nclex cram Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Heart Rate

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Respiratory Rate

A

12-20 rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blood Pressure

A

110-120/60 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Temperature

A

36-39⚬C (98.6⚬F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

RBC

A

4.5-5.0 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

WBC

A

5,000-10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Platelets

A

150,000-400,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hemoglobin

A

12-18 gm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hematocrit

A

37-54|(Remember 3 x the Hemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sodium

A

135-145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Potassium

A

3.5-5.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Calcium

A

8.5-10.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chloride

A

95-105

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Magnesium

A

1.5-2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phosporus

A

2.5-4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pH

A

7.35-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HCO3-

A

22-26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Co2+

A

35-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PaO2

A

80%-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SaO2

A

95-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acid-Base Balance

A

ROME|Respiratory Opposite |Metabolic Equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Glucose

A

70-110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Specific Gravity

A

1.010-1.030

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BUN

A

10-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Serum Creatinine

A

0.6-1.2 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

LDH

A

100-190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Protein

A

6.2-8.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Albumin

A

3.5-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bilirubin

A

<1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Total Cholesterol

A

130-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Triglycerides

A

40-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Uric Acid

A

3.5-7.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CPK

A

21-232

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A

4-10 mpg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Digoxin (Lanoxin)

A

0.8-2.0 ng/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Gentamycin

A

5-10 mcg/ml (peak)|<2.0 mag/ml (valley)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Lithium (Eskalith)

A

0.8-1.5 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Phenobarbital (Solfoton)

A

15-40 mpg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A

10-20 mcg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Theopylline (Aminophylline)

A

10-20 mpg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Tobramycin (Tobrex)

A

5—10 mcg/mL (peak), 0.5—2.0 mcg/mL (valley)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Valproic Acid (Depakene)

A

50-100 mcg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Therapeutic Drug Level: Vancomycin (Vancocin)

A

20—40 mcg/ml (peak), 5 to 15 mcg/ml (trough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sodium warfarin (Coumadin)

A

PT: 10—12 seconds (control). ||The antidote is Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

INR

A

0.9-1.2 Coumadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Heparin

A

PTT 30-45 seconds |The antidote is Protamine Sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

APTT

A

3-31.9 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fibrinogen Level

A

203-377 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

1 teaspoon (t)

A

5 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

1 tablespoon (T)

A

3 teaspoons (t)|15 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1 oz

A

30 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

1 cup

A

8 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

1 quart

A

2 pints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

1 pint

A

2 cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

1 gram

A

1000 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

1 kg

A

2.2 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

1 lb

A

16 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Convert Celsius to Fahrenheit

A

F= C * 9/5 + 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Convert Fahrenheit to Celsius

A

C = (F-32) 5/9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Fetal Heart Rate

A

120-160 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Variability

A

6-10 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Amniotic Fluid

A

500-1200 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Contractions

A

2—5 minutes apart with duration of < 90 seconds and intensity of <100 mmHg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

APGAR

A

Appearance (all pink, pink and blue, blue (pale)|Pulse (>100, <100, absent)|Grimace (cough, grimace, no response)|Activity (flexed, flaccid, limp)|Respirations (strong cry, weak cry, absent)||Done at 1 and 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

AVA

A

umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein (arteries carry deoxygenated blood and veins carry oxygenated blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

STOP-Treatment for maternal hypotension after an epidural anesthesia:

A
  • S- stop the pitocin if infusing|- T- turn the client on the left side|- O- Administer Oxygen|- P- push IV fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pregnancy Category A

A

Controlled studies in animal and women have shown no risk in the 1st trimester, and possible fetal harm is remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pregnancy Category B

A

No risk in animal studies, and well-controlled studies in pregnant women are not available. It is assumed there is little to no risk in pregnant women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pregnancy Category C

A

Risk not excluded. Adequate studies lacking. Chance of fetal harm but benefits outweigh risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pregnancy Category D

A

Positive evidence of human fetal risk BUT benefits outweigh risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Pregnancy Category X

A

Contraindicated in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Schedule I Drugs

A

These drugs have NO accepted medical use in the united states. These drugs have the highest abuse potential (heroin, LSD, MDMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Schedule II Drugs

A
  • Drugs have high potential for abuse|- Drugs have currently accepted medical uses, although there may be serious restrictions|- Abuse of drug may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence|- may not be used unless directly dispensed by a practitioner|- refills not allowed –> must write multiple prescriptions at once|- must be stored in a safe, while other schedules can be stored throughout pharmacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Schedule III Drugs

A

These drugs may be refilled 5 times in a six month period. These drugs have less potential for abuse/dependence than schedule I or schedule II drugs (codeine, testosterone, ketamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Schedule IV Drugs

A

Requires a new prescription after six months (example Darvon, xanax, valium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Schedule V Drugs

A

dispensed as any other prescription or without prescription if state law allows (example antitussives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Antacids

A

-oxide||Reduces hydrochloric acid in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Antianemic

A

epoeitin alpha (Epogen)||increases blood cell production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Anticholinergics

A

decrease oral secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Anticoagulant

A

slows coagulation and prevents new clots from forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Anticonvulsants

A

used for the management of seizure disorder and treatment of bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Antidiarrheals

A

Decrease gastric motility and reduce water in bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Antihistamines

A

Block the release of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Antihypertensives

A

Lower blood pressure and increase blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Anti-infectives

A

used for the treatment of infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Bronchodilators

A

dilates large air passages in asthma or lung diseases (e.g., COPD).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Diuretics

A

Decrease water/sodium from the Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Laxatives

A

promote the passage of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Miotics

A

Constrict the pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Mydriatics

A

dilate pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Narcotics/analgesics

A

relieves moderate to severe pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Rule of Nines

A

Head and Neck= 9%|Each upper ext= 9%|Each lower ext= 18%|Front trunk= 18%|Back trunk= 18%|Genitalia= 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Digoxin(Lanoxin)

A

Assess pulses for a full minute, if less than 60bpm hold dose. ||Check digitalis and potassium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Aluminum hydroxide

A

Treatment of GERD and kidney stones. WOF (watch out for) constipation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Hydroxyzine

A

Treatment of anxiety and itching. WOF dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Midazolam (Versed)

A

Given for conscious sedation. Watch out for (WOF) respiratory depression and hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

A

WOF diaphoresis, dyspnea, lethargy. ||Take missed dose any time in the day or to skip it entirely. ||Do not take double dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

WOF for signs of bleeding, diarrhea, fever, or rash. ||Stress importance of complying with prescribed dosage and follow-up appointments.||–> PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Treatment of ADHD. Assess for heart related side-effects and report immediately. Child may need a drug holiday because the drug stunts growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Dopamine

A

Treatment of hypotension, shock, and low cardiac output, ||Monitor ECG for arrhythmias and blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Rifampin

A

Can cause a harmless orange discoloration of body fluids (pee, sweat, tears). ||They inhibit RNA polymerase. TB can gain resistance by structural alteration of this RNA polymerase to no longer bind rifampin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Ethambutol

A

causes problems with vision, liver problem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Isoniazid

A

causes peripheral neuritis||take vitamin B6 to counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Devlopmental Milestones ||2-3 Months

A

Able to turn head up and can turn side to side ||Makes cooing or gurgling noises and can turn head to sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Devlopmental Milestones ||4-5 Months

A

Grasps, switch and roll over tummy to back. Can babble and can mimic sounds

106
Q

Devlopmental Milestones ||6-7 Months

A

Sits at 6 months and waves bye bye ||Can recognize familiar faces and knows if someone is a stranger ||Passes things back and forth between hands

107
Q

Developmental Milestones ||8-9 Months

A

Stands straight at 8 ||Has a favorite toy ||Plays peek a boo

108
Q

Devlopmental Milestones ||10-11 Months

A

Belly to butt

109
Q

Devlopmental Milestones ||12-13 Months

A

twelve and up drinks from cup ||Cries when parents leave ||Uses furniture to cruise

110
Q

African Americans

A

May believe that illness is caused by supernatural causes and seek advice and remedies form faith healers; they are family oriented; have higher incidence of high blood pressure and obesity; high incidence of lactose intolerance with difficulty digesting milk and milk products.

111
Q

Arab Americans

A

May remain silent about health problems such as STIs, substance abuse, and mental illness; a devout Muslim may interpret illness as the will of Allah, a test of faith; may rely on ritual cures or alternative therapies before seeking help from health care provider; after death, the family may want to prepare the body by washing and wrapping the body in unsewn white cloth; postmortem examinations are discouraged unless required by law. May avoid pork and alcohol if Muslim. Islamic patients observe month long fast of Ramadan (begins approximately mid-October); people suffering from chronic illnesses, pregnant women, breast-feeding, or menstruating don’t fast. Females avoid eye contact with males; use same-sex family members as interpreters.

112
Q

Asian Americans

A

May value ability to endure pain and grief with silent stoicism; typically family oriented; extended family should be involved in care of dying patient; believes in “hot-cold” yin/yang often involved; sodium intake is generally high because of salted and dried foods; may believe prolonged eye contact is rude and an invasion of privacy; may not without necessarily understanding; may prefer to maintain a comfortable physical distance between the patient and the health care provider.

113
Q

Latino Americans

A

May view illness as a sign of weakness, punishment for evil doing; may consult with a curandero or voodoo priest; family members are typically involved in all aspects of decision making such as terminal illness; may see no reason to submit to mammograms or vaccinations.

114
Q

Native Americans

A

May turn to a medicine man to determine the true cause of an illness; may value the ability to endure pain or grief with silent stoicism; diet may be deficient in vitamin D and calcium because many suffer from lactose intolerance or don’t drink milk; obesity and diabetes are major health concerns; may divert eyes to the floor when they are praying or paying attention.

115
Q

Western Culture

A

May value technology almost exclusively in the struggle to conquer diseases; health is understood to be the absence, minimization, or control of disease process; eating utensils usually consists of knife, fork, and spoon; three daily meals is typical.

116
Q

Acute Renal Disease Diet

A

protein-restricted, high-calorie, fluid-controlled, sodium and potassium controlled.

117
Q

Addisons Disease Diet

A

increased sodium, low potassium diet.

118
Q

ADHD and Bipolar Diet

A

high-calorie and provide finger foods.

119
Q

Burns Diet

A

high protein, high caloric, increase in Vitamin C.

120
Q

Cancer Diet

A

high calorie, high protein

121
Q

Celiac Disease Diet

A

gluten-free diet (no BROW: barley, rye, oat, and wheat).

122
Q

Chronic Renal Disease Diet

A

protein-restricted, low-sodium, fluid-restricted, potassium-restricted, phosphorus-restricted.

123
Q

Cirrhosis (stable) Diet

A

Normal Protein

124
Q

Cirrhosis with hepatic insufficiency diet

A

restrict protein, fluids, and sodium.

125
Q

Constipation diet

A

high-fiber, increased fluids

126
Q

COPD Diet

A

soft, high-calorie, low-carbohydrate, high-fat, small frequent feedings

127
Q

Cystic Fibrosis Diet

A

Increase in fluids

128
Q

Diarrhea Diet

A

liquid, low-fiber, regular, fluid and electrolyte replacement

129
Q

Gallbladder Disease Diet

A

low-fat, calorie-restricted, regular

130
Q

Gastritis Diet

A

low-fiber, bland diet||BRATS diet

131
Q

Hepatitis Diet

A

regular, high-calorie, high-protein

132
Q

Hyperlipidemia diet

A

fat-controlled, calorie-restricted

133
Q

Hypertension, heart failure, CAD diet

A

low sodium,|calorie-restricted, fat-controlled

134
Q

Kidney Stones Diet

A

increased fluid intake, calcium-controlled, low-oxalate

135
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome Diet

A

sodium-restricted, high-calorie, high-protein, potassium-restricted.

136
Q

Obesity, overweight Diet

A

calorie-restricted, high-fiber

137
Q

Pancreatitis Diet

A

low-fat, regular, small frequent feedings; tube feeding or total parenteral nutrition.

138
Q

Peptic Ulcer Diet

A

bland diet||BRATS

139
Q

Pernicious Anemia Diet

A

increase Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin), found in high amounts on shellfish, beef liver, and fish.

140
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia Diet

A

increase fluids to maintain hydration since sickling increases when patients become dehydrated.

141
Q

Stroke Diet

A

mechanical soft, regular, or tube-feeding.

142
Q

Underweight Diet

A

high calorie, high protein

143
Q

Vomiting Diet

A

fluid and electrolyte replacement

144
Q

Asthma Position

A

Orthopneic position where patient is sitting up and bent forward with arms supported on a table or chair arms ||”tripod”

145
Q

Post Bronchoscopy Position

A

flat on bed with head hyperextended

146
Q

Cerebral Aneurysm Position

A

high fowlers

147
Q

Hemorrhagic Stroke Position

A

HOB elevated 30 degrees to reduce ICP and facilitate venous drainage

148
Q

Cardiac Cauterization Position

A

keep site extended

149
Q

Ischemic Stroke Position

A

HOB flat

150
Q

Epistaxis Position

A

to lean forward

151
Q

Above Knee Amputation Position

A

elevate for first 24 hours on pillow, position prone daily to|provide for hip extension.

152
Q

Tube feeding for patients with decreased LOC Position

A

position patient on right side to promote emptying of the stomach with HOB elevated to prevent aspiration

153
Q

Air/Pulmonary Embolism Position

A

turn patient to left side and lower HOB

154
Q

Postural Drainage Positioning

A

Lung segment to be drained should be in the uppermost position to allow gravity to work.

155
Q

Post Lumbar Puncture Position

A

patient should lie flat in supine to prevent headache and leaking of CSF.

156
Q

Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) Positioning

A

Catheter should be taped to thigh so legs should be kept straight

157
Q

After Myringotomy Position

A

Position on side of affected ear after surgery (allows drainage of secretions)

158
Q

Post Cataract Surgery Position

A

Patient will sleep on unaffected side with night shield for 1-4 weeks

159
Q

Detached Retina Position

A

area of detachment should be in the dependent position

160
Q

Post Tyroidectomy Position

A

low or semi-fowlers, support head, neck and shoulders

161
Q

Thoracentesis Position

A

sitting position, arms raised and resting overbed table (during procedure) ||Affected side up after procedure

162
Q

Spina Bifida Position

A

position infant on prone so sac does not rupture

163
Q

Bucks Traction Position

A

Elevate foot of bed for counter-traction

164
Q

Post Total Hip Replacement Positioning

A

don’t sleep on operated side, don’t flex hip more than 45-|60 degrees, don’t elevate HOB more than 45 degrees. Maintain hip abduction by separating|thighs with pillows.

165
Q

Prolapsed Cord Position

A

Knee-chest Position

166
Q

Cleft-lip Position

A

Position on back or in infant seat to prevent trauma to the suture line. While feeding, hold in an upright position

167
Q

Cleft Palat Position

A

Prone

168
Q

Hemorrhoidectomy Position

A

assist to lateral position

169
Q

Hiatial Hernia Position

A

Upright Position

170
Q

Preventing Dumping Syndrome Position

A

Eat in reclined position, lie down after meals for 20-30 minutes(also restrict fluids during meals, low fiber diet, and small frequent meals)

171
Q

Enema Administration Position

A

Position patient in left-side lying (Sims position) with knees flexed

172
Q

Increase ICP Position

A

high Fowlers

173
Q

Laminectomy Position

A

back as straight as possible; log roll to move and sand bag on sides

174
Q

Spinal Cord Injury

A

Immobilize on spine board, with head in neutral position. Immobilize head with padded C-collar, maintain traction and alignment of head manually. Log roll client and do not allow client to twist or bend.

175
Q

Liver Biopsy Position

A

right side lying with pillow or small towel under puncture site for at least 3 hours

176
Q

Paracentesis Position

A

flat on bed or sitting

177
Q

Intestinal tubes Position

A

place patient on right side to facilitate passage into duodenum

178
Q

Nasogastric Tube Position

A

elevate HOB 30 degrees to prevent aspiration, Maintain elevation for continuous feeding or 1 hour after intermittent feedings

179
Q

Pelvic Exam Position

A

lithotomy position

180
Q

Rectal Exam Positon

A

Knee chest position. Sims or dorsal recumbent

181
Q

During Internal Radiation Position

A

on bed rest while implant in place

182
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia Position

A

place client in sitting position (elevate HOB) first before any other implementation

183
Q

Shock Position

A

bedrest with extremities elevated 20 degrees. knees straight, head slightly elevated (modified Trendelenberg)

184
Q

Head Injury Position

A

30 to decrease ICP

185
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis (when outflow is inadequate)

A

turn pt from side to side BEFORE checking for kinks in tubing

186
Q

Oil-Based Dye Position

A

Flat on bed for at least 6-8 hours to prevent leakage of CSF

187
Q

Air Dye

A

Trendelenburg

188
Q

pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) S/S

A

low-grade afternoon fever

189
Q

Pneumonia symptoms

A

Rust colored sputum

190
Q

Asthma symptoms

A

Wheezing on expiration

191
Q

Emphysema Symptoms

A

-barrel chest |-pursed lip breathing| -dypnea on exertion

192
Q

Kawasaki Syndrome Symptom

A

Strawberry tongue

193
Q

Pernicious Anemia Symptoms

A

red beefy tongue

194
Q

Down Syndrome Symptoms

A

Protruding Tongue

195
Q

Cholera Symptoms

A

rice water stool|washer women hands (wrinkled hands from dehydration)

196
Q

Malaria Symptoms

A

Stepladder like fever with chills

197
Q

Typhoid Symptoms

A

Rose Spots in the Abdomen

198
Q

Dengue Symptoms

A

fever, rash, and headache. |positive hermans sign

199
Q

Diptheria Symptoms

A

pseudomembrane formation

200
Q

Measles Symptoms

A

Koplik spots

201
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) symptoms

A

butterfly rash

202
Q

Leprosy Symptoms

A

leonine facies (thickened folded facial skin)

203
Q

Bulemia Symptoms

A

Chipmunk Face (Parotid gland swelling)

204
Q

Appendicitis Symptoms

A

Rebound Tnderness at McBurneys Point. Rovsing Sing (Palpation of LLQ elicits pain in RLQ) Psoas sign (pain from flexing the thigh to the hip)

205
Q

Meningitis Symptoms

A

Kernigs sign (stiffness of hamstrings causing inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees ||Brudzinskis sign (forced flexion of the neck elicits a reflex flexion of the hips)

206
Q

Tetany Symptoms

A

hypocalcemia |(+) Trousseaus sign |Chvostek sign

207
Q

Pancreatitis Symptoms

A

Cullens Sign (ecchymosis of the umbilicus) ||Grey Turners sign (bruising of the flank)

208
Q

Pyloric Stenosis Symptoms

A

Olive like mass

209
Q

patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) symptoms

A

washing machine like murmer

210
Q

Addisons Disease symptoms

A

bronze like skin |(hypo)

211
Q

Cushings Syndrome Symptoms

A

moon face appearance and buffalo hump

212
Q

Graves Disease Symptoms

A

Exophthalmos (bulging of eyes)

213
Q

Intussusception Symptoms

A

Sausage-shaped mass

214
Q

MS Symptoms

A

Charcots Triad: nystagmus, intention tremor, and dysarthria

215
Q

Myasthenia Gravis Symptoms

A

Progressive weakness and lack of muscle control with periodic acute episodes||Ptosis (drooping of eyelids)

216
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

ascending muscle weakness

217
Q

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

A

Homan’s sign

218
Q

Angina

A

crushing, stabbing chest pain relieved by nitro

219
Q

MI

A

Crushing stubbing pain which radiates to left shoulder, neck, arms, unrelieved by NTG

220
Q

Parkinson Disease

A

pill-rolling tremors

221
Q

CMV Infection

A

Owls eye appearance of cells (huge nucleus in cells)

222
Q

Glaucoma

A

tunnel vision

223
Q

retinal detachment

A

Flashes of light, shadow with curtain across the vision

224
Q

basilar skull fracture

A

Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle’s sign (mastoid ecchymosis).

225
Q

DKA

A

acetone breath

226
Q

PIH Pregnancy Induced Hypertension

A

Proteinuria, hypertension, edema

227
Q

DM

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

228
Q

GERD

A

heartburn

229
Q

Hirschsprung disease

A

RIBBON LIKE STOOLS|low fiber and HIGH DIET

230
Q

Herpes Simplex Type II

A

painful vesicles on genitalia

231
Q

Genital Warts

A

warts 1-2 mm in diameter

232
Q

Syphilis

A

painless chancres

233
Q

Chancroid

A

painful, crater-like sores

234
Q

Gonorrhea

A

green creamy discharge and painful urination

235
Q

Chlamydia

A

milky discharge and painful urination

236
Q

Candidiasis

A

white cheesy odorless discharge

237
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

yellow, itchy, frothy, and foul-smelling vaginal discharges

238
Q

______________ is the best indicator of dehydration

A

Weight

239
Q

Neutropenic patients should not receive

A

vaccines, fresh fruits or flowers

240
Q

Nitroglycerin Patch

A

administered up to 3 times in intervals of 5 minutes

241
Q

Morphine is contraindicated in:

A

Pancreatitis. It causes spasm of the Sphincter of Oddi. Therefore Demerol should be given.

242
Q

NEVER give ______ in IV push

A

Potassium

243
Q

Infants born to HIV (+) moms

A

should receive all vaccines on schedule

244
Q

Gravida

A

number of times a woman has been pregnant

245
Q

Para

A

number of pregnancies that have reach viability

246
Q

Lochia Rubra

A

Reddish or red-brown vaginal discharge that occurs immediately after childbirth; composed mostly of blood.

247
Q

Lochia Serosa

A

Pinkish/brown, serosanguineous. Lasts day 4-10 postpartum

248
Q

Lochia Alba

A

the vaginal discharge of decreased blood and increased leukocytes that’s the final stage of lochia. It occurs 7 to 10 days after childbirth.

249
Q

RACE

A

rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish

250
Q

Quadriplegic patient experiencing autonomic dyslexia

A

Elevate HOB as high as possible

251
Q

Veracity

A

truthfulness, honesty

252
Q

Beneficence

A

Doing good or causing good to be done; kindly action

253
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

do no harm

254
Q

Tyramine-rich foods

A

aged cheese, pepperoni, salami, avocados, figs, bananas, smoked fish, protein dietary supplements, soups, soy sauce, some beers, and red wine.

255
Q

Projection

A

unconscious attribution of our negative characteristics to others

256
Q

Sublimination

A

channeling socially unacceptable impulses and urges into socially acceptable behavior

257
Q

Repression

A

unconsciously pushing unwanted memories out of awareness

258
Q

obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

An anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts (obsession) and/ or actions (compulsions).||Realize behavior is unreasonable, but are powerless to control

259
Q

toxic risk associated with clozapine (Clozaril) administration

A

blood dyscrasia

260
Q

Adverse Effects of Haloperidol administration

A

drowsiness, insomnia, weakness, HA, extrapyramidal symptoms, such as akathisia, tardive dyskinesia, and dystonia