q

Renal Encephalopathy signs pt with hemodlialysis

A

confusion irritability, elevated BUN and Creatnine

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444
Q

Gross Motor Skills

2-3 years

A
  • balance on one foot for 3 seconds
  • catch a ball
  • pedals tricycle
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445
Q

when does discharge planning start?

A

upon admission

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446
Q

what is the most practical way to communicate with a patient that has a trach

A

yes/no question (nod, shake)

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447
Q

What is very important with pateitns with sickle cell disease

A

hydration and anlagesics

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448
Q

What is the most serious complication following gastric bypass surgery (bariatric surgery)

A

anastomotic leak. Monitor for back, shoulder, abdominal pain, restlessness, unexplained tachycardia, oliguria. Immediately report to surgeon. Do not manipulate NG tube. Elevate HOB.

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449
Q

what toxin needs to be monitored when giving nitroprusside

A

metabolism involved the production of cyanide.

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450
Q

Amitryptiline

A
  • *Indication** depression, anxiety, insomnia
  • *Action** increases effect of serotonin and norepinephrine in the CNS, exhibits antichoinergic effects
  • *Class** Antidepressant, tricyclic
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated in MI, heart failure, glaucoma, risk for suicidal ideation, arrthythmias, hypotension EKG, alter BG levels, lethargy, do not use with MAOIs, take exactly as instructed, orthostatic hypotension, photosensitivity, may turn urine blue/green
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451
Q

How do you relieve flatus from a patient with an ostomy pouch

A

open the bottom of the pouch in privacy will cause odor.

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452
Q

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

A

Indication depressive disorder, PCD, bulimia, panic, bipolar, ADHD, DM neuropathy, obesity

Action inhibits reuptake of serotonin,

Class antidepressant, SSRI

Nursing contraindicated wtih MAOI, citallrpan use, may cause suididal thoughts, insomnia, diarrhea, nausea, serotonin syndrome, QT prolongation, monitor nutrition, good oral hygiene. 4-6 weeks for full affect to take place

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453
Q

Right CVA affects

A

impulsive behavior

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454
Q

What is the safe action for removing an NG tube

A

ask the client to hold breath until tube is completely out. Closes the epiglottis and helps prevent aspiration. When inserting it is easier of the pt swallows.

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455
Q

What is a major side effect of antineoplastic drugs

A

ototoxciity

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456
Q

Ranitidine

A
  • *Indication** duodenal ulcers, GERD, heartburn esophagitis, GI bleed
  • *Action** inhibits action of histamine in gastric pareital cells, decreases gastric acid secretion
  • *Class** antiulcer agent, H2 blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** dysrthmias, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, confusion. Ab pain, monitor for blood in stool. monitor CBC
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457
Q

Digoxin

A

Indication CHF, Afib, Aflutter

Action ipositive inotropic effect, increases force of Myocardial contraction, prolongs refractiory period, decrease conduction through SA and AV nodes. Increases CO and slow Rate

Class antiarrhythmic, inotropics, digitalis glycosides

Nursing contraindicated with uncontrolled ventricular arrhthmias, hypokalemia increase risk for toxicity, hypercalcemia increase risk for toxic, caution with diuretic, watch for bradycardia, toxciity= vision changes, yellow green vision, montior pulse rate for 1 full minute

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458
Q

Interventions for patient with flail chest

A
  • paradoxical respirations
  • monitor vital signs for shock
  • (Pler-evac is for pneumothorax)
  • Very painful, need pain meds
  • Turn Cough Deep Breath, lung expansion
  • Monitor ABGs
  • No need for surgery
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459
Q

eccentric training

A

muscle tenses while lengthening

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460
Q

Where my patient report pain if they have pancreatitis?

A

sharp pain in the epigastric area, above the belly button. Pt might report upper back pain, nurse needs to assess correct location regardless of how the client identifies it verbally.

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461
Q

Abnormal vital sigs and taking fish oil garlic and naproxen

A

all thos medication increase risk for bleeding. check color of bowel, bruising, frequency of medication use

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462
Q

arrett’s esophagus is a complication of this condition

A

GERD

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463
Q

if a client denies pain after surgery, how do you validate their pain

A

uses the faces pain scale. another assessment besides 1-10

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464
Q

If you notice a mass in the umbilica area, which assessment should you NOT perform?

A

palpate/percuss b/c risk of rupture. Auscultate, bruit would confirm an aneurysm

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465
Q

PPE for Contact Precautions

A

Gown, Gloves

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466
Q

Digoxin antidote

A

digiband

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467
Q

Contraindications for IPV (Inactivated polio vaccine)

A

anaphylactic rx to neomycin, streptomycin or polymyxin B

Even HIV are eligible for this

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468
Q

Phenazopyridine

A
  • *Indication** urological pain
  • *Action** analgesia to Urinary tract mucosa
  • *Class** non opioid analgesic
  • *Nursing Considerations** urine will turn red orange. headache, vertigo, heaptic toxicity, monitor renal function
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469
Q

What does an elevated ST segment mean?

A

client is having a heart attack. Get them to the cath lab for PCI in less than 90 minutes

worry about this client

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470
Q

What is the term when a nurse causes unintended harm to a patient?

A

Negligence

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471
Q

What is the most accurate way of determining proper NG tube placement?

A

measure hte pH of aspirated gastric contents

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472
Q

Spironolactone

A
  • *Indication** potassium loss, hypertension, edema CHF
  • *Action** inhibits sodium reabsorption while sparing potassium and hydrogen
  • *Class** diuretic
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated with hyperkalemia, monitor I/O, BP, potassium and renal panel
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473
Q

deep partial thickness burns think

A

blisters are present

red, edema, pain!

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474
Q

Ferrous Sulfate

A

Indication prevention of iron deficiency anemia

Action iron is needed for hemoglobin, myoglobin and enzymes. It is transported to organs where it becomes part of iron stores

Class anti-anemic, iron supplement

Nursing seizures, hypotension, constipation, epigastric pain, diarrhea, skin staining, anaphylaxis. Asses nutrtional status, bowel function. Monitor hemoglobin, hematocrin. May cause eleved liver enzymes. Should take on an empty stomach to increase absorptio (vit c helps). Use z-track for IM injections.

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475
Q

anticoagulants/narcotics and LPNs

A

can be administered to stabled clients. But these are HIGH alert medications that should be given by RN to unstable client.

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476
Q

Gabapentine

A

Indication seizures, peripheral neuropathy, neuropathic pain, prevention of migraines

Action exact method of action is unknown

Class anticonvulsant, mood stabilizer

Nursing suicidal thoughts, confusion, depression, drowsiness, ataxia, facial edema, HTN. Monitor pt closely for changes in behavior and dpression. Asses seizure activity, pain. Take as prescribed

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477
Q

Client with a VTE should be on bed rest because

A

prevent pulmonary embolism. elevate legs, apply warm moist packs, monitor perippheral pulses, administer anticoagulants.

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478
Q

1 tblsp - how many mls

A

15 mls

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479
Q

Hallmark Signs of Severe Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

cough, difficulty breathing, fatigue, fever > 100.4, headache, myalgia.

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480
Q

compressions per breath for a 5 year old

A

same as adult 30/2

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481
Q

What is the main cause of glomerulonephriits?

A

strep. Treat my getting rid of strep

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482
Q

if you see the word immobilize 95% of the time think…

A

turn 2 hours, skin breakdown!

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483
Q

if a patient takes prednisone for adrenal insufficiency before surgery. What should you modify for the surgery

A

increase the dosae, because surgery increases the demand. Monitor vs, check for infection and bleeding

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484
Q

Right Sided Heart Failure

A
  • dependent edema
  • distended neck veins
  • weight gain
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485
Q

Nursing Considerations regarding colestipol

A

antilipemic agent. Need Fat Soluble vitamins. Used for high cholestorerl and treat digitalis toxicity, biliary obstruction.

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486
Q

cause of GERD, location

A

lower esophageal sphincter.

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487
Q

What is the best indicator of dehydration

A

weight

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488
Q

What is the best indicator of an alcohol problem in a patient

A

tremors, elevated temp, nocturnal leg cramps, complaints of pain

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489
Q

Hydrocodone/Acetominiphen (Norco)

A

Indication moderate to severe pain

Action alters perception and reaction to pain by binding to opiate receptors in the CNS. Suppresses the cough reflex.

Class opioid analgesic, allergy, cold and cough remedy.

Nursing hypotension, monitor hemodynamics and respirations. May increase ICP. Narcan is the antidote for OD. Do not exceed 4g of acetominophen per day

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490
Q

What is Most important to note while a patient is having a seizure

A

observe the sequence and types of movements

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491
Q

Potassium antidote

A

insulin, NaHCO3, Kayexalate, Albuterol

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492
Q

what oral medication can be given to a type 2 diabetic

A

glipizide

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493
Q

What does downward communication mean?

A

used to relate organizationl policy such as position description and rules and regulations

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494
Q

symptoms of meningitis?

A

nuchal rigidity (neck), photophobia, DROPLET

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495
Q

Can CNAs collect urin specimens

A

yes

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496
Q

What drug should not be given with Lithium

A

diuretics (furosemide)

additional side effects include polyuria, polydipsia

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497
Q

Gastric vs Duodenal Ulcer

A
  • G: laboring person, malnourished, pain AFTER eating. Food does NOT help. Vomiting does,
  • D: Executives, well nourished. Pain after couple hours of eating. food helps
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498
Q

When is an electronic blood pressure machine contraindicated?

A

irregular HR, peripheral vascular disease, seizure, tremors, and shivering

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499
Q

What reason could a child have frequent bouts of gastroenteritis?

A

daycare, increased number children prone to infections

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500
Q

what happens to a patient taking cyclophasphamide for MS

A

develop alopecia 4-5weeks after starting treatment

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501
Q

SPIDERMAN acroydmn for droplet precautans

A
  • Sepsis
  • Scarlet fever
  • Streptococcal pharyngitis
  • parvovirus
  • pneumonia
  • pertussis
  • influenza
  • diptheria
  • epiglottitis
  • rubella
  • mumps
  • meningitis
  • mycoplasma or menigeal pneumonia
  • Adenovirus
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502
Q

if you see the word discharge for delegation its always the..

A

RN!!

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503
Q

how high should irrigation bag be held for an enema

A

12-18 inches

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504
Q

What is the patho behind MS

A

demyelination of spinal cord white matter. Can lead to parastesias. Difficulty swalling, impaired speech. Provide warm baths and packs. wide based walk. Bladder training.

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505
Q

Aspirin

A
  • *Indication** rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, ischemic stroke and MI prophylaxis
  • *Action** inhibits production of prstaglandins which leads to rreductiono fever and inflammation, decreases platelet aggregation leading to a decrease in ischemic diseases
  • *Class** antipyretic, non opioid analgesic, salicylates
  • *Nursing Considerations** bleeding, chronic alcohol use, Steven Johnson syndrome, laryngeal edema, anaphylaxis, increass risk for bleeding with warfarin, heparin, and clopdiogrel, increased risk for GI bleeding w. NSAID, liver function tests
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506
Q

what should you watch for with a patient that has myelonmeingocele?

A

elevated temp, irritability, lethargy. At risk to develop meningitis. Change dressing ever 2-4 hours using aseptic technique.

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507
Q

What happens to WBCs & RBCs with UTIs

A
  • WBC: inflammation irritation of urethra
  • RBC: bladder mucosa irritated and bleeding
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508
Q

what does theophylline do to digoxin toxicity?

A

increases risk, decreases effects of lithium and dilantin

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509
Q

How should you control a patient in a wheelchair in an elevator

A

back into the elevator, allows patient control

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510
Q

What is the safest laxative to administer?

A

Bulk-forming- Psyllium Hydrophilic mucilloid.

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511
Q

What could be a risk factor for malignant hyperthermia r/t general anesthetic

A

muscle cramps, or unexplained death of a relative with a febrile condition.

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512
Q

How long does an MRI procedure take

A

90 mintues

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513
Q

Prior to a CAT scan what is most important to assess?

A

problem client may have with enclosed spaces?

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514
Q

Propanolol

A
  • *Indication** hypertension, angina, arrthymias, cardiomyopathy, alcohol withdrawal, anziety
  • *Action** blocks Beta 1 & 2
  • *Class** antianginal, antiarrthymic, antihypertensive, headache suppressant, beta blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** pulmonary edema, contraindicated with CHF, cardiogenic shock, bradycardia, heart block. Masks symptoms associated with diabetes mellitus. Advise physician if difficulty breathing
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515
Q

What is the drug of choice for frequent premature ventricular contractions?

A

lidocain

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516
Q

Metformin

A
  • *Indication** mgmt of type II DM
  • *Action** decreases glucose production inthe liver, decrease absorption, increases ellular insulin sensitivity
  • *Class** antidiabetic, Biguanide
  • *Nursing Considerations** do not use with renal dysfunction, metabolic acidosis. May cause diarrhea, N/V, lactic acidosis. D/C if acidotic.
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517
Q

Which age range is at increased risk for poisoning?

A

Toddlers age 1-3 years b/c increasing mobility

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518
Q

What will be elevated in glomerulonephritis?

A

Antistreptolysin (ASO)

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519
Q

Common EKG changes with Hypokalemia

A
  • ST segment depression
  • Inverted T waves
  • Prominent U waves
  • Heart Block
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520
Q

When are hemovac or jackson pratt’s removed after total kneww surgery

A

the morning after

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521
Q

Post op Thyroidectromy

A
  • Have suction, oxygen, trach available
  • monitor repsirations
  • Semi Fowler’s position
  • laryngeal nerve damage
  • hypocalcemia
  • thyroid storm
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522
Q

Avg circumference of the head for a neonate

A

32-36 cm

523
Q

CABG

A

CABG intersted proximally and distally

524
Q

Risk factor to look for with femoral politeal bypass graft

A

clammy skin, hypovolemic shock

525
Q

Codeine

A

Indication mgmt of pain, diarrhea, cough suppressant

Action binds to opiate receptors in the CNS and alters perception of pain while producing genereal depression of CNS. Decreases cough reflex and GI motility

Class allergy, cold, cough remedy, antitussive, opioid analgesic, opioid agonist

Nursing alteration in mentation, hypotension, constipation, N/V, asses vitals before admin, caution with MAOIs

526
Q

Why would you be concerned about a depressed client stating that “things are getting better”?

A

could be indirect suicide, nurse should clairfy pt’s statments

527
Q

High density lipoproprotein (HDL)

A

30-70 mg/DL

528
Q

What PPE do you need for herpes zoster

A

N95 Respirator, Gown, Gloves

spread thru airborne and contact

529
Q

What is the most common airway injury associated with burns?

A

carbon monoxide poisoning

530
Q

where is the fundus 12 hour after birth

A

1cm above the umbilicus. Descends 1-2 cm each day thereafter.

531
Q

Causes of myocarditis

A

mononucleuosis, parvovirus (5th disease), HIV

532
Q

Med of choice for aystole

A

atropine

533
Q

Major Side Effects of digoxin

A
  • nausea, vomiting, fatigue, bradycardia.*
    (action: inhibits sodium potassium ATPase, which make more calcium available for contractile proteins and results in increased Cardiac output
534
Q

Nitroprusside

A
  • *Indication** hypertensive criss, cardiogenic shock
  • *Action** peripheral vasodilation of arteries andv eins decreasing preload and afterload
  • *Class** vasodilator, antihypertensive
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor HR, BP, EKG continuously. Cyanide toxciity. Sympathomimetics may decrease effectiveness, PAOP monitoring may help with MI and CHF
535
Q

Pre-Op

A-M-P-L-E

A
  • Allergies
  • Medications
  • Past Med Hx
  • Last Meal
  • Events surrounding injury
536
Q

Labs for a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic state?

A

ABGs, CBC with idfferential, urinalaysis, glucose, BUN, electrolytes, chem profile, and creatnine. Rapid infusion of IV fluids

537
Q

Where should weight be placed when using crutches?

A

hands and arms

538
Q

What can oral contraceptive do to a mother that is breastfeeding

A

suppress milk production

539
Q

Insulin Mixture

Humulin 70/30

A
  • *Indication** hyperglycemia with diabetes type 1 and type 2, ketoacidosis
  • *Action** stimulates uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells, inhibits production of glucose in the livere, prevents breakdown of fat and protien
  • Lispro Mix 15-30 min , pk 2-3 hr*
  • Aspart Mix 15 min, 1-4 hr*
  • NPH reg 30 min, 4-8 hours*
  • *Class** lpancreatics, antidiabetics
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor body weight over time, may cause decreased inorganic phsophates, potassium and mag. Monitor B/S Q6, monitor A1C every 3-6 months
540
Q

proper cast care

A
  • use palms of hands when handling
  • elevated affected limb
  • compare toes
  • fan in the room- increase circulation in the room
  • Turn every 2 hours
  • Uncovered and exposed to air
541
Q

What is a risk factyor with precipitous labor?

A

early postpartum hemorrhage. Amniotic fluid embolism.

542
Q

Do you need to wear sterile gloves when removing a foley catheter?

A

No

543
Q

What are pre-surgery procedures to ensure safety

A
  • surgical site is marked by the surgeon
  • client is asked to state his/her name and birthdate
  • the client is asked to confrim the correct surgical site
544
Q

Acyclovir

A
  • *Indication** genital herpes, herpes zoster, chicken pox
  • *Action** interferes w/ viral DNA synthesis
  • *Class** antiviral, purine analogues
  • *Nursing Considerations** seizures, renal failure, Steven Johnson syndrome, thrombotic pprpura syndrome, diarrhea, dizziness, nausea, renal panel during administration, assess lesions, use proper protection druing sexual intercourse
545
Q

When you are reading answer choices for medication ORDERS .Make sure they state, dose, route, time,

A
546
Q

what happens first in an infant .Walking or using phrases?

A

walking

547
Q

Hematocrit

A

35-50%

548
Q

-olone

A

steroid

549
Q

If client states they are having vertigo, what is the priority action?

A

ensure they are sitting down to prevent falling (“are they in bed?”)

550
Q

Beta 1 affects

A

heart

551
Q

Requirements for 24 hr urine sampling

A
  • container must be kept cool
  • can help doctor confirm a diagnosis r/t kidneys
  • how much creatnine clears thru kidneys
552
Q

What is Crede Maneuver

A

used to help empty the bladder comletely. results in reduced risk for infection. Perform at the same time every day. Used for pts with spinal cord injury

553
Q

How many times should the fetus move per hour during 3rd trimester?

A

3x per hour. If it doesn,t drink a glass of juice and then start a new count

554
Q

If client wishes to die, who should be the one to report that to the family

A

the client, not the nurse. encourage pt to discuss with HCP and family.

555
Q

What intervention is needed during transition phase of labor (after first stage)

A

use shallow respiration during the contractions. (pant)

556
Q

What is seen with Wernicke’s syndrome?

A

a form of dementia due to thiamine deficiency. Diploplia or double vision

557
Q

What are signs of Wilms tumor in an 2 year old?

A

urinary output less. Malignant tumor of the kidney. Increase girth

558
Q

Symptoms of a Panic episode

A
  • Palpitations
  • Aabdominal distress
  • Nausea
  • Increased persiration
  • Chest pain
559
Q

What is a concerning observation with a COPD patient and oxygenation

A

client’s skin is pink within 20 minutes of delivery. Risk for oxygen induced hypoventilation.

560
Q

Why type of solution is lactated ringers?

A

isotonic

561
Q

where do you assess jaundice in a patient with dark skin

A

hard palate of the mouth

562
Q

Infectious diseaseas that require contact precautions

A

meningitis, Varicella (Gown, Gloves)

563
Q

What is the rooting reflex

A

touching or stroing cheek beside mouth causes baby to turn head to the side and suck (stops at 3-4 months

564
Q

what drug is commonly used to treat migrain headaches

A

zolmitriptan

565
Q

priority goal for a bowel obstruction

A

maintain fluid balance

566
Q
A

vtach

567
Q

semide

A

diuretic

568
Q

Normal Central Venous Pressure?

A

2-8mm Hg

greater than 9 indicates fluid volume overload

569
Q

Shilling Test

A

tests pernicious anemai, how well one absorbs vit b12

570
Q

dietary restrictions for glomerulonephritis

A

limit sodium, potassium, fluids and protein

571
Q

Azithromycin

A
  • *Indication** URI, chronic bronchitis, lower respiratory infections, otitis media, skin infections, STIs, prevention of bacterial endocarditis, tx of CF
  • *Action** inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
  • *Class** atypical myobacterium antiinfective, macrolide
  • *Nursing Considerations** pseydomembranous colitis, pain, diarrhea, nausea, Stevens Johnson Syndrome, Angioedema, increase risks for warafin toxicity, anaphylaxis, notify physician for diarrhea or blood in the stool, take meds exactly as prescribed.
572
Q

What is considered keep vein open rate with iv’s

A

20ml.h

573
Q

Sertraline

A
  • *Indication** major depressive disorder, OCD, anxiety
  • *Action** inhibits uptake of serotonin,
  • *Class** antidepressant, SSRI
  • *Nursing Considerations** dont use with MAOIs, neurolyptic malignant syndrome, suicidal thoughts, dry mouth, tremors, takes 1-4 weeks for therapy to be effective
574
Q

Why does prostate disease increase the risk of UTIs in men

A

increased urinary retention

575
Q

what is the leading cause of preventbale mental retardation

A

alcohol

576
Q

Adrenal cortex is associated with

A
  • Glucocorticoids- cotisol
  • mineralocorticoids- aldosterone
577
Q

Why is “play” important intervention

A

children have difficulty putting feelings into words

578
Q

When should sucralfate be given with regard to meals?

A

empty stomach, 1 hour before meals

579
Q

Order for removing PPE for client with airborne precautions

A
  1. Remove Gloves
  2. Take off Goggles
  3. Take Off Gown
  4. Remove N 95 Respirator
  5. Peform Hand Hygiene
580
Q

Acetaminophen

A
  • *Indication** pain, fever
  • *Action** inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins
  • *Class** lipid lowering agent
  • *Nursing Considerations** do not exceed 4 g per day to limit risk for liver, renal and cardiac damage, OD can lead to hepatotoxicity, increase risk for bleeding w/ warfarin, alter blood glucose measurements
581
Q

Positive Signs of pregnancy

A
  • presence of fetus
  • fetal heart tones, visualization of fetus, plpating fetal movements
582
Q
A
583
Q

Common in endocrine imbalances?

A

changes in energy level and fatigue

584
Q

What is a sign and risk when infant is receiving ventriculoperiotneal shunt?

A

ICP, sign is irritability, bulging fontanel, high pitched cry, continual crying when held.. Variable pulse. Slow respirations

585
Q

What action should you take if a piece of the PICC breaks when being removed?

A

place a tourniquet to prevent piece advancing into the right atrium. Then get an x-ray.

586
Q

When does engagement of the fetus occur in pregnancy

A

2 weeks before birth

587
Q

What does a continuous ambulatory eletrocardiography measure

A

cardiac activity during a 24 hour period. should not use an electric razor or hair dryyer. Should keep a log of all activities during monitoring

588
Q

What is the consequence if a nurse attempts to resuscitate a client with a DNR

A

committing battery

589
Q

Bilirubin Serum

A

0.3 - 1.2

590
Q

what is the most accurate method for medication dosing with kids

A

BSA

591
Q

Teaching for home sterile technique

A
  • No need for sterile gloves, non sterile is fine
  • Wash hands
  • Not possible to keep wound covered at all times
  • Use only one health care provides
  • Make sure someone look at the wound at dressing change
  • dressing discarded in a wrapped non sterile glove
592
Q

Other things to note about a PKU test

A
  • urine sample can be done 6 weeks of age
  • positive test requires dietary control to prevent brain damage
593
Q

Superficial partial thickness burn think

A

think red, No blisters, YES pain

594
Q

What fetal heart rate pattern should the nurse expect prior to administration of morphine

A

decreased variability. CNS depressant

595
Q

PCO2

A

35-45 mm HG

596
Q

First Stage of Labor Active Phase

A

lasta 4 hours for primipara, discuss regional anasthesia

597
Q

SaO2

A

96-100%

598
Q

What can you expect with a patient who has leukemia

A

epitaxis b/c of low platelets

599
Q

What is seen with korsakoff’s psychosis

A

confabulation- in order to fill memory gaps, client invents elaborate improbable happenings

600
Q

what is normal intake in a day?

A

1500 - 3000 mL

601
Q

Actions for nurse to take after administration of restraints

A
  • explain rationale for restraints
  • tie using quick release
  • thorough assessment
  • document which alternative interventions were attempted
602
Q

What is an immediate response neede during a newborn assessment?

A

red reflex is absent in newborn’s eye. Opthalmic emergency. Notify HCP immediately

603
Q

Where is the apical pulse heard? (apex/mitral area)

A

4-5th intercostal space midclavicular line

604
Q

Procedure for child with ingestion of toxic substance

A
  1. Stabilize the child (ABCs)
  2. Start IV infusion (large bore needle)
  3. Obtain history of ingestion
  4. reverse or eliminate toxic substance
605
Q

Jejunostomy vs gastric feedings

A

jejuno are given continuously to ensure absorption. Gastric are in a bolus every few hours.

606
Q

MOST common cause of iron deficiency anemia

A

loss from the GI tract in adults.

607
Q

What drugs are hepatotoxic?

A
  • INH
  • Acetominophen
  • Statins
  • Valproic Acid
  • Antifungal Agents- “Azoles”
608
Q

Newborn Apical Heart Rate Normal

A

110-160

609
Q

what drug can be used in conjuction with levodopa

A

trihexphenidyl. helps counteract the spastic effects of parkinson’s

610
Q

Airborne precaution PPE

A

Mask, N95 Mask

611
Q

what are major fears of school age children

A

loss of control and separation from friends/peers

612
Q

why is a pregnant woman anemic?

A
  • blood volume increases
  • iron utilization for fetal needs
  • decreased gastric acidity
613
Q

Divalproex

A

Indication seizures, manic episodes, prevention of headache

Action increases the level of GABA in CNS

Class anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressants

Nursing suicidal thoughts, agitation, dizziness, insomnia, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, increase risk for bleeding w/ Warfarin, caution with MAOIs, monitor liver function

614
Q

What is a risk if hematocrit increases by more than 4 points in a short span of time?

A

risk for hypertension and seizures. Watch this with epoetin

615
Q

Patho behind COPD

A

baroreceptors that detect CO2 level re destroyed. O2 lever must be low b/c high O@ concentration blow pt stimulus for breathing

616
Q

If patient sutures come out with dehissence what is the proper positioining

A

Low folwers, may be palced supine with hips and knees bent. Reduces stress on suture line

617
Q

Hallmark signs of Myasthenia Gravis

A

drooping eye lid (ptosis), mouth weakness, difficulty chewing, swallowing or talking. Arm or Leg Weakness

618
Q

If a patient in labor compains of being incontinent, what should you assess

A

pH of fluid; amiotic fluid is alkalitic, urine is acidic

619
Q

Warning signs of Type 1 Diabetes in children

A
  • fatigue
  • frequent urination (bedwetting)
  • unusual thirst
  • extreme hunger
  • weight loss
  • dry skin
620
Q

Math Conversions

A
621
Q

Tetracycline

A
  • *Indication** tx of infection, gonorrhea syphilis with penicillin alercy, chornic bronchitis
  • *Action** bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis
  • *Class** antiinfective
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with liver impairment. pseudomembranous colitis, diarrhea, N/V, photsensitivity. Increase effects of warfarin.
622
Q

How do you design an effective behavioral modification program?

A

observe client’s behavior at regular intervals. Frequency, amount, time, precipitating factors. All must be collected FIRST

example- patient screams constantly

623
Q

How is Hep A transmitted

A

fecal oral route, or someone w/ virus hands food without washing hands. Or drinking contaminated water, eating raw shellfish from polluted water

624
Q

What lab value indicate chronic kidney disease

A

BUN & Creatinine will be HIGH

625
Q

what foods prevent stool odor

A

cranberry juice, buttermilk, parsley, yogurt

626
Q

How do jewish people prefer to handle end f life care

A

control of pain is most important.

627
Q

signs a man is carrying gonnorrhea

A

has a drip. urethritis and epididmytits. Women are asymptomatic

628
Q

Each square in EKG represents how many seconds

A

0.04 seconds

629
Q

What is MDS

A

Minimum Data Set. Standardized assessment of all residents in Medicare or Medicaid certified facilities. Completed for any individual staying more than 14 days. Does not measure outcomes.

630
Q

Antidote for Magnesium Sulfate

A

Calcium Gluconate

631
Q

action of nitroglycerin for MI

A

decreases preload by dliating the vessels

632
Q

Gross Motor Skills 1-2 years

A
  • kicking a ball
  • jumping on 2 feet
  • walking upstairs
  • running
633
Q

Going up stairs with crutches

STEP UP

A
  • good leg goes up first
  • then crustches and the bad leg

Going down

down with the bad

634
Q

Antidote for Benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

635
Q

Benzotropine

A

Indication Parkinson’s Disease

Action anticholinergic to reduce rigidity and tremors

Class antiparkinson, anticholinergic

Nursing arrthymias, hypotension, palpitations, tachycardia, constipation, dry mouth, assess extrapyramidal symptoms, good oral hygiene

636
Q

early sign of diabetic nephropathy

A

albumin in the urine

637
Q

precipitous labor risks

A

fetal hypoxia

638
Q

Causes of Pericardities

A

infection, heart attack, injury to the chest esophagus or heart (MI)

639
Q

potential complication of central venous pressure line

A

pneumothorax, b/c of proximitys of central veins and lung cavity

640
Q

Prochlorperazine is given to a client after cataract surgery. Why is it given?

A

to prevent pressure on the suture line created by nausea and vomiting

641
Q

Altorvastatin

A
  • *Indication** high cholesterol
  • *Action** lowers LDL, increase HDL, inhibits HMG-CoA reductase in liver and cholesterol formation
  • *Class** lipid lowering agent
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated with liver disease,may cayse rhabdomyolysis, renal function, monitor cholesterol, report muscle weakness
642
Q

what should be restricted for a child healing from clet palate repair

A

straws, tongue depressors, thermometers, small smoons, for about 6 weeks.

643
Q

where is the pulmonic area located?

A
644
Q

Remember the med that is given for cirrhoiss and ascites mgmt?

A

albumin

645
Q

if a diabetes patient feels nervous and hungry after jogging, what should you recommend?

A

eat a snack before the run to prevent hypoglycemia caused by insulin intake and exercise

646
Q

Morphine

A
  • *Indication** pain, pulmonary edemia, MI
  • *Action** binds to opiate receptors in the CNS and alters perception of pain. Decreases cough reflex and GI motility
  • *Class** opioid analgesic,
  • *Nursing Considerations** hypotension, constipation, N/V, BP, pulse, RR. Caution with pt receiving MAOIs
647
Q

What form of delivery is preferred with preterm infants

A

cesarean

648
Q

what is a concern with a drainage evacuator

A

rapid re-inflation indicates air leak. Check plug for a secure fit

649
Q

According to Erickson theroy of personality development. Where is a child at if they are learning rules and how to play with others

A

industry vs inferiority

650
Q

how to caclulate EKG bpm

A

1500 small boxes equal 1 minute. Count small boxes then divide by 1500.

651
Q

What might excessive protein do to a patient with osteoporosis

A

may increase calcium loss in the urine

652
Q
A

Afib, No Pwave, & Irregular

300-650 bpm

653
Q

What indicates child has swallowed something corrosive

A

irritation of tissues. Mout would be burning and throat pain.

654
Q

what i the most important action for CPR

A

compress the chest hard and fast (100 compressions pe rminute)

655
Q

What is the best technique when staff need to adjust to change?

A

avoidance conflict mgmt technique. Allow staff time and space to adapt.

656
Q

Non Stress Test

A

Non Stress is NOT Good

should be reactive

657
Q

Sucking Reflex

A

slowly relaced by voluntary sucking by 2 months of age.

658
Q

Side effects of MAOIs

A

hypertension and slurred speech

659
Q

-sporin

A

immunosuppresants

660
Q

What is the first principle of safe assignments?

A

match skills with the task. New nurses should not be assigned task for which they are not competent

661
Q

What is the role of the MDS coordinator

A

interacts with health care staff to coordinate care processes of client assessment and care planning. Usually an RN

662
Q

How should an Addison’s patient prevent a crisis in hot weather

A

increase salt intake

663
Q

Gross Motor Skills

3-6 years

A
  • gallop
  • hops 5 times consecutively
  • sit ups/pushups
  • skips
664
Q

What is the extrusion reflex

A

touch or depress the tongue and it is forced outward. Stops by 4 months of age

665
Q

what is a senstaken blakemore tube used for

A

inserted thru the nose/mouth. MGMT of GI hemorrhage due to esophageal varices.

666
Q

What does folic acid treat? SATA

A
  • pregnancy
  • liver disease
  • alcoholism
  • intenstinal obstruction
667
Q

Drugs to be given with food?

A

NSAIDS

668
Q

what is polyartertis nodosa, and how has treatment changed

A

inflammation of small arteris causing diminished blood. Treatment with cortisone now results in 90% remission rate.

669
Q

Where is edema

A

in the interstitial space

670
Q

What my an elderly patient with a hearing deficit exhibit

A

suspicious of others, because pt can’t communicate well with other people.

671
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

by 3 months of age.

672
Q

what is the most helpful tool in determing a client with bulimia’s eating habits?

A

food/feeling/thought/action journal.

673
Q

If a patient pulls out a central line what is the proper procedures to take

A
  • left side trendelenburg position increases likelihood that air will pass into the right atrium then dispirsed by the pulmonary artery
674
Q

Common symptoms of empysema

A

barrel chest

675
Q

For a toddler, why should you allow them to play with equipment before your assessment

A

allows child to become familiar, decreases fear. Uses the senses

676
Q

Practice Partnerships

A

partners work together on same schedule with same group of clients

677
Q

Insulite (Intermediate Acting)

NPH, Humulin N, Novolin N

A
  • *Indication** hyperglycemia with diabetes type 1 and type 2, ketoacidosis
  • *Action** stimulates uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells, inhibits production of glucose in the livere, prevents breakdown of fat and protien

IV onset 10-30min, Peak 15-30min

  • subQ 30-60 min, peak 2-4 hours*
  • *Class** lpancreatics, antidiabetics
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor body weight over time, may cause decreased inorganic phsophates, potassium and mag. Monitor B/S Q6, monitor A1C every 3-6 months
678
Q
A
  • Ventricular Tachycardia
  • HR 160
  • Regular Rate
679
Q

What is the septum

A

a wall between the ventricles, there should be no opening

680
Q

Post Op Tracheostomy position

A

Elevate HOB and turn to one side until consciousness returns

681
Q

what does atropine do to secretions

A

reduces them

682
Q

What intervention is MOST important after the first 18 hours of amputation

A

elevate residual limb on a pillow, then prone

683
Q

Albuterol and Beclomethasone for asthma

A
  • Albuterol is used to treat asthma attacks. As needed
  • Beclomethasone is an ant-inflammatory to prevent attacks. Qday.
684
Q

Nal-

A

narcotic agonist/antagonist

685
Q

People at high risk for reaction to contrast

A
  • history of asthma
  • positive pregnancy test
  • high BUN
  • Past reactions
  • Heart, kidney, thyroid disease
  • Beta blocker
  • Metformin
686
Q

What is the 3rd stage of labor

A

placental separation and expulsions. Lasts 5-30 minutes

687
Q

myxedema coma is hot or cold

A

COLD

688
Q

What type of syringe is epinephrine given in?

A

tb syringe

689
Q

Why can’t a CNA shave a client after surgery

A

they probably have taken anticoagulants only an electric shaver can be used.

690
Q

Pediculosis capitis, signs

A

whitish oval specks sticking to the hair shaft. (Head lice)

691
Q

Gentamicin

A

Indication Tx of gram negative infection when penicillin is ineffective

Action sinhibits bacterial protein sysnthesis

Class aminoglycoside, anti=infective

Nursing causes tinnitus hearing loss, do not administer with penicillin. Caution in renal impairment. Assess for infection. Obtain cultures prior to therapy. Monitor liver function tests. Monitor blood levels of drug

692
Q

Why should patient drink water prior to transabdominal pelvic ultrasound?

A

provides a less obstructed view by pushing the uterus away from the pubic symphysis, and pushing the intestine out of the pelvis

693
Q

Where is the mitral area

A

5th ICS, midclavicular line. Apex of the Heart. Asucultate S1

694
Q

What should you NOT include in the chart in general

A

incident reports, abbreviations

695
Q

drug of choice for acute asthma

A

theophylline

696
Q

Why do you worry if a heart failure patient is coughing pink tinged sputum

A

indicates fluid in the lungs. Could be life threatening. Need to administer cardiac lgycosides, diureteics, and record I/Os with oxygen therapy

697
Q

How do you calculate MAP

A

(diastolic BP x2 + systolic BP)/3

should be between 70-90

698
Q

What is the cause of early decelerations

A

head compression

699
Q

How should RN treat newly admitted client

A
  • the priority
  • needs to assess
700
Q

Malabsorption syndrome and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome are associated with which disorder

A

Chronic Alcoholism

malabsorb fat, nitrogen, sodium, water, thiamine, folic acid and vitamin b12. Wernicke’s is caused by a lack of thiamine.

701
Q

what type of precaution requires that you stand 3 ft away?

A

droplet. Influenza

702
Q

Peak of regular insulin

A

2-4 hours

onset 30-60 minutes

703
Q

First Stage of labor Latent Phase

A

lasts 8 hours for primipara, 4-5 hours for multipara

704
Q

Normal Newborn Respiration

A

30-60

705
Q

Albuterol

A

Indication bronchodilator prevent airway obstruction in asthma and COPD
Action binds to Beta 2 adrenergic receptors in the airway leading to relaxation of smooth muscles in the airways
Class bronchodilator/adrenergic
Nursing Considerations may decrease effectiveness of beta blockers, caution w heart disase, diabetes, galucoma, seizure disorder, bronchospasms, chest pain, palpitations, decrease digoxin levels

706
Q

what symptom would lead you to believe the parathyroid gland has been damaged

A

numbness in the fingers, parasthesia

707
Q

Where is jaundice seen best on asian americans

A

the hard palate

708
Q

Steroid Side Effects

6S’s

A
  1. Sugar
  2. Soggy Bones
  3. Sick
  4. Sad
  5. Salt
  6. Sex
709
Q

what is the patho behind a patient who is pale

A

shunting of blood from skin and mucous membranes to the heart and brain (vital organs)

710
Q

Antidote for tylenol

A

acetycysteine

711
Q

At what age is a child able to jump with both feet and stand on one foot

A

3 years old

712
Q

Diagonal communication

A

staff from different levels work together on a project

713
Q

Postpartum assessment, BUBBLEHE

A
  • Breasts
  • Uterus
  • Bowels
  • Bladder
  • Lochia
  • Episiotomy/C-section incision
  • Homans
  • Emotional Status
714
Q

Quetiapine

A
  • *Indication** schizophrenia, depressive disorder, mania
  • *Action** dopamine and serotonin antagonist
  • *Class** antipsychotic, mood stabilizer
  • *Nursing Considerations** neuroleptic malignant seziures, dizziness, palpitations, weight gain, anorexia, dont use with CNS depressants. Weight frequently, Monitor liver function test and CBC, may increase cholesterol
715
Q

Where is the Right Middle Lobe located?

A

right anterior chest between fourth and 6th ntercostal space

716
Q

What vegetarian foods are rich in

A

cereals and dried froot

717
Q

-pril

A

ACE inhibitor

718
Q

clinical manifestation of neuroblastoma

A

abdominal mass and weakness, fever, weight loss.

719
Q

How soon should activated charcoal be administered after toxin has been ingested?

A

within 1 hour

720
Q

What findings might you expect with an intestinal obstruction?

A
  • nausea/vomiting
  • No stool, at all
  • ab distention
721
Q

What drugs can lead to bleeding

A
  • NSAIDS
  • Anticoagulatns
  • Thrombolytics
  • Aspirin
722
Q

S3 sounds in CHF vs MI

A

normal in CHF, not normal in MI

723
Q

How is varicella spread

A

airborne, remove client immediately

724
Q

What is the wound care for an open fracture

A

cover it with anything sterile or clean

725
Q

What is Dupuytren contracture?

A

a slow progressive contracture of palmar fascia cusing flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers. Inherited autosomal dominant trait. Often in men 50 years of age of scandinavian or celtic descent. Associated with diabets, gout, arthritis, alcoholism, age.

726
Q

What can aspirin do to children

A

cause reye’s syndrome (encephalopathy

727
Q

diet for a patient with ulcerative collitits.

A

Has inflammation. High calorie, high protein, low residue diet. Cooked carrots, baked fish, white flour, applesauce.

728
Q

How many words does a toddler of 2 years have?

A

300 word vocab

729
Q

what do you need to remember to look for with ICP

A

widening pulse pressure. High systolic, low diastolic. think concussion and other things.

730
Q

What is raynaud’s phenonemon

A

cold temperatures or strong emotions cause blood vessel spasms. Block blood flow to fingers, toes, ears and nose

731
Q

Why is a client with pancreatitis critical and a priority?

A

symptoms of acute gastritis, vomiting blood etc.

732
Q

What is a serious condition to be noted with an injury from T1-T6?

A

decreased respiratory reserve. Observe respiratory function first.

733
Q

Calcium Carbonate

A

Indication severe pain, labor pain, sedation

Action alters perception and response to pain by biding to opiate receptors in the CNS

Class opioid analgesic, agonists

Nursing caution with MAOIs, may cause confusion, hallucination, sedation, Monitor CNS depression, assess BP, pulse and respirations, aminister slowly through IV line

734
Q

what does a hip protector do for patients with osteoporosis

A

prevent hip fractures, if patient happens to fall.

735
Q

where do you palpate pulse during CPR on an adult

A

medial edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle in the neck (carotid)

736
Q

when should baby apnea be report to HCP

A

after 15 seconds

737
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

Indication second line tx for schizo, N/V, pre-op sedation, acute intermittent prphyria, headache, bipolar

Action anticholinergic activity, alters effects of dopamine in CNS

Class phenothiazine, antisychotic, antiemetic

Nursing neuroliptic malignant syndrome, sedation, tardive dyskinesia, hyoptension, agranulocytosis, asses mental status prior to tx, monitor BP, monitor CBC and liver function, do not skip dose

738
Q

Gross Motor Skills

Birth - 1 year

A
  • belly crawling by 8-9 months
  • independent walking 12-15 months
739
Q

how many mililiters per ounce

A

30mL

740
Q

Procedure for patient who is lethargic and slow to respond

A
  1. Attempt to elicit a response by physically shaking
  2. quick neurological assessment
  3. call rapid response team
  4. remain with pt, send another staff member to get list of medications and chart
741
Q

Pregnant women has nausea, what should you suggest to relieve this?

A

eat dry carbohydrates 30 min before getting out of bed. Remain in bed until the feeling of nausea subsides. Fluids, milk tea

742
Q

Droplet Precaution requirements

A

Mask, goggles

743
Q

During a health history of a patient receiving surgical treatment for obesity. What sould be reported to the surgeon?

A

history of body dysmorphic disorder. Corrective surgery can exacerbate this disorder.

744
Q

What position would you use to dilate vessels (For PN administration)

A

Supine, head low turned away from insertion site.

745
Q

Montelukast is used for chronic or acute asthma?

A

Chronic. Takes several weeks to take effect.

746
Q

Toddler’s healthy eating habits

A
  • finger foods
  • need carbohydrates for enegy
747
Q

How can over training in exercise increase risk with osteoporosi

A

can decrease estrogen levels in women and may increase risk

748
Q

what can a baby do when in prone position between 1 and 3 months

A

lift the head 45 degrees

749
Q

What is a risk factor with sepsis

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation. Blood at a venipuncture site and around an iv catheter

750
Q

What interventions should be included after a myelogram?

A
  • hydration
  • lie flat for several hours
  • monitor vital and neurological signs
  • bed rest for several hours
751
Q

why is applying lip balm prohibited in the hosptial

A

due to blood born patheogen expsure

752
Q

What is a risk when the membranes rupture

A

increased risk fo cord prolaspe if head is at a minus level

753
Q

ICP vs shock

A
  • are opposites
  • ICP increased BP, decreased pulse, decrease resp
  • shock- decreased BP, increased pulse, increase resp
754
Q

Why is tumor lysis syndrome an emergency

A

potential for renal failure. Will have electrolyte imbalances.

755
Q

When do you test a child for lead poisioning

A

12 months of age

756
Q

What position relieves low back pain

A

flexed knees, relieves pressure on sciatic nerve

757
Q

Insulin Rapid Acting

novolog, humalog, apidra,, aspart, lispro, glulisine

A
  • *Indication** hyperglycemia with diabetes type 1 and type 2, ketoacidosis
  • *Action** stimulates uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells, inhibits production of glucose in the livere, prevents breakdown of fat and protien

IAspart 1-20 min , 1-3 hr

glulisine 15 min 1 hr

lispro 15 min 1-1.5 hr

  • *Class** lpancreatics, antidiabetics
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor body weight over time, may cause decreased inorganic phsophates, potassium and mag. Monitor B/S Q6, monitor A1C every 3-6 months
758
Q

What type of diet should a patient with chronic kidney disease take?

A

High protein

759
Q

What intervention or advice does the nurse implement after instilling eye drop medication?

A

apply pressure for about minute to decrease systemic absorption of the medication

760
Q

Conductive hearing loss vs Sensorineural

A
  • Conductive- otitis media, swimmer’s ear, ear wax. Can be corrected
  • Sensorineural- permanent
761
Q

what is the best form of communication for a 3 year old?

A

simple explanations. short concnrete terms

762
Q

When you think of a probable sign of pregnancy what should you think

A

“probably” positive urine test, chadwicks sign

763
Q

Critical lab values for tumor lysis syndrome

A
  • high K
  • Low Caclium
  • High Uric Acid
  • High BUN
  • acute kidney injury, seizures, cardiac dysththmias.
764
Q

What should nurse recommend with client that has chronic constipation?

A

increase intake of cereals, fresh fruits, vegetables. Bul-forming foods.

765
Q

What is upward communications?

A

staff meetings

766
Q

What drug allergy is a cross sensitivity with aspirin

A

tartazine

767
Q

What teaching should be provided for RA with inflammation and physical activity?

A

when inflammation is severe, decrease the number of repetitions of exercise

768
Q

Special care for celiacs patients’ diet

A

HIGH calorie, High protien (veggies are not enought)

769
Q

What is important to inform an MS patient when starting an exercise program?

A

exercise is beneficial, but must be HYDRATED!

770
Q

What is your main concern if your liver is sick

A

bleeding

771
Q

What is a keyword to consider with a public health nurse

A

groups rather than invidivuals

772
Q

IM pain med administration consideration

A
  • assess for response to therapy 30 minutes after admin
  • avoid with hypothermia and vasoconstriction
773
Q

How do you know if IV pump is not functioning

A

calculate how much is left, more than expected amount would be left in the container

774
Q

physiology of the first stage of labor

A

sheddying of the cervix until it is 9 cm dilated.

775
Q

What do you want from a contraction stress test

A

you want it to be negative

776
Q

what is the maintenance dose range for digoxin

A

0.125 - 0.5mg

777
Q

how shal prenatal vitamins be taken

A

with orange juice at bed time (acidic helps absorb iron

778
Q

when should you NOT cluster cares?

A

patient with ICP, sensitive to sudden or noxious stimuli

779
Q

What is withdrawing from heroin similar to?

A

flu like sympomts. runny nose, yawning, joint pain.

780
Q

What interventions of very important with Promethazine Hydrochloride?

A

absolute patency of the vein, extravasation will cause necrosis.

781
Q

Furosemide (Lasix)

A

Indication edema, hypertension

Action prevention reabsorption of sodium and chloride in kidneys, increase excretion of water, sodium, chloride, magnesium and potassium

Class diuretic, loop

Nursing caution with liver disease. Can cause hypotension, dry mouth, excessive urination, dehydration, electrolyte, metabolic alkalosis. Hypokalemia may lead to increase risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitor renal panel. Caution with antihypertensives. Causes arthritic symptoms. Do not take wih aminoglycosides due to ototoxicity.

782
Q

Why is Vitamin B 6 given for TB patients?

A

prevents side effects of peripheral neuropathy, dizziness, and ataxia

783
Q

Findings of pinworm

A

infection which includes intense perianal itching.

784
Q

HIV precautions

A

standard, just wear gloves.

785
Q

What is a priority for a client with cushing’s sydnrome

A

respirations, fluid overload CHF and sodium/water retention

786
Q

-pamil

A

vasodilator

787
Q

Phenytoin

A
  • *Indication** tonic clonic seizures, dysrthymia, neuropathic pain
  • *Action** interferes with ion transport, shortens action adn decreases automaticity
  • *Class** antidysrthmia, anticonvulsant, hydanotin
  • *Nursing Considerations** ataxia, suicidal thoughts, EPS, hypotension, tachy cardia, gingival hyperplasia, enteral feedings may decrease absorption, monitor for hypersensitivity, assess seizures, therapeutic level is 1-20 mcg/ml
788
Q

What do you do if a chest tube is accidentally pulled out?

A
  • tape down sterile vaseline gauze ( 3 sides)
  • Call the HCP
789
Q

feeding an infant with TEF

A

enlarge the hole in the nipple of the formula. Feed on a 3 hr scedule, Feed soon after awakening, to avoid infant crying

790
Q

What is the only fuel source that neurons cannot store

A

glucose. Only fuel used by brain cells

791
Q

Infectious diseases that are airborne?

A

TB, Rubeola, Varicella, measles, herpes zoster

792
Q

what client would you be concerned about giving TPN fat emulsion?

A

fractured femur b/c at risk for fat embolism

793
Q

Signs of False Labor

A
  • Irregular contractions
  • Diminish with activity
  • Contractions get weaker
  • Felt in the front of the abdomen or pelvic region
  • membranes in tact, no cervical changes
794
Q

What is the cause of essential (primary) hytpertension

A

idiopathic

795
Q

Oral PAIN med admin consideratations

A
  • contraindicated with N/V
  • assess response 1 hour after administration
  • may require additional analgesic
796
Q

Peak action of rapid acting insuling

A

60 min after administration

797
Q

Bisocodyl

A

Indication constipation, bowel regimen

Action stimulates peristalsis leads to fluid accumulation in the colon

Class laxative, stimulant laxative

Nursing hypokalemia, ab pain, use caution w/ milk, abdominal distention & bowel function, drink 1500-2000 ml/day during therapy, monitor F&E, take as ordered

798
Q

Celecoxib

A

Indication Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, acute pain

Action decrease pain and inflammation by inhibiting synthesis of prostaglandins

Class antirrheumatics/NSAID

Nursing watch cardiovascular disease, increase risk for MI, CVA, thrombosis, GI bleeding, steven johnson synddrome, dermatitis, notify provider for new onset of abdominal pain or black stool

799
Q

-Alol

A

combined alpha and beta blockers

800
Q

to assess for patency in a dialysis fistula or graft, the nurse should..

A
  • auscultate for a bruit and
  • palpate for a thrill (you feel this)
801
Q

what is the first assessment that should be made prior to vaginal delivery?

A

check for lochia flow

802
Q

Common reasons older adults get readmitted to the hospital

A
  • inadequate primary care
  • poor care coordination
  • poo skilled nursing facility
  • poor communication among providers
  • family preferences
803
Q

What solution should be used to clean around the pins in skeletal traction?

A

saline or sterile water (not alcohol or iodine which can cause corrosion)

804
Q

EKG reading with MI

A
  • ST elevation
  • T wave inversion
  • pathological Q-wave
805
Q

What are symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome

A

alternating diarrhea and constipation

806
Q

Tx for Tachycardia

A

beta blockers, antipyretics, analgesics, fluid (dehydrated),

807
Q

how often should glucose be checked with TPN

A

q 6 - 8 hours

808
Q

-conazole

A

systemic antifungal

809
Q

Hemoglobin A1c Failure Diabetic control

A

7 - 8%

810
Q

Procedures for after a newborn is delivered

A
  1. Asses infant’s airway and breating
  2. perform bulb suctioning if excessive mucus
  3. assess infants heart rate
  4. place id bands on mother and infant
  5. administer vit k
811
Q

Signs of Lithium Toxicity

A

Diarrhea, oversedation, ataxia, tinnitus, slurred speech, muscle weakness.

812
Q

What is cocaine withdrawal like?

A

severe cravings, depression, fatigue, hypersomnia

813
Q

What does obtundation mean

A

greatly reduced level of consciousness

814
Q

Left sided heart failure signs

CHOP

A
  • Cough
  • Hemoptysis
  • Orthopnea
  • Pulmonary Congestion (Crackles/Rales)
815
Q

Lamotrigine

A
  • *Indication** Seizures r/t epilepsy, bipolar
  • *Action** inibits sodium transport in neurons
  • *Class** anticonvulsant
  • *Nursing Considerations** suicidal thoughts, dizziness, behavior changes, N/V, photosensitivity, rahs, Steven Johnsons, caution with oral contraceptiv, assess mental status,
816
Q

What is amphteamine withdrawal like?

A

depression, disturbed sleep, disoriented.

817
Q

-mycin

A

antibiotic

818
Q

how often should you check a doppler reading after femoropopliteal bypass graft?

A

every HOUR

819
Q

Why is oil in a bathrub a risk factor?

A

oil makes it slippery and risk for falls

820
Q

Complications with cold stress

A

metabolic acidosis, hypoglycemia, reduced partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

821
Q

What do you do if outer cannula of trach gets expelled?

A

ventilate the chest using a manual resuscitation bag

822
Q

Prioriy procedures for patient with pneumonia and sepsis

A
  1. Oxygen administration
  2. Blood & Sputum (prior to admin of antibx)
  3. IV initiation of normal saline
  4. Administer antibiotics
  5. Fingerstick before each meal
823
Q

Symptoms of Cardiogenic shock

A

oliguria, jugular vein distention, crackles in bilateral bases, pitting sacral edema, weight gain

824
Q

What kind of drug is indomethacin and why should it not be given to a patient with PUD

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory, GI. Nausea, vomiting, discomfort NEC.

825
Q

What is placenta previa

A

placenta is abnormally implanted in the lower uterine segment. No vaginal exams, IVs to restore blood volume.

826
Q

-thiazide

A

diuretics

827
Q

What will the lab values be that are potentially life threatening in a patient with osteogenic sarcoma?

A

hypercalcemia.

828
Q

Radium Implant Care

A
  • applicator should be checked q8hrs
  • low residue diet, bowel movements can dislodge implant
  • STRICT bed rest
  • High fluid intake
  • Conserve energy
  • anti-nausea medications
829
Q

What is a common adverse effect of ethambutol?

A

optic neuritis. Reduces visual activity. This is concerning

830
Q

What ethnicity is more at risk for pancreatic cancer?

A

African Americans, males, smokers

831
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

A
  • *Indication** HYPERthyroidism
  • *Action** inhibits thyroid hormones
  • *Class** antithyroid agent
  • *Nursing Considerations** hepatoxicity, N/V, agranulocytosis, WBC and liver function tests, weight patient frequently, lekopenia, jaundice. Take with meals
832
Q

What does RACE stand for

A

Rescue clients, Activate fire alarm, Contain fire, Extinguis flames

833
Q

why does a patient with hyperthyroidism have increased irritability

A

mental confusion is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.

834
Q

What is the biological response modifier for cancer therapy

A

stimulates bodys defense mecahnism. flu-like sx are common

835
Q

risks for taking benzos for depression

A

should be used as a last resort, can cause dependencies

-pam, -lams

836
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is important to monitor in a patient with Addisons’s disease

A

hyperkalemia- dysrthythmias

837
Q

Rheumatic Fever Microbiology

A

Group A Hemolytic Streptococcus. C-Reactive Serum.

  • have you had any sore throats*
  • this contributes to Heart Failure*
838
Q

What drogs are nephrotoxic?

A
  • cyclosporine
  • Aminoglycoside Antibiotics (Gentamycin)
  • NSAIDS
  • Antiviral agnes such as Acyclovir
839
Q

what is intermittent claudication

A

pain felt in the calves when patient walks see in arterial insufficiency

840
Q

Famotidine (Pepcid)

A

Indication short term active ulcer, GERD, heartburn, indigestion, prevetion of GI bleed, over use of NSAIDS

Action blocks action of histamine located in gastric pareital cells, inhibits gastric acid secretion

Class antiulcer agent, H2 antagonist

Nursing dysrthmias, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemias, asses ab pain and occult blood, monitor CBC, instruct pt to increase fluid and fiber intake to prevent constipation

841
Q

What tool is most important to have available for acute hypoparathyroidism?

A

a tracheostomy set. due to risk of laryngospasm

842
Q

Patho behind ketoacidosis

A

body is breaking down fat instead of sugar for energy. Fats leave ketones that cause pH to decrease

843
Q

How is Legionnaire’s disease spread

A

found in warm, stagnant hot water tanks.

844
Q

early sign of intenstinal obstruction

A

hyperactive bowel sounds

845
Q

What is a classic symptom of hiatal hernia?

A

reports awakening at night with heartburn. reflux.

846
Q

What is a symptom of curling’s ulcer after a burn?

A

gashtic pH less than 5, 24 hours after severe burn

847
Q

What happens if a patient fails to rotate sites for insulin injections

A

poor absoprtion, which increases blood sugar

848
Q

What type of breathing occurs with drug overdose

A

respiratory depression

849
Q

What is an important assessment with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

A

checking weight to check volume status

850
Q

How can you determine if anorexic patient has met the goal of balanced nutrition?

A

menstrual period has returned and is regular (FSH), (LH)

851
Q

When a patient has a spinal cord injury what is the biggest risk

A

immobility. place client on pressure reducing support surface.

852
Q

Why should a toxic shock patient be assigned to the RN

A

staph infection that cause vomiting. Critical to avoid invovlement with other organ systems.

853
Q

What can cause mitral valve regurgitation

A

any disease or porblem that weakens the valve or heart tissue.

854
Q

Epoetin

A

Indication anemia

Action stimulates erythropoesis,

Class anti-anemic, hormones

Nursing contraindicated in albumin sensitivity, seizures, CHF, MI, CVA, HTN, monitor BP, assess dialysis shunts, monitor bleeding times, seizure precautions, do not shake vial

855
Q

Levetiracetam

Keppra

A
  • *Indication** seizures
  • *Action** decreases everity and incidence of seizures
  • *Class** anticonvulsant
  • *Nursing Considerations** suicidal thoughts, dizziness, weakness. Alters RBC, WBC and liver function. Somnolence. Infuse over 15 min
856
Q

what is an intervention if someone is having a seizure in a public setting

A

protect from head injury.

857
Q

Nifedipine

A
  • *Indication** HTN, angina, migranes, CHF
  • *Action** blocks calcium transport, inhibits contraction causing sytemic vasodilation
  • *Class** antianginal, antihypertensive, CA blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** no grapefruit juice, dysrthymias, elevated liver function tests, gingival hyperplasia, monitor BP and pulse
858
Q

Broca’s Area affects expressive aphasia or receptive aphasia?

A

Expressive Aphasia

859
Q

What is the most common and life threatening metabolic complication of renal failure?

A

hyperkalemia

860
Q

Metoprolol

A
  • *Indication** HTN, angina, prevention of MI, heart failure management. Migrain prophylaxis
  • *Action** blocks the stimulation of beta1, receptors in the SNS does not effect beta 2,
  • *Class** antianginal, antihypertensive, beta blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor hemodynamics, may lead to bradycardia, pulmonary edema, assess I&Os and monitor signs of CHF
861
Q

This GI issue Pain localizes to the right upper quadrant, but may radiate to the right shoulder or scapula

A

Cholecystitis

862
Q

When is the safest time to offer analgesia during labor?

A

dilation is between 4-7 cm

863
Q

-pezil

A

acetycholinesterase inhibitor

anti-alzheimer agent

864
Q

Responsibilities of LPN/VN

A
  • implementation of a plan
  • assessing abnormal/normal
  • reinforce information given by RN
  • care for stable clients with predictable condition
865
Q

When it comes to prioritization of burn patients, which area of the body is a prioirty

A

facial burns–> airway inflammation and swelling

866
Q

Positioning for pregnant woman

A

left side lying, prolasped cord (reverse trendelenburg)

867
Q

What is herpes zoster (shingles)

A

a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox), increased frequency among adults with weakened immune system. Contagious to those who have not had chickenpox or immunosuppressed

868
Q

Precautions for client with croup

A

Contact

869
Q

What does the CDC indicate for any client having SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)

A

rapid implementation of standard, contact and airborne precautions. If negative pressure room is not available, droplet precautions should be initiated until client can be moved.

870
Q

Myxedema is associated with what disorder?

A

hypothyroidism

871
Q

Does Amytryptaline contain tyramine?

A

no

872
Q

Signs of True Labor

A
  • contractions regular pace,
  • continue despite change of position
  • start in the lower back and move to the front of the abdomen
  • effacement and dilation
873
Q
A

Ventricular Fibrillation

874
Q

Isoniazide

INH

A
  • *Indication** tuberculosis
  • *Action** inhibits synthesis of mycobacterial cell wall
  • *Class** antitubercular
  • *Nursing Considerations** jaundice, peripheral neropathy, seizures, hepatitis, avoid tyramine, monitor liver function
875
Q

what does priapism mean?

A

painful erection lasting longer than 6 hous

876
Q

Clindamycin

A

Indication skin infections, respiratory tract infections, septicemia, intraabdominal infections, osteomyelitis

Action inhibits protein synthesis

Class antiinfective

Nursing arrhthmias, pseudomemrbanous colitis, diarrhea, phlebitis, watch bowel function, cultrues prior to therapy, monitor liver function, monitor cbc

877
Q

What is the most common cause of diverticular disease

A

eating a low fiber diet

878
Q

what is important to note if a client is taking diphenhydramine and codeine

A

causes drowsiness. Allow client to remain in bed 3-4 hours

879
Q

dont use statistics with clients it is non therapeutic

A
880
Q

Buck’s Traction Care

A
  • remove foam boot 3x per day to inspect skin
  • turn client to unaffected side
  • back care every 2 hours to prevent pressure sores
  • dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg. Asses function of peroneal nerve
  • elevate the foot of the client’s bed to provide counter traction
881
Q

Methylpredinosone

A
  • *Indication** inflammation, allergy, autoimune disorders, prevent organ rejection
  • *Action** isuppress inflammation and normal immune response. Increase B/S, immune suppression, metabolism of fat, protein and carbohydrates. Decrease Bone formation
  • *Class** antiasthmatics, corticosteroids
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor liver profile, avoid active untreated infections. CNS alterations. Peptic ulcers. Cushings. Weight gain, osteoporosis, Decrease wound healing. Elevate blood sugars. Increase cholesterol and lipid values.
882
Q

what factors conrtibute to insulin resistance seen in Type 2 Diabetes

A

increase in waist circumference (apple shape). Can develop atherosclerosis

883
Q

what are signs of fractured hip

A

external rotation, shortening adduction

884
Q

Acute bacterial, viral gastroenteritis infections

A

salmonella, gastroentereitis, viral hepatitis, C. difficile

885
Q

What happens when medication are administered sub lingually or rectally and metabolism

A

avoids the first pass effect.

886
Q

when dealing wth a patient with MI- MONA is the acroynm. however what should you do first

A

administer oxygen (if there is shortness of breath)

remember- 1 thing and walk away

887
Q

Respiratory Opposite Metabolic Equal

A
888
Q

What lab value is an increased risk for dig toxicity

A

hypokalemia

889
Q

what does naloxone do?

A

reverses effects of repsiratory depression due to opiod use. Must be taken immediately as directed. STAT

890
Q

What complaint is concerning regarding heart failure

A

trouble catching breath. dyspnea may become worse with exertion. pulmonary edema. Symptoms of LEFT SIDED heart failure take PRIORIT

891
Q

Gout Diet

A

low purine. Organ meats, anchovies, mushrooms, spinach, dried beans, peas.

892
Q

drawing up insulin acronym

NICOLE RICHIE RN

A

Air into NPH then Air into Regular, draum up regular then draup up NPH

893
Q

what is a bulge test?

A

confirms presence of fluid in the knee. Client’s leg should be extended

894
Q

what does a low blood sugar level in a diabete patient represent?

A

decreased food intake, too much insulin

895
Q

What should you not do prior to administration of an IM injection?

A

massage the site

896
Q

How do you replace fluid loss

A

24 hr loss + 500 mls

897
Q

What preventive care should a patient with open angle glaucoma do?

A

periodic tonometer readings (1-2 times a year.

898
Q

specific gravity

A

1.010 - 1.030. Low specific gravity indicates DI.

899
Q

when you see phenelzine sulfate what should you think?

A

Tyramine!!

900
Q

what happens in stage IV parkinson’s

A

immobile, need ROM to prevent contractures.

901
Q

what is the most important instruction for nurse to give for client receiving barium enema?

A

crucial you take slow deep breaths through your mouth. Must retain barium, slow deep breaths will ease the discomfort

902
Q

What is the algorithm for safe client handling and repositioning in bed

A
  • Use 2-3 Caregivers for a client that can partially assist & weights less tah 200 lbs
  • Use a friction reducing device
  • Move bed into flat position at comfortable height for caregivers
903
Q

what is important to have readily available when performing plasmapheresis

A

warm blankets to prevent chills and hypothermia. Similar to hemodialysis. Removes antibodies that may be causing symptoms

904
Q

P wave indicates

A

atrial depolarization

905
Q

When you see the word thrombophlebitis, what should you think

A

embolism DVT/VTE

906
Q

prazole

A

antiulcer agent

907
Q

pain the the lower extremeities not relieved by rest indicates

A

peripheral arterial disease. Leg will be cold to touch.

908
Q

Ibuprofen

A

Indication mild to moderate pain, inflammatory states

Action decreases pain and inflammation by inhibiting rostaglandins

Class antypyretic, antirheumatics, nonopioid analgesic

Nursing GI bleeding, hepatitis, Stevens Johnson Syndrome. Monitor for headache N/V, constipation. Therapy should be D/Ced after first sign of rash. Monitor renal and liver labs. Avoid alcohol

909
Q

Tricupsid Area Location

A

fifthe intercostal space lower left sternal border

910
Q

What medications should you hold before dialysis

A
  • any blood pressure meication
  • water soluble vitamin
  • antibiotics
911
Q

Why should you question if child has had a skin infection or throat infection r/t glomerulonephritis

A

ususally occurs 10 days. after an infection. Symptoms include, fever chills, hypertension, flank pain.

912
Q

what is a fatal complication of penatmidine

A

hypoglycemia.

913
Q

-pressin

A

vasoconstrictor

914
Q

What does a depresset ST segment indicate

A

myocardial infarction. Less worrisome than elevated

915
Q

isometric training

A

contraction when muscle tenses while NOT changing length. (pushing against an immoveable object)

916
Q

What kind of drug is Acetazolamide?

A

sulfonamide

917
Q

Therapeutic range for lithium

A

0.8 - 1.2 mEq/L

918
Q

Typical symptoms of a client with Hyperosmolar Nonketotic State

A
  • blood glucose above 600 mg/dL
  • profound dehydration
  • No ketones
  • alkalosis
919
Q

Clopidogrel (plavix)

A

Indication atherosclerotic events, MI, CVA, PVD, acute coronary syndrome

Action inhibits platelet aggregration

Class antiplatelet, platelet aggregation inhibitor

Nursing GI bleed, neutropenia, hypercholesterolemia, increase risk for bleeding, monitor CBS and platelet count, discontinue 5-7 days before surgery

920
Q

what do you worry about if an anorexic patient stops their menses

A

osteoporosis

921
Q

If a medication ends in these letter, what should you do?

CR, CD, LA, SR, XL, XR, XT

A

Do not crush

922
Q

Appropriate actions for the scope of practice for LPN/LVN

A

ausclate breath sounds, administer med via MDI, check oxygen saturation, dressing changes.

923
Q

How many doses of Hep B are administered?

A

total of 3 doses given.

3rd dose- 3-4 months after 2nd dose.

Second dose given 1-2 months after 1st.

924
Q

-vir, vir-

A

antiviral

925
Q

What is one thing you worry about with fractures

A

compartment syndrome

926
Q

What is the priority action prior to getting a sputum sample

A

oral hygiene without the use of mouthwash (alchol can alter the spututm . Then pt should take deep breaths and cough

927
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

muscles become swollen and hard. Pain is not relieved with pain meds. Loosen do not remove cast

928
Q

if a child has a cold can you still give immunizations?

A

yes

929
Q

What causes nausea during first trimester?

A

elevation of estrogen, progesterone and hCG

930
Q

Patient education regarding thumb sucking

A

usually subsides after 24 months of age. Most prevalent when child is hungry or tired.

931
Q

What do you need to know about ARDS?

A

fluid in the alveoli

932
Q

what is cushings ulcers

A

r/t brain injury

933
Q

how should a patient after a mastectomy of the right breast be positioned after surgery

A

semi fowler’s with right arm elevated. enhances circulation and prevents edema

934
Q

If it is an emergency how are patients handled in terms of priority

A

patients with a greater chance to live

935
Q

Which organ is most susceptible to damage during a hypertensive crisis

A

the brain due to rupture of cerebral blood vessels. Monitor neuro.

936
Q

What is the treatment time with a halo vest?

A

12 weeks

937
Q

cephalexin is given after surgery, what food should be given to icnrease intestinal flora

A

probiotics, yogurt acidophilus

938
Q

What lab values indicate protein/malnutrtion

A

cholesterol, hemoglobin, Total Lymphocyte Count

939
Q

What should you be worried about if client has a halo traction device?

A

It hurts when chewing. may indicate skull pins have slipped into temporal plate. NOTIFY HCP.

940
Q

What pain medication can induce asthma attacks

A

aspirin

941
Q

Sodium

A

135 - 145 mEq/L

942
Q

What to know about epiglottitis

A
  • Between 2-8 years of age
  • bacterial form of croup
  • caused by H.Influenzae (should receive Hib vaccine)
  • Winter
  • inspiratory stridor
  • do not attemtp to visualize posterior pharanyx (temp in tmouth etc)
    • can occulde the airway
  • cool mist to decrease swelling
943
Q

what is the patho behind a headache

A

pressure of meninge-sensitivity to light, neck stiffness. (manifestation will decrease as blood is reabsorbed and vasospasm decreases)

944
Q
  • Adol -aldol
    ex: Tramadol
A

Analgesic

945
Q

Bismuth Subsalicylate

A

Indication diarrhea, heartburn, indigestion, H.pylori ulcer

Action stimulates absoprtion of f/e’s in intestinal wall, reduction of hypermotility of stomach and binds to toxins

Class antidiarrheal, antiulcer, adsorbant

Nursing contraindicated in aspirin, hypersensitivity, increase risk for impaction with geratric and pediatric patients, monitor liver profile, bismuth may intere fere with radiologic exams

946
Q

What does the nurse challenge rule refer to?

A

assertively voice concerns at least 2 times to ensure that it has been heard. If not heard contact supervisor or the attending physician.

947
Q

What are signs of epiglottitis

A

sitting upright ot breathe better, tongue protrusion, drooling

948
Q

What is a reasonable long term goal with a patient with rheumatic carditis?

A

The client climbs one flight of stairs with normal heart rate

ADLS!!!

949
Q

most common complication following an MI

A

dysrhythmias

950
Q

where do you place the tuning forks for a rinne test?

A

behind the ear

951
Q

Clinical Findings with Basilar Skull Fracture

A
  • facial numbness
  • brusing around both eyes (Racoon eyes)
  • hearing loss
  • bursing behind the ear, battle’s sign
952
Q

What does a cisternography assess

A

ciculation of cerbrospinal fluid within the skull or subarachnoid spaces

953
Q

Steps to using a peak flow meter

A
  1. move the indicator to the bottom of the numbered scale
  2. stand up
  3. take deep breath
  4. place in mouth and close lis around it
  5. blow out hard and fast
  6. record number achieved on the indicator
  7. Repeat 2x more (3 attempts
954
Q

what to note with native american patients

A

will not arrive on time, are present oriented and do not live by a clock

955
Q

how can you tell if a client is experiencing circulatory overload

A

change in character of respirations

dyspnea, cough, edema, hemoptysis

956
Q

Levothyroxine

A
  • *Indication** thyroid hormone replacement in hypothyroidism
  • *Action** replaces thyroid hormone increasing metabolism, promotes gluconeogensis, stimulates protein synthesis, restores normal hormone balance ans uppresses thyroid cancer
  • *Class** thyroid prep, hormone
  • *Nursing Considerations** assess pulse, monior dyrthymias, chest pain, monitor TSH levels, OD is presents as hyperthyroidsm, start with low doses and increase as indicated, therapy is lifelong. Take directly after breast feeding, increases the effects of warfarin.
957
Q

what is most important to assess when using cognitivie therapy approach

A

language. used in thought speech or writing. indicator of patient’s automatic thoughts.

958
Q

priority action for a trauma client

A

neurologic assessment

959
Q

What endocrine disorder leads to dry scaly skin, muscle cramps, tingling of the lips, fingers and toes

A

Hypoparathyroidism

960
Q

Lithium

A
  • *Indication** mania
  • *Action** alters cation transport and neurotransmitter reuptake
  • *Class** mood stabilizer
  • *Nursing Considerations** do not administer with NSAIDS, monitor drug blood levels frequently. May cause seizures dyrthymias, EKG changes, fatiuge, confusion, nausea, anorexia, hypothyroidism tremors. ACE inhibitors may increase serum levels. Instruct patient to maintain adequate fluid intake. Therapeutic level 0.5-1.5 mEq/L
961
Q

What is the common cause of old age related drug absorption

A

decrease in lean body mass and increase in body fat.

962
Q

where should the nurse be positioned when assisting client with CANE

A

stand slightly behind the client on the strong side

963
Q

what are signs of catatonic schizophrenia?

A

sudden loss of animation and tendency to remain motionless in a steretyped position “waxy flexibility”

964
Q

What does a scheduled I drug mean

A

very addictive (heroin, LSD)

965
Q

what is finasteride used for

A

BPH, decreases male testosterone and libido

966
Q

Can a LPN perform a dressing change?

A

yes

967
Q

what can happen when phenylanine increase

A

brain problems occur

968
Q

What side of the body should a CANE be held?

A

the unaffected side

969
Q

Erb’s point is located where

A

3rd left iintercostal space left of the sternum.

970
Q

Why might a patient be asked to bear down during a central venous catheter insertion?

A

IV pressure must exceed astmospheric pressure to prevent air from entering the catheter and traveling to the heart and lungs

971
Q

What is the priority action to take is a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis?

A

give epinephrine. Other interventions, oxygen via nonrebreather, albuterol to decrease airway narrowing.

972
Q

Foods that should be avoided for a stool specimen

A

oranges, cauliflower, broccoli, steak, radishes, aspirin

973
Q

log roll

A
974
Q

What lab values can indicate pre-eclampsia

A

Magnesium will be low, Creatnine will be high

975
Q

Which muscle should client exercise after lumbar puncture

A

abdominal, supporrts the lumbar spine

976
Q

The registered nurse primary responsibility with regard to education

A

risk factors

977
Q
A
  • Atrial Pacemaker
  • Regular Rate
  • PRI 0.20
  • QRS 0.09-0.10
  • HR 60
978
Q

What does it mean if the chest tube is placed in the upper anterior chest?

A

removal of AIR. Because air rises

979
Q

What do variable decellerations in a fetus represent

A

prolapsed cord, reposition client, apply oxygen and notify HCP

980
Q

how should conversation be directed for patient in a long term care facility with dementia?

A

encouraged to talk about life and important things in the past b/c of memory loss

981
Q

How do you decrease pain with an acute gout attack.

A

partial weight bearing while ambulating. would relieve weight pressure and stress. may use a cane.

982
Q

Why should an RN care for a client with an excision of a malignant melanoma?

A

may require a wide escision that requires nurse to anticipate the need for analgesic meds, psch supprt, assessment, teachning and nursing judgment

983
Q

What is the most accuarete oxygen delivery method

A

venture mask mixes RA with 100% oxgyen max of 55%

984
Q

Smallpox causative agent

A

variola virus

985
Q

Characteristic vital signs of Heart Failure

A

tachycardia and increased respirations (do not look at BP)

986
Q

What is the biggest concern with first time dosing effect

A

orthostatic hypotension

987
Q

characteristics of hypokalemia

A

muscle weakness, parasthesias, fatigue, N/V, dysrhythmias.

988
Q

Naegeles Rule for confirmng pregnancy date

A

first day of last period + 7 days - 3 months + 1 year

Example: June 10th is first day of last period = March 17 due date

989
Q

For a pre op patient what comes first, remain in bed or administer medicatin?

A

remain in bed, then admin med.

990
Q

In relation to the heart what direction do veins go?

A

towards the heart, they have valves.

991
Q

A client with diabetic neuropathy reports a burning, electrical-type pain in the lower extremities that is worse at night and not responding to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Which medication will you advocate for first?

A

Gabapentin

992
Q

Hemoglobin

A

12-15

993
Q

When doing an abdominal assessment, what quardant do you start in?

A

Right Lower Quadrant

994
Q

Naproxen

A
  • *Indication** pain dimennorhea, fever, inflammation
  • *Action** inhibits prostaglandins
  • *Class** NSAID, antipyretic
  • *Nursing Considerations** GI bleeding, increase risk for stroke and MI, Steven Johnson Syndrome, should remain upright 30 min after administration
995
Q

Acronym OLD Cart for Pain scale

A
  • Onset
  • Location
  • Duration
  • Characteristics
  • Attributes
  • Related findings
  • therapy and timing
996
Q

What should you do for a school nurse that finds a patient with a contagious illness

A

call parents to send the child home

997
Q

Why do you give lactated ringers for a women in labor receiving an epidural?

A

replaces electrolytes lost in the labor process and adds volume to expand the vascular bed to reduce hypotension

998
Q

what type of defense mechanisms does a pt with conversion reaction use?

A

repression. Instinctive drives and their accompanying anxiety are rpressed and converted into physal symptoms

999
Q

what is the most dangerous type of transfusion reaction

A

hemolytic. Nausea, vomiting, pain in lower back, hematuria.

1000
Q

what can patient do after surgical colostomy is established

A

can resume ALL activities as normal

1001
Q

what type of insulin is given for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis

A

short acting

1002
Q

What is important to watch for if pt is taking phenlzine sulfate?

A

tyramine rich foods

1003
Q

Explain Use of a Partial/Non Rebreather Mask

A
  • short term thereapy
  • 60-90%, 10-15L/min
1004
Q

Charge nurse has received a call from ambulance of a multiple car accident with multiple casualties. What action should nurse take first

A
  • notify supervisor and request additional staff
  • prep the trauma room
1005
Q

Levofloxacin

A
  • *Indication** UTI, gonorrhea, respiratory infection, bronchitis, pneumonia, skin and bone infection
  • *Action** inhibits DNA synthesis in bacteria. Antiinfective
  • *Class** fluoroquinolone
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated in allergies. May cause QT prolongation, avoid use with other drugs that can cause QT prolongation. Seizures, dyrthymias, pseudomembranous colitis, anaphylaxis, Steven Johnson. Decreased of phenytoin. Monitor renal panel. Asses for infection, obtain cultures prior to therapy, monitor liver function tests.
1006
Q

What does it mean if the chest tube in in the lower chest?

A

fluid drainage.

1007
Q

What does a boggy uterus deviated to the right indicate?

A

full bladder and needs to void

1008
Q
A
1009
Q

If a toddler does not want to take medication, what is the correct method or intervention to take?

A

leave the room and return five minutes later and give the medicine. Nurse must comply with child’s choise to build trust. Toddlers to not have an accurate sense of time.

1010
Q

What is the glabellar reflex

A

tap the bridge of ose and baby will close both eyes

1011
Q

Barb

A

Barbituric Acid derivatives

1012
Q

When creating a teaching plan for a client, what is most important to determine

A

the client’s perception of health status

1013
Q

What should you do if one of the lumens has increased resistance

A

secure the luer lock and notify HCP (streptokinase can dissolve it). If that doesnt work that is is labeld as “clotted off”

1014
Q

Steps to take if infant has allergy to cow’s milk

A

try soy based formula, If that doeesn’t rok try predigested formulats.

1015
Q

What lab value is an increased risk for lithium toxicity

A

hyponatremia

1016
Q

Iron Antidote

A

Deferoxamine

1017
Q

Where is the Rinne Test administered using tuning forks?

A

against the mastoid bone. Normal= air conduction is longer than bone conduction.

Abnormal= the reverse

1018
Q

Salmeterol

A
  • *Indication** reversible airway obstruction, exercise induced asthma
  • *Action** bronchodilation through stimualtion of beta 2 adrenergic receptor
  • *Class** bronchodilator, adrenergic
  • *Nursing Considerations** avoid excessive use, headache, palpitations, tachycardia ab pain, paradoxical bronchospasm. decrease effectiveness of betablockers. Assess respiratory status. May increase glucose levels
1019
Q

Normal range for neonate blood sugar

A

40-90

depending on weight of newborn, may need blood sugar checks q 2 hours

1020
Q

What is the priority action of a radiation implant has become dislodged

A

use a pair of forcepts to place the radiation source in a lead container.

1021
Q

Therapeutic interventions for knee replacement

A

continuous passive motion machine

1022
Q

what is most important to assess when giving a patient dopamine

A

their weight in kg. That is how it is administered, via pump titrated.

1023
Q

What is essential when starting a infusion of dopamine

A

patency of iv line. Extravasation can slough the surrounding skin and tissue

1024
Q

a “Reassigned RN” is considered on the same level as..

A

an LPN/LVN. assign stable client with an expected outcome

1025
Q

What is a priority for a patient with diabetes to call the health care provider for?

A

if they have an open reddened wound on the heel. Can lead to gangrene or limb loss. Death caused by sepsis.

1026
Q

what medication should client avoid if having urinary incontinence

A

antihistamines due to anticholinergic action. Can cause urinary retention

1027
Q

what is buspirone used for?

A

episodie or acute anxiety, minimial abuse potential and not as many SEs with alcohol use.

1028
Q

hydropmorphone/Dilaudid

A

Indication moderate to severe pain

Action alters perception and reaction to pain by binding to opiate receptors in the CNS. Suppresses the cough reflex.

Class opioid analgesic, allergy cold and cough remedy, antitussive

Nursing assess BP, respirations and pulse before and druing admin. CNS depression. Narcan is the antidote for OD. Caution with MAOIs. May be used as an antitussive. Dilue with NS prior to administration and to administer slowly to decrease CNS depression

1029
Q

Creatnine

A

0.6 - 1.3 mg/dL

1030
Q

-aril

A

Antiviral

1031
Q

What does coconut oil contain

A

caprylic acid, no scientfici evidence says it is safe and effective for cognitivie decline

1032
Q

What does veracity mean

A

telling the truth

1033
Q

What is the most common cause of SIADH

A

Lung Cancer. Confusion, weight gain, urin output 15ml/hr

1034
Q

a disease that causes inflammation and sores (ulcers) in the lining of the rectum and colon (large intestine)

A

Ulcerative colitis

1035
Q

what promotes acidic urine to reduce riks of UTI

A
  • cranberry juice
  • tomato juice
  • bouillon
  • prune juice

citrus promotes alkaline urine, avoid excessive milk and carbonated beverages.

1036
Q

What 4 things does the nurse practice act define?

A

scope of practice, nursing titles, qualification for licensure, actions taken if nurse does not follow the law.

1037
Q

Does an RN have a legal duty to provide Good Samaritan care at a traffic accident?

A

No, not legally required

1038
Q

Heparin Antidote

A

Protamine Sulfate

1039
Q

Examples of urniraty tract infections

A

cystitis, pyelonephritis

1040
Q

Atenolol

A
  • *Indication** hypertension, angina, prevention of MI
  • *Action** blocks the stimulation of beta 1 receptors in the SNS w/ minimal effect on beta 2
  • *Class** antianginal, antihypertensive, beta blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** monitor hemodynamic parameters, bradycardia, CHF, pulmonary edema, Masks symptoms associated with diabete mellitus, advise to change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension, instruct pt on how to take BP
1041
Q

Turner’s sign

A

flank grayish blue (turn around to see your flanks) pancreatitis

1042
Q

When should a women in labor go to the hosptial

A

when contractions are 5 minutes apart or when membranes rupture

1043
Q

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

A

Indication major depressive disorder, anxiety, PTSD, social phobia

Action selectively inhibits reuptake serotonin

Class antidepressant, SSRI

Nursing contraindicated wtih MAOI, citallrpan use, may cause suididal thoughts, insomnia, diarrhea, nausea, serotonin syndrome, QT prolongation, sexual dysfunction, 406 weeks for full affect to take place

1044
Q

what technique is bet when caring for a TPN patient

A

sterile technique because prone to infection.

1045
Q

-Zoin

A

Alpha adrenergic blocker

1046
Q

-pidem

A

hynotic/sedative

1047
Q

Omeprazole

A
  • *Indication** GERD, ulcers, Zollinger syndrome, reduce risk of GI bleed in ill patients, heart burn
  • *Action** prevents the transport of H ions into gastric lumen by binding to gastric parietal cells.
  • *Class** antiulcer agent, ppi
  • *Nursing Considerations** capsules should be swallowed whole, report black tarry stools
1048
Q

Left Sided Heart Failure

A
  • Dyspnea
  • S3
  • Dry non productive cough
1049
Q

Risk factors for prostate cancer?

A

age, race, employment

1050
Q

Probable changes in pregnancy

A
  • Chadwicks Sign- vaginal vascularity- blue cervix
  • Hepgar’s Sign- uterine vascularity
  • Goodell’s sign- cervical softening from estrogen and progesterone
1051
Q

Priority action for client with hypovolemia

A
  1. increase IV rate
  2. elevate lower extremities
  3. assess surgical dressing for bleeding
  4. reassess vital signs
1052
Q

Why is protonix given prophylactically

A

to prevent stress ulcers

1053
Q

What form of medication is best for a client on suicide precautions

A

liquid

1054
Q

What can excessive diarrhea do to ABGs?

What about excessive vomiting?

A

d: lead to metabolic acidosis.
v: metabolic alkalosis

1055
Q

Why should you not use the skin fold technique for elder patient to asess hydration

A

elasticity of skin in this area is affected by aging, gives an inaccurate assessment

1056
Q

Addison’s disease and symptoms of hyponatremia

A

muscle cramps, fatigue, hypotension

1057
Q

Preparation for stangulated intestinal obstruction

A
  • NG tube for decompression
  • Ab radiography
  • IV fluids
  • IV borad spectrum antibx
  • NO pain meds, could mask sx
1058
Q

-azosin

A

alpha blockers

1059
Q

It is most important for the nurse to observe which condition when a patient had Addison’s disease

A

dysrthymias. Increased retention of potassium

1060
Q

What is the first intervention to decrease phantom pain?

A

diversional activity

1061
Q

What is Miconazole cream used for?

A

vulvovaginal candidiasis, use cream every day even while menstruating

1062
Q

Fetal station means

A

the relationship between the presenting part of the baby with the mother’s pelvis

1063
Q

How is an acute glomerulonephritis patient treated?

A

treated with antiinfective, diuretics, antihyptertensives. Short term medication management.

1064
Q

if you see an answer choice that says “reassess in 15 minutes” what should you think

A

wrong answer

1065
Q

Cephalexin (Keflex)

A

Indication skin infections, pneumonia, UTI, otitis media

Action bactericidal

Class antiinfective, cephalosporin 1st generation

Nursing contraindication with penacillin allergy, seizures, pseudomembranous colitis, diarrhea, phlebitis at iv site, anaphalaxis, obtain cultures prior to therapy, monitor bowel function, may lead to super infection, may cause elevated liver enzymes

1066
Q

What is the best technique for improving patient outcomes

A

involve the client in making healthcare decisions. More motivated to adhere to recommendations when involved in the process

1067
Q

Midazolam

A
  • *Indication** Sedation, conscious sedation, anesthesia, status epilepticus
  • *Action** CNS depressant, mediated by GABA
  • *Class** Benzo, antianziety, sedative
  • *Nursing Considerations** assess level of sedation 2-6 hours following. Monitor BP, Pulse, Respirs, IV administratiaon, Antidote is Flumazenil
1068
Q

GI infections

A

staph food poisoning, botulism

1069
Q

Procainamide

A
  • *Indication** ventricular and atrial dysthrythmias, PAC, PVC, Vtach, post cardioversion
  • *Action** decreases excitibility and slows conduction velocity
  • *Class** antidysrthmia
  • *Nursing Considerations** ventricular dyrhythmias, seizures, aysystole, heart block. widening of QRS complex. hypotensions must be supine. can cause drug induced lupus syndrome
1070
Q

What does the mitral valve control?

A

flow between the left atrium and left ventricle (Atrioventricular Valve)

1071
Q

what is a risk factor with basal cell carcinoma

A

sun exposure

1072
Q

What foods contain tyramine?

A

cheese, beer, red wine, yogurt, liver, onions, fish

1073
Q

Why is a sedative/antianxiety contraindicated if client is exhibiting signs of alcohol withdrawal

A

med will lower client’s seizure threshold and BP, serious medical consequences.

1074
Q

What are early findings of shock?

A

Increase RR, Inc HR, Oxygen is the most critical intervention

1075
Q

What drug should be given before a cardioversion procedure

A

benzo- sedative

1076
Q

which vaccines come later in life

A

mmr and varicella (15 months)

1077
Q

Diet for crohn’s disease

A

increased protien increase calorie. Low fat, Low Residue (fiber)

1078
Q

Amiodipine

A

Indication HTN, Angina
Action blocks transport of calcium into muscle cells inhibiting excitation and contraction
Class antiHTN, CA channel blocker
Nursing Considerations gingival hyperplasia, grapefruit juice may increase drug level, BP and pulse prior to therapy, monitor I/Os, assess signs of CHF, teach patient how to take BP

1079
Q

Why are statins administered in the evening

A

because cholesterol synthesis increases at night

1080
Q

what is 90-90 traction used for?

A

femur or tibia fracture. Hip and kneww is flexed 90 degrees.

1081
Q

TB treatment

A

medication is taken daily with monthly visits to the clinic

1082
Q
A

Contracture- the result of a stiffness or constriction in your muscles, joints, tendons, ligaments, or skin that restricts normal movement.

1083
Q

What is barbituate withdrawal like?

A

N/V Tachycardia, course tremors, seizures

1084
Q

What does mottling of the skin, acrocyanois and irregular respirations represent

A

cod stress.

1085
Q

positioning for appendectomy

A

elevate HOB 30-45 degress. Reduce stress on suture line.

1086
Q

what is cushing triad

A

r/t icp (htn, brady cardia, irr respers)

1087
Q

Drawing up insulin

A
  • Clear (regular) before Cloudy (NPH)
  • put air in NPH first
1088
Q

What are the 5 steps for reading and ekg

A
  1. Are there any P waves?
  2. Are there any QRS?
  3. Measure PR Interval
  4. Rate
  5. Rhythmn
1089
Q

which type of client is most at risk to develop uritary tract calculi

A

vegetarian. High calcium foods (soy, tofu, etc) increase risk.

1090
Q

What indicates hepatic dysfunction in patient with TB

A

fatigue and dark urine

1091
Q

Ampicillin

A
  • *Indication** skin infections, soft tissue infections, otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory infection, GU infections, meningitis, septicemia
  • *Action** bactericidal, broader spectrum than penicillins, binds to cell wall leading to bacterial cell death
  • *Class** antiinfective
  • *Nursing Considerations** super infection fury overgrowth on tongue, vaginal itching, loose and foul smelling stool, pt should not use with oral contracetive, liver function, can cause seizures, diarrhea, anaphylaxes super infection
1092
Q

When is it NOT the time to have client Turn Cough and Deep Breathe

A

immediately after srugery

1093
Q

For a patient with emphysema what does an oxygen flow that is too high, what is the respiratory rate

A

DECREASED

1094
Q

what non pharm mgmt helps phantom pain

A

activity helps reduce frequency and degree

1095
Q

emergency dressing for a patient with an open pneumothorax

A

cover the wound loosely to allow air to escape but not renter the pleural space.

1096
Q

Ztrack vs SubQ administration

A

Ztrack is 90degrees, SubQ is 45-90.

1097
Q

most common cause of mitral valve problems

A

history of rheumatic fever or carditis

1098
Q

What patient is good to put next to a depressed patient

A

another depressed paitent or someone who’s condition is more stable. Matching roommates ages as closely as possible

1099
Q

What is an early manifestation of spinal cord compression related to a tumor

A

back pain 95% of patients.

1100
Q

Total Client Care Case Method

A
  • RN is responsible for ALL aspects of care
  • May be seen in Critical care or PACU
1101
Q

what does percodan have with it?

A

oxycodon with aspirin

1102
Q

Why should doxycycline not be taking before bed?

A

can cause esophageal irritation. Nurse should find out time pt goees to bed.

1103
Q

Pathophysiology of Pernicious Anemia

A

parietal cells of stomach fail to excrete intrinsic factor which is necessary for absorption of vitamin B12

sx: sore tongue(beefy red), anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain

1104
Q

What is the policy for using restraints

A

nurse should assess continue use every 4 hours. Order needs to be rewritten every 24 hours

1105
Q

For a patient receiving the chemotherapeutic drug vincristine (Oncovin), which side effects should be reported to the physician?

A

parasthesia

n/v, fatigue, anroxia are common side effects for ALL chemo drugs

1106
Q

What should you think with a women who is tachycardic and postpartum

A

hemorrhage

1107
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Indication prevent rejection in transplantation, treatment of RA, MGMT of ulcerative colitits

Action inhibits normal immune response,

Class apolypeptides,immunosuppresants, antirheumatics (DMARD)

Nursing cseizures, tremors HTN, hepatoxicity, diarrhea, N/V, gingival hyperplasia, increase immune suppression, avoid grapefruit juice, renal panel, liver enzymes, lifelong therapy required for transplant patients, teach how to take bp

1108
Q

Common symptoms of ulcerative colitis

A

recurrent bloddy diarrhea

1109
Q

Findings with a child with pyloric stenosis

A

fussy, seems hungry all the time. BEcomes lethargic, dehydrated and malnourished.

1110
Q

Where do you support a fracture

A

above and below the site

1111
Q

What defense mechanism is attributing to other one’s feelings, impulses, thoughts or wishes?

A

projection (blaming/scapegoating)

1112
Q

what factor can increase risk of vasooclusive sickle cell crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease

A

cold temp, infection, fluid volume deficity, high altitudes, stress

1113
Q

What does CO2 do to vessels

A

vasoconstriction

1114
Q

What is a priority for a patient after orchiectomy?

A

removll of testis for prostate cancer. PAIN MGMT

1115
Q

Guthrie Bacterial Inhibition test (PKU)

A
  • Can be done after 6 weeks of age
  • Mandatory in the U.S.
  • identifies an inherited disease
  • Best results occur after baby has been breast feeding or drinking formula for 2 full days
  • Test is delays if baby is less than 5 lbs
  • positive test require dietary control for prevention of brain damage
1116
Q

Insulin before surgery

A

hold morning dose of NP and Short Acting. Can cause them to become hypoglycemic during surgery

1117
Q

Atropine

A
  • *Indication** decreases oral and respiratory secretions, treats sinus bradycardia and heart block, treatment of brochospasm
  • *Action** anticholinergic inhibits the effects of PNS, acetycholine. Increases HR, bronchodilation decreased GI and respiratory secretions
  • *Class** antiarrthmic, anticholinergic, antimuscarinic
  • *Nursing Considerations** avoid acute hemorrhage, tachycardia, and angle closure glaucoma, monitor tachycardia and palpitations, may cause urinary retention, constipation
1118
Q

5Ps Factors affecting Pregnancy

A
  • Passageway bony pelvis, soft tissues
  • Passenger (fetus)
  • Power (uterine contractions, bearing down)
  • Position of laboring woman
  • Psyche of birth
1119
Q

What is the casative agent for the plague

A

yersinia pestis. Deteriorating pneumonia, fever, chest pain, bloody or watery sputum.

1120
Q

What is Total Lymphocyte count used for?

A

to assess immune function and is below 1500 when pt is malnourished (protein)

1121
Q

As the charge nurse evaluating a new nurse, what is the first priority for evaluating work?

A

good performance is always reinforced first

1122
Q

First Stage of Labor Transitional Phase lasts for

A

10-15 minutes

1123
Q

What intervention is crucial for pt with NG tube

A

frewuent oral care (ice chips/mints could be contradindicated)

1124
Q

Early vs Late signs of opiate withdrawal

A
  • Early: diaphoresis
  • Late: ab cramps, nausea, fever
1125
Q

Alprazolam

A
  • *Indication** anxiety, panic disorder, PMS, insomnia, mania, psychosis
  • *Action** CNS anxiolytic effect, CNS depression
  • *Class** anti anxiety agent, benzo
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution w/ sleep apnea, renal dysfunction, hepatic dysfunction, drowsiness, lethargy, physical dependence, tolerance effect, flumazenil is the antidote, grapefruit juice may increase blood levels
1126
Q

P-I-S-O

Regarding Cells

A

Potassium Inside

Sodium Outside (the cell)

1127
Q

What happens after a T-Tube removal?

A

expect that a stab wound will continue to drain until the wound seals. Nurse should continue to change the dressing and ensure it is clean and dry

1128
Q

what is indicative of PCP intoxication

A

aggressive behaviors, blank stare, rigis muscles, nystagmus. unpredictable outbursts.

1129
Q
A
1130
Q

trochanter roll

A
1131
Q

what should be done to prepare for an EEG test to monitor seizure activity

A

needs to be sleep deprives in order for one part of the test to be most effectively carried out

1132
Q

What should you do if a patient is presenting with symptoms of air embolism?

A

turn to the left side and lower the head of bed. allows air to enter the right atrium and pulmonary artery. Remain in position for 20-30 min

1133
Q

what is the purpose of iodine after a subtotal thyroidectomy

A

reduces vascularity and size of the thyroid. Will reduce post op hemorrhage.

1134
Q

what do you need to ensure before administration of spinal anastesia

A

fluids beforehand to prevent hypotension after

1135
Q

Which type of insulin has the longest duration of action

A

glargine

1136
Q

Enalapril

A

Indication hypertension, MGMT of CHF

Action iblock conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, increases renin levels and decrease aldosterone, vasodilation

Class ACE inhibitor, antihypertensive

Nursing neutropenia, caution with potassium, watch diuretic therapy, admin 1 hour before meals, monitor BP, monitor weight and fluid status, monitor renal profile, monitor CBC

1137
Q

What is the best way to schedule medication for a client with constant pain?

A

around the clock

1138
Q

what part of the hand do you palpate the uterus with during labor

A

fingertips

1139
Q

Why does a patient with herpes zoster need a private room?

A

airborne, and contact.

1140
Q

Nalpuphine

A
  • *Indication** pain, analgesia during labor, sedation before surgery, supplement of balance anesthesia
  • *Action** alters perception and response to pain, causes CNS depression
  • *Class** opioid analgesic
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with head trauma, dizziness, headache, N/V, respiraotry depression. Do not use with MAOIs, assess pain, hemodynamics, can elevate pancreatic enzymes. NARCAN antidote
1141
Q

how often does a continuous tube feeding need to be changed?

A

every 4 hours

1142
Q

What is charcot’s join

A

degenerative condition. Joint instability, and hpermobility. Along with numbness and tingling. Tx includes casting for 12 weeks. No weight bearing acivity

1143
Q

Beta 2 means

A

2 lungs- constrict bronchi lead to increase in blood glucose concentration

1144
Q

Why should you question an IM order of thrombolytic therapy

A

im injection and risk of bleeding

1145
Q

How do you reduce risk of lead contamination in tap water

A

let water run for 2 minutes

1146
Q

Cimetidine

A

Indication duodenal ulcers, CERG, heartburn, Zollinger Ellison syndrome, GI bleeding in crit patients

Action iinhibits action of histamine leading to inhibition of gastric acid secretion

Class H2 antagonist, antiulcer agent

Nursing increases serum levels of warfarin, respiratory infection, watch dysryhthmias, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, monitor CBC, increase fluid and fiber intake to decrease constipation

1147
Q

Glucose

A

70-110 mg/dL

1148
Q

What is being lost with nephrotic syndrome

A

lots of protein, more edems.

This is the exception to the rule, increase protein because they are losing too much

1149
Q

How is Scope of Practice determines

A

Stat’es nurse practice act

1150
Q

Med of choice for CHF

A

ace inhibitor

1151
Q

Where is pain in appendicits

A

Right Lower quadrant

1152
Q

Loperamide (Imodium)

A
  • *Indication** Acute diarrhea, decrease drainage post ileostomy
  • *Action** inhibits peristalsis, reduces volumje of feces wwhil increasing the bulk and viscoscituy
  • *Class** antidiarrheal
  • *Nursing Considerations** can lead to constipation, asses bowel function, assess fluid and elctrolyte levels
1153
Q

What drug is given if client is having continuous tonic clonic seizures

A

diazepam. IV

1154
Q

how do you count twins in terms of gravita and para

A

gravita 2, para 1

1155
Q

what is helpful for a paitent having discomfort with peripheral arterial insufficinecy

A

apply a heating pad to your abdomen once a day. Causes reflex vasodilation of extremetieis without direct heat on extremities.

1156
Q

What does a fluid challenge consist of?

A

bolus of 250 mls or greater with normal saline and watch foley for urine output

1157
Q

what drug is used to treat tourette syndrome?

A

Haloperidol

1158
Q

Why does a client lie in prone position prior to amputation

A

stretch hip flexor muscles.

1159
Q

Russells sign is observed with this disorder

A

bulimia nervosa

will have scraped or raw areas on the knuckles.

1160
Q

Prep for client receiving ECT

A

should not eat or drink 8 hours prior. Due to general anasthesia.

1161
Q

When a client is immunosuppressed, what type of precautions do you put them on

A

neutropenic

1162
Q

What do you need to monitor when administering dopamine

A

vital signs all.

1163
Q

what is minimal change disease?

A

a kidney disorder that can lead to nephrotic syndrome. Tx corticosteroids. Child might bot be ablte to fight infection. Surgical patient is considered “clean”

1164
Q

How should you always begin your assessment?

A

with observation

1165
Q

1 tsp - how many mls

A

5ml

1166
Q

why is a cardiac monitor attached to a patient with an acute MI

A

to detect life threatening changes in the heart rhythm

1167
Q

Bright flashes of light; blurred vision; “floaters” in the eye

A

Retinal detachment

1168
Q

right sided hf signs

A

anorexia, nausea, ab discomfort, peripheral edema

1169
Q

what is methotrexate used for

A

cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, immunosuppressant, psoriasis

1170
Q

what signifies worsening of asthma

A

diminished breath sounds, indicates severe obstruction

1171
Q

the primary focus of the nclex-rn

A

assessment of minimum competency

1172
Q

If the dose of med exceeds 1 ml For infants receiving an IM injection. How should it be administered?

A

2 separate doses

1173
Q

Streptokinase

A
  • *Indication** pulmonary embolism, DVT, occluded lines, arterial thrombus
  • *Action** converts plasminogen to plasmin which degenerates fiibrin clots
  • *Class** thrombolytic, plaminogen activator
  • *Nursing Considerations** contraindicated with active bleeding, hypersensitivity, bronchospasm, ICH, hypotension,. Begin therapy as soon as possible, Monitor VS continuously. Avoid invasive procedures
1174
Q

How long before anginal client can resume sexual activity

A

1 week

1175
Q

when should the nurse hold morphine

A

when the client appears leathargic, decreased respirations

1176
Q

Functioning Nursing

A
  • RN gives medications and UAP gives bed baths for one group of clients
  • Needs are broken down into tasks
1177
Q

when you see the word “deep injection” think

A

z-track method to prevent tissues from irritation.

1178
Q

what does a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty do

A

open blocked coronary arteries. It is performed druing cardiac catherization.

1179
Q

Ondansetron

A
  • *Indication** Nausea and vomiting
  • *Action** blocks effects of serotonin on vagal nerve and CNS
  • *Class** antiemetic, 5-HT3 antagonist
  • *Nursing Considerations** headache, constipation, diaarrhea, dry mouth. EPS symptoms, monitor liver function tests. Administer slowly over 2-5 minutes
1180
Q

Best position for a patient with Unilateral Hemiplegia

A

prone with feet dangling (counteracts foot drop).

if tolerated.

1181
Q

what do you watch for with addisonian crisis

A

stress mgmt, severe hypotension

1182
Q

what should you never do to a iv bag?

A

write with a permanent marker, can penetrate the solution. Use a label as a barrier

1183
Q

what drug should be given to a bay to minimize side effects from DPaT immunization?

A

antipyretics for discomfort, irritability and fever.

1184
Q

General Guide for serving size for children

A

one tables spoon per year of age.

1185
Q

Procedures with a patheint with bronchiolitis to RSV

A
  1. Assess for respiratory distress
  2. promote tissue ogyenation
  3. institute droplet isolation precautions
  4. administer medication
  5. promote desired fluid intake
  6. provide family teaching
1186
Q

what should be recommended to a patient before a pap smear

A

no intercourse 24 hours before the test. No douching can affect appearance fof cells.

1187
Q

what is the recovery time for heptatits?

A

Type A is not infectious, within a week may return to school

1188
Q

Pantoprazole

A
  • *Indication** GERD, heartburn
  • *Action** decreases accumulation of acid in the stomach
  • *Class** antiulcer agent, ppi
  • *Nursing Considerations** hyperglycemia, abdominal pain, decreases absroption of certain drugs, may increase bleeding with warfarin, assess for occult blood.
1189
Q

After a liver biopsy what position

A

on right side, for several hours.

1190
Q

Vancomycin

A
  • *Indication** life threatening infection
  • *Action** bacetericidal, antiinfective
  • *Class** antianginal, antihypertensive, beta blocker
  • *Nursing Considerations** ototoxicity, N/V, nephrotoxicity, anaphylaxis, red man syndrome,. Monitor BP
1191
Q

When is Intraocular pressure increased?

A

in the early morning

1192
Q

Signs of Chronic Kidney Disease

A

Ecchymoses, hyperpigmentation, pruritus

1193
Q

Hallmark Signs of tonsillitis

A

viral or bacterial. Difficulty swallowing, ear pain, fever/chills, headache, sore throat

1194
Q

Clinical indicators for suctioning

A
  • course breath sounds
  • noisy breathing
  • increased/decreased pulse
  • increased/decreased respiration
  • prolonged expeiratory breath sounds
1195
Q

What is the main finding of pericardities

A

sharp, stabbing pain in the center or left side of chest.

1196
Q

What is always a concern with mysathenia gravis

A

airway

1197
Q

Non-diabetic Hemoglobin A1c

A

4% - 5.9%

1198
Q

Diphenoxylate/Atropine

A

Indication tx of diarrhea

Action inhibits GI motility via anticholinergic effects

Class antidiarrheal, anticholinergic

Nursing contraindicated with angle closure glaucoma, dehydration, r/t opioids watch patients allergic to opioids, SE- constipation, tachycardia, dizziness, ilues, monitor liver, do not double dose

1199
Q

garlic and diabetes

A

can have a hypoglycemic effect. Can potentiate action of diabetic drugs.

1200
Q

why does a patient with addison’s disease need more sodium during time of stress

A

decrease in aldosterone, sodium intake should be increased

1201
Q

what could epigastric pain during pregnancy indicate?

A

impending convulsion

1202
Q

S1 Auscultation

A
  • closing of the mitral valve.
  • heard best at apex
  • after long diastolic pause, before short systolic pause
1203
Q

Actions to take with sudden drop in BP and pulse

A
  1. Simultanously check apical and radial pulse manually
  2. Assess for chest pain, dyspnea, low oxygen sat, restlessness
  3. nofity HCP
  4. anticipate EKG, oxygen admin, and mergency pacing
1204
Q

In application of the principles of pain treatment, what is the first consideration?

A

Client perception must be accepted. Their belief is always first priority.

1205
Q

What other treatment options are there for an Afib clinet that does not respond to antiarrhythmics or cardioversion?

A

radiofrequency catheter ablation. After ablation pt will need to take anticoagulatns

1206
Q

if the client is disoriented, how should the bed be positioned

A

elevate the side rails

1207
Q

Regarding room assignments what is a post-op paitent considered in terms of infection control

A

“clean”, should be with a patient that is clean as well.

1208
Q

Methadone

A
  • *Indication** withdrawal symptoms, pain
  • *Action** binds to opiate receptors in the CNS and alters perception of pain while producing a general depression of the CNS. Decrease in the cough reflex and GI motility
  • *Class** opioid analgesic
  • *Nursing Consideration** caution with MAOIs may cause QT prolongation, hypotension, respiratory depression, dependence, confusion, sedation. Assess pain, vital signs, bowel function. May increase pancreatic enzyme levels. Assess withdrawal symptoms
1209
Q

ratio of compressions to breaths for an adult

A

30 compressions, 2 breaths

1210
Q

What does a Miller-Abbott Tube do?

A

intenstinal decompression, used to treat paralytic ileus. Removes fluid and gas from small intestine

1211
Q

when is propanolol contraindicated?

A

uncompensated heart failure or pulmonary edema

1212
Q

Bethanechol

  • cholinergic or parasympathomimetic*
  • How are they used for neurogentic bladder*
A

mimics action of acetylcholine

1213
Q

Who should nurse manager consult with regarding bad behavior by a nurse?

A

human resources to determine procedures for documenting and reporting behavior

1214
Q

talipes equinares

A

another name for clubfoot

1215
Q

What is the appropriate dressing for a stage II pressure ulcer

A

Hydrocolloid or foam dressing (duoderm). Eliminate answer choices that have the word “dry” in them

1216
Q

Opioids antidote

A

naloxone

1217
Q

Presumptive Signs of Pregnancy

A

subjective/objective reported by women

amenorrhea, fatigue, N/V, breast changes, elevation of basal body temperature, skin changes.

findings can be caused by conditions other than pregancy

1218
Q

When does the second stage of labor occur?

A

Complete dilation through birth (30-50 minutes for primipara)

1219
Q

How are symptoms of meniere’s disease controlled

A

adhering to a low sodium diet

1220
Q

onset of NPH and when hypoglyemica reaction may occur

A

within 2-4 hours

1221
Q

Procedural order for administeral total parenteral nutrition through Central Line

A
  1. Check solution ofr cloudiness or sediment
  2. select & flush the correct tubing and filter
  3. thread the IV tubing thru an infusion pump
  4. use aseptic tech when handling injection cap
  5. connect the tubing to the central line
  6. set infusion pump at prescribed rate
1222
Q

How many wet diapers per day for infants and newborns?

A

6-8 wet diapers

1223
Q

How is metformin used for Type 2 Diabetes

A

it lowers the amount of glucose absorbed from food, lowers the amount of glucose produced by the liver and increases body’s response to insulin

1224
Q

Promethazine

A
  • *Indication** allergic reactions, N/V, sedation
  • *Action** blocks the effects of histamine, antiemetic effect. anticholinergic, CNS depression
  • *Class** antiemetic, antihistamine, sedative, phenothiazine
  • *Nursing Considerations** IV administration can cause tissue damage, hypertension impaired liver function. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, confusion, sedation
1225
Q

when you see the word watery diarrhea what should you think

A

life threatenting. Bowel perforation or obstruction

1226
Q

QRS complex indicates

A

ventricular depolarization

1227
Q

Erythromycin

A

Indication in place of peniccillin, upper and lower respiratory tract infections, otitis media, skin infections, pertussis, syphilis, rheumatic fever

Action suppress bacterial protein synthesis, bacteriostatic

Class antiinfective, macrolide

Nursing QT prolongation, ventricular arrhythmias, diarrhea, liver function

1228
Q

Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)

A

20-36 seconds

1229
Q

Who establihed the Standards of Practice

A

the nursing profession (ANA)

1230
Q

immediately before transporting a client to a surgical area, the nurse should take which action?

A

check their bands

1231
Q

What is internal radiation therapy (Brachytherapy)

A
  • Radioactive source is inside the clinet.
  • Radiation IS being emitted
  • All pt swill emit radiation are a threat to tohters.
  • Nursing assignments should be rotated daily,
1232
Q

Dopamine

A

Indication improve blood pressure, cardiac output and urine output

Action small dose result in renal vasodilation, medium cardiac stimulation by acting on beta 1 receptors, large dose stimulate alpha receptors leading to vasoconstriction increase SVR

Class inotropic, vasopresser

Nursing cmonitor BP, HR, EKG, CVP, PAOP, titrate to obtain appropriate BP, irritation may occur at IV site, beta blockers may counteract therapeutic effects

1233
Q

Which diseases is carbamazepine administered?

A

diabetic neuropathy, trigeminal neuralgia

take with meals, photosensitivity.

1234
Q

what specific gravity indicates fluid volume deficit

A

HIGH

(1.010-1.030)

1235
Q

-tricin

A

antibiotics

1236
Q

What is an early sign of diminished oxygenation

A

increasing pulse rate, compensatory mechanism.

1237
Q

Diltiazem

A

Indication HTN, angina, SVT, Afib, Aflutter

Action inhibits calcium transport resulting in inhibition of excitation and contraction, leads to vasodilation and decreased bp

Class antianginals, antiarrhythmics, antihtn, Calcium Channel Blocker

Nursing contraindicated in 2nd and 3rd av block, dysrythmias, CHF, bradycardia, peripheral edema, ginigval hyperplasia, increases dig levels, no grapefruit juice, monitor EKG, ortho hypotension, monitor potassium, teach how to take BP

1238
Q

Buproprion

A

Indication depression, smoking cessation, ADHD

Class antidepressant, smoking deterrents, aminoketones

Nursing seizures, suicidal thoughts, do not take w/ MAOI, renal/liver impairment, assess mental status, avoid alcohol

1239
Q

wheezing upon inspiration as a toddler. What should you think?

A

choking on a piece of meat, aspirating

1240
Q

What should you think when a patient states ““I went to the bathroom and my urine looked very red but it didn’t hurt when I went.””

A

painless gross hematuria. Urgent associated with bladder cancer or kidney problems.

1241
Q

Team Nursing

A
  • Most common delivery system
  • team of nursing personnel provides total care to a group of clients
1242
Q

what might suggest overdosage of thyroid medication

A

nervousness and difficulty sleeping

1243
Q

Signs and Symptoms of hantavirus pumonary syndrome

A

thrombocytopenia, hematuria, hematemesis, bleeding gums, melena

1244
Q

Fetal Presentation

A

portion of the fetus that enters the pelvic inlet first (cephalic, breech, shoulder)

1245
Q

In relation to the heart, what direction do arteries go?

A

away from the heart

1246
Q

how does a 7 year old view death

A

as a punishment

1247
Q

What should you do after a straight catheter is inserted

A

clamp the catheter after 300-500 mls because rapid decompression can result in bladder wall damage

1248
Q

Enoxaparin

A

Indication prevention of VTE, DVT, and PE

Action iprevents thrombus formation by potentiating the inhibitory effect of antithrombin on factor Xa

Class anticoagulant, antighrombotic

Nursing contraindicated in pork hypersensitivity, onitor signs of bleeding, admin in SUBQ tissues, do not eject air bubble prior to injection, do not aspirate or massage site

1249
Q

What types of food can prevent kidney stones

A

high calcium, dairy products

1250
Q

Cholesterol Total

A

140-199 mg/dL

1251
Q

Expected findings with ECT therapy

A

headache, difficulty with short terma d long term memory, confusion

1252
Q

Rifampin

A
  • *Indication** TB
  • *Action** inhibits RNA synthesis
  • *Class** antitubercular, rifamycin
  • *Nursing Considerations** can turn body fluids red. N/V, confusion. Assess lung sounds and sputum, evaluate renal and liver tests, instruct patient not to skip or double dose
1253
Q

Expected findings with inflammatory bowel disease

A

persistent diarrhea, ab pain, blood mucus in the stools

1254
Q

how does a client with placenta previa deliver?

A

C-section.

1255
Q

ACE Inhibitor consideration

A
  • *Indication** hypertension, CHF
  • *Action** block convfersion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, increases renin levels and decreases aldosterone leading to vasodilation
  • *Nursing Considerations** caution with potasssium supplements and potassium sparing diuretics. Caution with diuretic therapy, Administire 1 hour before meals, Monitor BP often. Monitor weight and fluid status. Monitor renal profile. Monitor liver function tests
1256
Q

correct action for DVT prevention

A

prevent pressure at the back of the knees

1257
Q

-azepam

A

Antianxiety

1258
Q

Hypophysectomy is…

A

he surgical removal of the hypophysis (pituitary gland). It is most commonly performed to treat tumors, especially craniopharyngioma tumors. Sometimes it is used to treat Cushing’s syndrome due to pituitary adenoma.

1259
Q

What is the proper procedure after inhaling a glucocorticoid

A

rinse the mouth every time to decrease risk fo candida infection

1260
Q

How long does infant have babinski reflex

A

12 months

1261
Q

Why is age a risk factor for cancer?

A

increased incidence in the immunosuppressed

1262
Q

What does an elevated D-dimer test indicate?

A

pulmonary embolism

DIC

1263
Q

how do you know if levothyroxine is working

A

increased urine output, increases metabolic processes, including glomerular filtration.

1264
Q

nutritional needs while lactating vs during pregnancy

A

more calories are needed. But same amount of protein and calcium.

1265
Q

What does chest pain during a treadmill stress test indicate?

A

MI, stop the test to avoid ischemia.

1266
Q

how many mL is a popsicle

A

20mL

1267
Q

each gram of a diaper is equivalent to

A

1 mL

1268
Q

1 cup of ice chips is equivalent to..

A

1/2 of cup= 4 oz. (120 mL)

1269
Q

what type of exercise for cast

A

isometric

1270
Q

what candy can decrease serum potassium levels

A

black licorice

1271
Q

what is the most important intervention for venous stasis ulcer

A

nutrtional therapy

1272
Q

what does brudinski’s sign look like with meningitis

A

severe stiff neck causes flexion of hips and knees with passive flexion of the neck.

1273
Q

food that are rich in iron

A

red meat, fish, egg yolks, legumes, whole grains, nuts, dried fruits.

1274
Q

what’s important to establish for a client that is paranoid

A

trust

1275
Q

if you see bilateral ankle edema, what should you think

A

right sided heart failure, or venous insufficiency

unilateral swelling could mean deep vein thrombosis

1276
Q

what can happen to older patients when givent cimetidine (H2 blocker)

A

can become confused.

1277
Q

what might you expect with an infant with tetraology of fallot

A
  • may be cyanotic at birth that progresses over the first year of life
  • becomes pulmonic stenosis
  • murmur is present
1278
Q

dry powder capsule

A

think of it like a cigarette. Inhale fast and deep. Hold for 10 seconds, then breath out. Rinse mouth afterwards

1279
Q

High specific gravity=

A

poor hydration

1280
Q

Pyridostigmine Nursing Considerations

A
  • for Myasthenia gravis to help with swallowing. Should be given 30-60 min before meals.
  • MG will have more muscle weakness in the evening. Regain strength with rest.
1281
Q

What nursing considerations for ceflasporin

A
  • GI upset, give with food. All other antibx on an empty stomach
  • can cause false positive for proteinuria and glucose
1282
Q

When should antacids be given

A

1-2 hours after eating

1283
Q

Parkland formula

A

4mL * Kg * BSA Burned = Total Volume Necessary

1284
Q

how do you know altepase is successful in patient with MI

A

reduction of ST segment, indicates a return in blood flow to the injured myocardium

1285
Q

What drug can cause renal failure if given with contrast media?

A

metformin

1286
Q

what is the test of choice to determine placenta previa

A

transvaginal ultrasound

1287
Q

What is a cisternography done for?

A

assess CSF circulation

1288
Q

Abnormal drainage from Peritoneal Dialysis

A
  • Brown- bowel perforation
  • Cloudy- infection
  • bloody- perforation
1289
Q

when to notify HCP about chest tubes

A
  • drainage on dressing
  • drainage volume > 100mL/hr
  • emphysema
1290
Q

what is concerning about nausea and vomiting

A
  • increase intraocular pressure and ICP
  • Increased Cardiac Workload
1291
Q

What is the shick test

A

diptheria toxin

1292
Q

How much water should patient drink prior to ultrasound of the abdominal cavity?

A
  • 32 oz, 60 minutes prior
  • cannot void until after exam
1293
Q

what is delirium tremens?

A

severe alcohol withdrawal. Impaired cognition or agitation. Confusion, disorientation, agitation, hallucinations, diaphoresis, fever, tachycardia, HTN

1294
Q

visitation and addisonian crisis

A

limit visitors can cause stress

1295
Q

Pinna is down and back for what age group?

A

3 years and younger

1296
Q

what is an appropriate method to ensure compliance to drug regimen?

A

direct observation

(ex: family member’s observing client)

1297
Q

What does SR mean?

A

sustaned release. Should be be crushed or fed thru gastonomy tube.

1298
Q

What helps a patient TCDB after surgery

A

pain medications

1299
Q

what is asthma?

A

airway becomes narrowed. Obstructing airflow in response to triggers. Not a disease but an inflammatory disorder.

1300
Q

Wernicks vs. Broca

A
  • W: receptive aphasia
  • B: expressive aphasia
1301
Q

Indicators of ICP

A

changesin respiration, more sensitive than blood pressure and pulse

1302
Q

Posterior Pituitary Gland produces

A

ADH and oxytocin

1303
Q

what endocrine disorder can be associated with kidney stones?

A

Hyperparathyroid due to hypercalcemia