NCLEX Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Hyperglycemia blood glucose range

A

Greater than 180 mg/dL

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2
Q

Treatment for magnesium toxicity

A

stop magnesium immediately, administer IV calcium gluconate bolus

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3
Q

Platelet reference range

A

150,000 to 400,000 mm³

If low expect petechiae, spontaneous bleeding

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4
Q

What are signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity?

A

Nausea, Flushing, headache, decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes (DTR’s), hypocalcemia, somnolence, respiratory paralysis, cardiac arrest, decreased urine output, note: mag is eliminated via kidneys

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5
Q

Target blood glucose for a patient on TPN

A

140 to 180 mg/dL

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6
Q

Action of warfarin/Coumadin

A

Vitamin K antagonist. Prevents blood clot formation in patients with a fib, artificial valve, history of thrombosis.

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7
Q

Considerations regarding MMR vaccine for childbearing age and pregnant people

A

MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and therefore contraindicated in pregnancy. If a person is pregnant and found to be not immune, they should be offered the vaccine postpartum period for a non-pregnant person who receives the MMR vaccine pregnancy should be avoided for 1 to 3 months post vaccination.

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8
Q

What are contraindications for administration of thrombolytic agents (-PLASE)

A

Active bleeding, recent trauma, aneurysm, arterial venous malformation, history of hemorrhagic stroke, uncontrolled hypertension, all contraindicated due to risk of intracerebral hemorrhage. Also do not give to pts with peptic ulcer disease d/t risk of increased ulcer bleeding.

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9
Q

How can peripheral edema in children manifest?

A

Periorbital edema (puffiness around the eyes)

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10
Q

Hypoglycemia blood glucose range

A

Less than 70 mg/dL

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11
Q

What are warning signs of lithium toxicity

A

Excessive urination and increased thirst, nausea and vomiting, extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitor for fluid intaxe output, GI symptoms, neurological symptoms

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12
Q

CD4 plus cell count reference range

A

Normal range 500 to 1200 mm³

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13
Q

How long should a muscler needle be

A

1 to 1 1/2 inches

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14
Q

Cows milk is rich in

A

Calcium and vitamin D

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15
Q

Palpable lymph nodes post mastectomy normal versus abnormal findings

A

Normal: Palpable, superficial, small (0.5 to 1 cm), mobile, firm, non-tender

Abnormal: Tender, hard, fixed, larger than 1 cm

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16
Q

Nursing considerations/teaching for warfarin/Coumadin

A

Vitamin K rich foods such as green vegetables (spinach, broccoli), and liver need to be kept CONSISTENT (not decreased/increased) while taking. Need monthly INR draws.

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17
Q

What is the therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate?

A

4 to 7 mEq/L

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18
Q

Warfarin is also known as

A

Coumadin

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19
Q

What decreases efficacy of warfarin/Coumadin

A

Think increased clotting. Rifampin, carbamazepine, oral contraceptives, ginseng, St. John’s wort, vitamin K rich foods.

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20
Q

2.2 pound/1 kg weight gain or loss is equal to how much fluid

A

1000 mL or 1 L

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21
Q

What increases risk of bleeding with warfarin/Coumadin

A

Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, ABX, antifungals, Amiodarone, cranberry, ginkgo biloba, vitamin E, omeprazole, thyroid hormone, SSRIs.

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22
Q

Nursing considerations/teaching around carbamazepine

A

Associated with Leukopenia due to agranulocytosis, Resulting in increased infection risk. Patient should be educated regarding infection prevention and signs and symptoms of infection.

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23
Q

What is the number one priority intervention in a patient with DKA?

A

Re-hydration with normal saline

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24
Q

What is the most common complication of central lines?

A

Catheter occlusion

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25
Q

What is the best intervention for a suspected central line occlusion?

A

See if occlusion is mechanical/non thrombotic –reposition the patient (head, arm), as catheter tip may be against a vessel wall. Then assess for kinks, closed clamps, precipitate in the IV tubing.

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26
Q

What is the appropriate sized flush for central lines?

A

No smaller than 10 mL. Smaller size increases intraluminal pressure and can damage the line

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27
Q

What is an important nursing consideration for IV vancomycin?

A

Red man syndrome is a possible side effect and occurs with rapid vancomycin administration. S/sx of RMS = flsuhing, erythema, pruritis, usually on the face, neck, and chest. Muscle pain, spasm, dyspnea, hypotension may also occur. Usually related to rate of infusion NOT an allergic reaction. Vancomycin should be infused at minimum over 60 minutes.

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28
Q

Normal serum calcium range

A

8.6.-10.2 mg/dL

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29
Q

Complication of thyroidectomy

A

Hypocalcemia d/t removal of parathyroid glands. Can lead to laryngeal spasm = life threatening.

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30
Q

S/sx of hypocalcemia

A

Tetany (tingling of hands, toes, circum-oral region) positive trousseau or chvostek signs.

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31
Q

Treatment for hypocalcemia

A

Calcium gluconate

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32
Q

What is ketorolac?

A

NSAID –nephrotoxic, avoid in kidney patients

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33
Q

Considerations re: NSAID prescriptions

A

No more than 1 NSAID should be prescribed at a time, inappropriate for CHF patietns due to sodium retention and resulting increased fluid retention

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34
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

Rare, inherited muscle abnormality triggered by inhaled anesthetic agents and succinylcholine (anectine. A depolarizing muscle relaxant) used in general anesthesia. Asking re: family history of reactions of anesthesia is importantant, especially if patient has never undergone anesthesia.

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35
Q

Depth of proper chest compressions

A

2 - 2.4 inches/5-6 centimeters

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36
Q

Rate of proper chest compressions

A

100-120 compressions/min

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37
Q

Therapeutic range of lithium

A

0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L for maintenence
up to 1.5 for acute mania
toxic over 1.5-2

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38
Q

Asterixis

A

flapping hand tremors in arm extension

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39
Q

What causes asterixis

A

Elevated serum ammonia levels

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40
Q

Treatment for elevated serum ammonia levels

A

Lactulose.

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41
Q

Action of albumin

A

Increases intravascular oncotic pressure = increased intravascular volume, helps prevent hypotension and tachycardia = more stable vital signs.

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42
Q

Normal range serum magnesium

A

1.5 - 2.5 mEq/L

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43
Q

What are etiology/risks of hypomagnesia

A

Often associated with excessive EtOH use, results in ventricular arrhythmia –specifically torsades de pointes which looks like a twisting ribbon or a sideways tornado– and neuromuscular excitability –tremors, hyperactive reflexes, positive trousseau and chovstek signs, seizure.

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44
Q

Post operative blood loss normal range

A

No greater than 100 mL/hr

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45
Q

Normal urine output children vs adults

A

30 mL/hr or 0.5 mL/kg/hr adults

1 mL/kg/hr children

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46
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

An autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular junction. Acetylcholine is unable to bind to the receptors. Results in fluctuating muscle weakness in skeletal muscles related to eyes and eylid movements, speaking, swallowing, breathing. Tx. is anticholinesterase drugs like pyridostigmine (Mestinon) which increases acetylcholine binding and increases muscle strength. Meds are given prior to meals to maximize swallow ability during eating. Semi-solid foods should be provided.

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47
Q

What are etiology and symptoms of myasthenic crisis?

A

Stress, infection, undermedication.

S/sx = oropharyngeal and respiratory muscle weakness and respiratory failure.

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48
Q

First step in management of someone who has been impaled with an object

A

Stabilization of the impaling object (then assessment, IV and blood draws, fluids, etc)

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49
Q

Amiodarone toxic side effects

A

Antiarrhythmia drug used only when other tx have failed because it has toxic adverse effects like pulmonary toxicity which manifests as a dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, and dyspnea. Requires urgent follow up.

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50
Q

What is uterine tachysystole and what is the treatment?

A

Due to pitocin augmentation in labor. More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes over 30 minutes. Tx = turn off pitocin, place pt in side lying position, provide O2 8-10 L/min, give IV fluid bolus, prepare to administer terbutaline, notify provider.

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51
Q

What causes diabetes inspidius?

A

ADH insufficiency. Sometimes due to pituitary manipulation.

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52
Q

S/sx of diabetes insipidus

A

Increased thirst (polydipsia), excessive urination (polyuria). Fluid volume deficit = can lead to weight loss, HYPERnatremia, HIGH serum osmolality, copious DILUTE urine with low specific gravity.

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53
Q

What are side effects and teaching considerations of sulfa drugs

A

Can cause kidney damage (client should drink lots of water), photosensitivity (client should wear sunscreen), folic acid deficit (client should take folate), agranulocytosis, stevens-johnson syndrome (teach client to d/c meds if rash appears), may cause orange-yellow skin and urine which will normalize when drug is stopped

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54
Q

Key steps of chest tube removal

A

Pre-medicate patient, have patient Valsalva during removal, it is a sterile procedure, and a sterile, airtight occlusive dressing is applied to wound after removal. A follow up chest x-ray is indicated 2-24 hours after removal.

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55
Q

Where are the most ideal PIV sites?

A

Hand or forearm

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56
Q

What are the classic signs of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

A

Falls frequently, pushes up on thighs to stand, walks on tiptoes, big calves.

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57
Q

Early sign of pneumothorax

A

Drop in O2 sat

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58
Q

Before starting TNF (tumor necrosis factor) drugs what must be ruled out? What must be monitored when taking TNF drugs?

A

TB –pt must be cleared or treated for latent TB prior to starting TNF. WBC must be monitored because TNF causes immunosuppression and elevated white count may indicate active infection. Pts with active infection, or taking antibiotics for an infection, should not take TNF.

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59
Q

ABG ranges

A

pH 7.35 - 7.45
PaCO2 45 - 35 (represents respiratory system)
HC03 22 - 26 (represents metabolic/renal system)
PaO2 80 -100 mm Hg

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60
Q

What does full compensation look like in ABGs?

A

pH is normal but less than 7.40 is acidotic and more than 7.0 is alkalotic

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61
Q

what does partial compensation look like in ABGs?

A

All values are out of range (neither PaC02 and HC03 are in normal range)

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62
Q

What does uncompensated look like in ABGs?

A

PaCo2 or HC03 are in normal range

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63
Q

What is high fowlers position

A

HOB up at 45 degrees or higher

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64
Q

What is Sim’s position

A

flat and side lying

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65
Q

What is the action of lactulose?

A

It decreases intestinal absorption of ammonia

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66
Q

Is a positive pg test a probable or diagnostic sign of pg?

A

It is probable –a gestational trophoblastic disease can also cause positive serum HcG

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67
Q

Normal range urine specific gravity

A

1.003 - 1.030

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68
Q

Procedure for 24 hour urine

A

Time is marked as start, urine is voided and discarded so time coincides with an emtpy bladder. Dark jug with power is provided for urine collection, refrigerated or kept on ice when not in use. If ANY void is missed, must start test again.

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69
Q

Loop diuretics can cause or worsen…

A

loop diuretics (like furosemide and bumetanide) can worsen hypokalemia unless they are K sparing

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70
Q

Elevated liver enzymes in a TB patient may indicate

A

drug induced hepatitis

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71
Q

Vanco therapeutic range

A

10-20 mg/L

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72
Q

Why is a vanco trough run? What else is checked?

A

To assess for nephrotoxicity. If trough is higher than therapeutic range, contact HCP. Also assessing BUN and creatinine. If either is high, also consider nephrotoxicity and contact HCP.

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73
Q

Normal creatinine range

A

0.6 - 1.3 mg/dL. Best indicator of kidney function. Elevated not that exciting unless on a nephrotoxic drug or a dye procedure in the morning.

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74
Q

Normal BUN

A

6 -20 mg/dL

If elevated, assess for dehydration

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75
Q

BUN stands for

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen

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76
Q

Most common drugs used to treat C. Diff are?

A

Metronidazole and oral Vancomycin. IV vancomycin is not effective.

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77
Q

Signs of digoxin toxicity, monitoring

A

N/V, slow HR, change in color perception. Digoxin is secreted by the kidney so creatinine and BUN are monitored. Elevation can indicate kidney injury, which means digoxin may accumulate = toxicity risk. Pt should report GI symptoms, neurological symptoms (lethargy, confusion, fatigue), visual changes, symptoms of cardiac block (dizziness, lightheadedness)

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78
Q

Chest tube bubbling normal vs abnormal

A

Gentle, continuous bubbling in suction control unit is normal

Bubbling in leak gauge or in water seal chamber is not normal UNLESS the pt has pneumothorax in which case gentle intermittent bubbling in water seal chamber is expected until lung has fully expanded

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79
Q

Polycythemia

A

An increase in RBCs. A compensatory response to chronic low blood O2 levels. Can lead to clots/stroke. Defined as hemoglobin >22 g/dL or hematocrit >65%

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80
Q

Interventions for anaphylaxis

A
High flow O2 via non-rebreather
IM epinephrine can be repeated very 5 -15 min as needed --this is the MAIN Treatment while symptoms present, all others are supportive
Elevated legs
IV fluid resuscitation
Albuterol/bronchodilator
Antihistamine
Corticosteroids
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81
Q

People with hemophilia are at increased risk for

A

joint destruction due to frequent bleeding into joint spaces

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82
Q

What does a positive Romberg test indicate?

A

Pt stands up straight and closes their eyes. If they fall over, that is a positive Romberg test. Indicates impaired proprioception/sensory ataxia.

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83
Q

Normal range for potassium

A

3.5 - 5.3 mmol/L
if low, prepare to give KCl, call provider.
If elevated (5.4 - 5.9) hold all KCl, assess heart, call provider , give kayexsolate and regular insulin and D5W.
If 6 or greater, emergent: ECG, hold all KCl, assess heart, call provider , give kayexsolate and regular insulin and D5W, do not leave pt side

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84
Q

P wave represents

A

atrial contraction/depolarization

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85
Q

QRS complex represents

A

ventricular contraction/depolarization

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86
Q

T wave represents

A

re-polarization of ventricles

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87
Q

Typical “ideal” length of EKG strip

A

6 seconds

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88
Q

Tiny boxes in EKG represent how much time

A

0.04 seconds

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89
Q

A big box in EKG represents how much time

A

0.20 seconds

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90
Q

Prolonged PR interval is how long

A

greater than 0.20 seconds (more than 5 little boxes)

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91
Q

What are the sinus rhythms

A

Sinus brady, normal sinus, sinus tach

All are regular rhythms, with P for every QRS and QRS for every P and regular P to P intervals, but different rates.

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92
Q

Hydrocele

A

Fluid filled testicular mass typically painless/bilatera. Usually resolves by pt’s first birthday.

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93
Q

Acrocyanosis

A

blue hands/feet

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94
Q

Neonatal “normal” RR

A

30-60 breaths per minute

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95
Q

Therapeutic INR range

A

2-3 but up to 3.5 for heart valve disease. Anything over 4 is concerning but not emergent.

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96
Q

Chillblains or Pernio definition and tx

A

Frost bite. Redness and swelling and blanched areas of skin due to cold exposure/injury. Rewarm in warm water (104 F) for approx 30 minutes or until areas of blanching are pink again. Areas unable to be submerged in water can be rewarmed with warm compresses. After rewarming, elevate extremeties to reduce swelling, do not apply occlusive dressings, do not massage.

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97
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

A risk when SSRIs are used in combination with MAOIs. If a pt has been on MAOIs, must wait 14 days before starting SSRIs.

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98
Q

Aortic stenosis typical subjective and objective findingd

A

Dyspnea on exertion, chest pain, syncope, weak pulses, soft of absent S2, systolic murmur over right sternal border.

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99
Q

Peak expiratory flow rate

A

measures max exhalation, indicates amount of airway obstruction. Increasing peak expiratory flow rate value = more exhalation = less obstruction.

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100
Q

Connection between heart failure patients and expected findings re sodium levels

A

Dilutional hyponatremai is expcted in heart failure patients due to excess fluid. Signs and symptoms are fatigue and headache. Na levels below 130 mEq/L is cause for concern but borderline low (low 130s) is not emergent.

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101
Q

Risk to congential heart disease/syntheic materials repair, and prosthetic valve patients in relation to dental work

A

Risk for infective endocarditis due to oral surgery and some dental procedures. They need prophylactic antibiotics prior to procedures.

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102
Q

Intussusception

A

An intestinal obstruction due to bowel folds (like a telescope) causing increase in bowel pressure, vomiting due to pyloric muscle spasms (but NOT projectile vomiting). Produces blood and mucus in stool, looks like red jelly, a sausage shaped right sided mass on palpation is expected. Anticipate air enema (pneumatic enema) or hydrostatic (saline) enema to relieve obstruction/diagnose. Risk of peritonitis (life threatening): fever, abdominal ridigity and guarding, rebound tenderness.

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103
Q

Steatorrhea

A

Oily or bulky, foul-smelling stool due to excess fat in stool. Results from malabsorbtion of fat may be due to pancreatic insufficiency, cystic fibrosis, celiac disease.

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104
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease

A

congenital aganglionic megacolon, causes internal sphincter to remain rigid/not relax resulting in bowel obstruction and causes thin, ribbon-like stools or inability to pass stool in newborns first 48 hours, produces bilious vomit. Potentially fatal complication is enterocolitis which can lead to sepsis, presents as fever, lethargy, explosive foul-smelling diarrhea, and worsening distension of abdomen.

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105
Q

Neurogenic shock symptoms

A

Hypotension and bradycardia due to massive vasodilation

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106
Q

Thyroid storm symptoms

A

Rapid increase in temp, HR, BP due to stress/trauma in Grave’s patients (hyperthyroid)

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107
Q

Proper administration of a nasal spray medication

A

High fowlers position with head slightly bowed, occlude opposite nostril, point spray tip away from center of nose, spray and inhale deeply, breathe through mouth, repeat on opposite side. Blot nose secretions but do not blow nose for several minutes post administration,

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108
Q

Normal PR interval

A

0.12 - 0.2 seconds

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109
Q

Normal QRS interval

A

0.6 - 0.11 seconds

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110
Q

Name the cranial nerves

A
I Olfactory
II Optic
III Oculomotor
IV Trochlear
V Trigeminal
VI Abducens
VII Facial
VIII Vestibulocochlear
IX Glossopharangeal
X Vagus
XI Accessory
XII Hypoglossal
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111
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve I, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN I Olfactory is a sensory nerve, responsible for sense of smell. Have patient close eyes and identify a scent.

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112
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve II, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN II Optic is a sensory nerve responsible for vision. One eye at a time, test peripheral vision and test reading vision on chart.

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113
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve III, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN III Oculomotor is a motor nerve, responsible for eyeball movement and pupillary dilation/constriction. Tested together with CN IV and
CN VI. Tested by holding pen light to make figure H in air, shining pen light into eyes from each side, and bring penlight toward nose from further away.

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114
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve IV, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN IV Trochlear is a motor nerve, moves eyeball down and laterally. Tested together with CN III, CN VI.

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115
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve V, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN V Trigeminal is a sensory and motor nerve, responsible for mandibular and maxillary and opthalmic areas (example chewing). Tested by opening mouth against resistance.

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116
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve VI, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN VI Abducens is a motor nerve, is responsible for side to side eye movement. Tested with CN III and IV.

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117
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve VII, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN VII Facial is a sensory and motor nerve, responsible for facial movement and expression, helps control secretion of saliva and tears, taste. Tested by asking pt to close eyes tightly, open eyes wide, puff out cheeks, smile and frown.

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118
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve VIII, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN VIII Vestibulococchlear is a sensory nerve, responsible for hearing and equilibrium. Tested by rubbing fingers next to ears.

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119
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve IX, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal is a sensory and motor nerve, responsible for taste, swallowing/gag, speech, saliva excretion, tested together with CN X. Tested by asking pt to open wide and say ah and observing uvula moving up, can also test gag by sticking something in back of pt’s throat.

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120
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve X, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN X Vagus is a sensory and motor nerve, responsible for taste, swallowing/gag, cough, speaking, senses aortic blood pressure, slows heart rate, simulates digestive organs –tested together with CN IX. Tested by observing speech –able to talk without hoarsenss, and observing ability to swallow.

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121
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve XI, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN XI Accessory is a motor nerve, responsible for head, shoulder and neck movement. Controls trapezius and sternocleomastoid, controls swallow movements. Tested by asking pt to move head side to side, up and down, and shrug against resistance.

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122
Q

What type of nerve is Cranial Nerve XII, what is it responsible for? How is it tested?

A

CN XII Hypoglossal is a motor nerve, responsible for tongue movement, speech and swallowing. Have pt. stick out tongue and move it side to side. Should be midline when not moving side to side.

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123
Q

What is atrial flutter? What does it look like?

A

Atrial flutter is a self perpetuating loop of conduction, usually in the right atrium. The atrial rate is REGULAR and RAPID with a BPM of 250 - 400. Ventricular rate is 1/3 slower due to the AV node blocking some of the atrial impulses. Ventricular rate is usually regular but can also be irregular. Characterized on ECG by absense of normal p-wave and instead “flutter waves” or f-waves/ a sawtooth pattern prior to the QRS complex.

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124
Q

What is atrial fibrillation? What does it look like?

A

Atrial fibrillation is due to multiple electrical impulses from many ectopic sites in and around the atria, often near pulmonary vein roots. The impulses are unsynchronized and random causing atria to quiver (fibrillate) rather than contract. Most impulses do not pass to the ventricles. Atrial rate can be very fast. Ventricular rate is IRREGULAR, ranging from less than 60 to more than 100 BPM. Characterized on ECG by absent P-waves and narrow, irregular QRS complexes. Baseline may be flat or appear undulating. Flat indicates MORE conduction impulses from atria.

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125
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia? What does it look like?

A

V-tach is due to a single strong firing site/circuit in one of the ventricles. Usually occurs in people with structural heart problems such as scarring from a prior MI or heart muscle abnormalities. Impulses originating in the ventricles produce premature ventricular contractions that are REGULAR and FAST ranging from 100-250 BPM. Characterized on ECG with no P-wave and wide, undulating QRS complexes – it looks like large, regular humps. Sustained V-tach longer than 30 seconds requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac arrest. It can quickly progress to V Fib

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126
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation?

A

V-fib is caused by multiple weak ectopic impulses in the ventricles causing them to fibrillate/quiver rather than contract. This means no blood is being pumped out of the heart. Quickly leads to cardiac arrest . Characterized on ECG as irregular, random wave forms with no identifiable waves or complexes.

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127
Q

What are the medical/electric treatments for bradycardia

A

Atropine and isoproterenol

Pacemaker

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128
Q

What are the medical/electric treatments for A-fib, SV-tach, and V-tach with pulse?

A

Amiodarone, adenosine, verapamil

Synchronized cardioversion

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129
Q

What are the medical/electric treatments for pulseless v-tach, ventricular fibrillation?

A

Amiodarone, lidocaine, epinepherine

Defibrillation

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130
Q

Hypoglycemia range and interventions for neonates

A

<40-45 mg/dL is considered the hypoglycemic range for neonates
<35 mg/dL in neonates ages 4-24 hours if asymptomatic, first line is to feed (breast or formula)

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131
Q

What is VSD

A

Ventricular septal defect. LEFT TO RIGHT SHUNT –A septal opening between ventricles causing left to right shunt and excess blood flow to the lungs and increased risk of CHF and pulmonary HTN. Causes pulmonary congestion, increased work of breathing, decreased lung compliance.

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132
Q

What are signs/symptoms of VSD

A

systolic murmur at sternal border at 3rd or 4th intercostal space, diaphoresis, tachypnea, dyspnea,poor weight gain. ACYANOTIC

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133
Q

Over how long should a blood transfusion be administered?

A

2-4 hours

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134
Q

What is the priority medication in EToH intoxication?

A

IV thiamine before or with IV glucose to prevent Wernike Encephalopathy

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135
Q

What is a consideration re: HR and beta blockers?

A

Beta blockers (-LOL) can sometimes worsen HF and shouldn’t be given to a patient with low BP, and left sided HF symptoms

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136
Q

Aspirin is contraindicated when

A

there is evidence of bleeding

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137
Q

Statins are contraindicated when

A

there is evidence of sever liver injury or muscle injury

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138
Q

Metronidazole can cause what urinary side effect

A

Dark urine

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139
Q

If air embolism is suspected in a central line, what position should the patient be in

A

Trendelenberg (supine with feet elevated above head) to allow air to rise and trap in right atrium.

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140
Q

During injection cap and tubing changes what should the patient do

A

Turn head away from field, and hold breath or valsalva in order to prevent air entering line/air embolism.

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141
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome

A

Auto immune condition causing inflammation of the exocrine glands (lacrimal, salivary) –causes dry eyes, dry mouth. Pt needs to avoid drying things (no decongestions, harsh soaps, excessively hot water, acidic drinks , other mucosal/oral irritants like coffee, etoh, nicotine), receive regular oral care.

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142
Q

Possible side effects/interactions of St. John’s wort

A

Increases effect of warfarin/coumadin, can cause serotonin syndrome if taken with anti-depressants, can lessen iron absorption, can cause photosensitivity

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143
Q

Treatment for acetylsalicylic acid toxicity

A

Activated charcoal followed by IV sodium bicarbonate.

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144
Q

Sinusoidal FHR pattern

A

repetitive wave-like fluctuations in HR with absent variability and no response to UCs. An ominous finding requiring immediate intervention

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145
Q

Variable decels

A

ABRUPT decrease (less than 30 seconds from onset to nadir) and at least 15 beats below baseline for 15 or more seconds up to 2 minutes. Usually due to cord compression, maternal position change indicated and can often correct.

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146
Q

Early decels

A

Mirror UCs, with apparent and gradual decrease in FHR over 30 seconds or more from onset to nadir. Indicates head compression, normal finding.

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147
Q

Late decels

A

Follow UCs, with apparent and gradual decrease in FHR over 30 seconds or more from onset to nadir. Indicates placental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia, indication to turn pt to left side-lying and administer O2

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148
Q

VEAL CHOP

A

variable - cord
early - head
accelerations -okay!
late - placental

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149
Q

After cleft palate repair what precaution should be taken?

A

No hard objects in mouth (pacifiers, instruments, tongue depressors, etc)

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150
Q

Reassuring fetal movement frequency

A

4/hour or 10/2 hours

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151
Q

Sustained fetal bradycadia/tachycardia

A

<110 BPM or >160 BPM for more than 10 minutes

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152
Q

Ranges for immunocompromise in children

A

<750 in infants up to 12 months,
<500 in children ages 1- 5,
<200 children 5 and older

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153
Q

Consideration for immunocompromised people and vaccines

A

People showing signs of immunocompromise (i.e. CD4+ count) should not receive live-attenuated vaccines (varicella, MMR)

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154
Q

signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia

A
Uncontrollable/involuntary movements in:
Mouth -lip smacking/puckering, tongue protrusion/curling
Facial grimacing
Brow twitching/furrowing
Excessive blinking
Foot tapping
Hand wringing
Tremor/shaking
Rocking
Torticollis (persistent neck flexion/extension)
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155
Q

Neuroleptic malignancy syndrome (NMS)

A

Altered mental status, muscle rigidity, fever, autonomic instability (diaphoresis, tachypnea, htn, tachycardia, dysrhythmia). A rare condition most often seen with “typical” anti-psychotics (haloperidol, fluphenazine) but can also be seen in “atypical” antipsychotics (clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine). Tx: d/c antipsychotic, request HCP follow up.

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156
Q

Teaching to avoid lithium toxicity

A

Drink 2-3 L H20 daily, avoid diuretics like coffee, tea, soda, maintain normal sodium intake (no low sodium diet), avoid NSAIDs

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157
Q

Rescue breaths

A

If Pt has pulse but no/abnormal respiratory effort, rescue breaths should be administered every 5-6 seconds = 10-12 breaths/min for 2 minutes before reassessing. If rescue breaths have been administered and the pulse is less than 60 and there is signs (i.e. grey/blue skin) that perfusion is not happening, begin chest compressions

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158
Q

Compression to breath ratio in CPR

A

30:2

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159
Q

If alone and pt is pulseless, how long to administer CPR

A

Administer 2 minutes of CPR before leaving to activate EMS and get defibrillator

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160
Q

Survival expectancy cut off for full thickness burns

A

Pts with full thickness burns greater than 60% of body are not expected to survive

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161
Q

OTC meds which can increase BP

A

Should be avoided in pts with HTN: high sodium antacids, appetite suppressants, cold and sinus preparations

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162
Q

SIADH

A

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone, often caused by ectopic secretion of ADH from a malignant lung tumor. Causes an increase in water absorption, excessive intra and extra cellular fluid, HYPERvolemia, and dilutional HYPOnatremia.

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163
Q

SIADH appropriate tx

A

Requires HYPERtonic solition eg. 3% NaCl in small quantities to help fluid shift and correct hyponatremia

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164
Q

Examples of isotonic solutions

A

0.9% NaCl, lactated ringers

Used to replace intravascular fluid, losses associated with vomiting, diarrhea, burns, trauma.

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165
Q

Examples of hypertonic solutions

A

3% NaCl (or more % saline)

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166
Q

Examples of hypotonic solutions

A

0.45% NaCl (or less % saline) or 5% dextrose solution

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167
Q

First degree heart block

A

Look at space between P and QRS. If it longer than 1/2 a big box, consider a 1st degree
“if the R is far from P, then you have a first degree” –in first degree block, the PR interval is longer than 0.20 seconds

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168
Q

Second degree heart block type I

A

“longer, longer, longer, drop! Then you have a Wenkebach” –in Mobitz Type I, the PR interval progressively lengthens until a beat is dropped, and then the process resumes again.
“March out” the P waves –they’re regular because the atrial rate is regular but the P to QRS interval lengthens and then occasionally the QRS drops out entirely

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169
Q

Second degree heart block type II

A

“If some Ps don’t get through, then you have a Mobitz II” –in Mobitz Type II, the PR interval remains constant/no lengthening but occasionally, the QRS complex doesn’t happen. Look for multiple Ps in a row with no QRS complex.

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170
Q

Third degree heart block

A

LETHAL RHYTHM “If Qs and Ps do not agree, then you have a third degree” –Atrial signals are not getting through, ventricle is generating escape impulse independently of atria, so atria is beating 60-100 BPM and ventricles beating 30-45 BPM asynchronously. Looks like a weird P-QRST with occasional long intervals between complexes. This is a high priority finding due to risk of decompensation into cardiogenic shock or periods of asystole. Tx atropine and temp pacing until permanent pacemaker can be placed.

Ps might be hidden behind Ts making them a little larger collectively, Ps are regular.
QRS are also regular. March out both to notice where the Ps are hidden behind the Ts. The atrial and ventricular rates are not coordinated at all.

Note: easy to confuse with 1st degree

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171
Q

Congenital dermal melanocytosis AKA

A

mongolian spots. Fade over first 1-2 years of life, document size and location so they are not confused with bruising.

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172
Q

Linezolid (Zyvox)

A

Oxazolidinone antibiotic for vancomycin and methicillin resistant bacteria, pneumonia, and skin infections. Cannot be used with SSRIs or food/drink containing tyramine because of the drug’s MAOI-type properties which increase risk of serotonin syndrome. SSRIs and tyramine containing foods can be started again 24 hours after stopping linezolid.

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173
Q

Considerations for gentamycin

A

Like vancomycin, gentamycin should be monitored for s/sx of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Check BUN and creatinine and measure urine output.

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174
Q

Age range for cervical cancer screening

A

Screen all cervix-having people between ages 21-65 regardless of age at onset of sexual activity. Screen every 3 years ages 21-29

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175
Q

What drugs necessitate monitoring for Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

Allopurinol, anticonvulsants (like carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phyenytoin), and sulfa drugs

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176
Q

S/sx of epiglottis in 3-7 year olds

A

acute respiratory distress, toxic appearance (sitting up, leaning forward, drooling), stridor, and high fever, tachycardia and tachypnea. This is a pediatric emergency requiring endotracheal intubation and possible tracheostomy.

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177
Q

Normal, non-therapeutic INR range

A

0.75 - 1.25 –mildly elevated in cirrhosis pts is to be expected due to liver damage

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178
Q

Opioid agonist-antagonist meds used in labor

A

Butorphanol tartrate (stadol) and Nalbuphrine hydrochloride (nubain) are appropriate for clients in active labor, not wishing to ambulate, and no contraindications (imminent birth, opioid dependence). Can result in respiratory depression of newborn because these drugs cross placental barrier. Peaks 30-60 min after administration, and lasts 2-4 hours.

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179
Q

Bell Palsy

A

Unilateral peripheral facial paralysis due to inflammation of the facial nerve (CN VII) in absence of a stroke or other cause. S/sx inability to completely close eye on affected side, alteration in tear production (excessive or absent), flattened nasolabial fold on nose, inability to smile/frown symmetrically, loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue.

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180
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Affecting CN V, shock-like pain in lips, gums, severe pain along cheek bone

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181
Q

Weight loss over what percentage of birthweight in first 5 days requires follow up?

A

More than 7%

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182
Q

Tet spell

A

Hypercyanotic episode in infants or children with tetrology of fallot. Infants should be placed in knee chest position, children will often get into squatting position. This provides relief of dyspnea by reducing volume of blood being shunte through the overriding aorta and VSD.

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183
Q

Serious side effects of tamoxifen

A

Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used in treatment/prevention of estrogen-positive breast caner. Serious side effects include thromboembolic events and endometrial cancer.

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184
Q

What is trousseau’s sign and how is it elicited?

A

An early sign of hypocalcemia, observed by placing a BP cuff on the arm and inflating it to above the most recent systolic pressure. Leave on for 3 minutes. This obstructs the brachial artery and induces a spasm of hand and forearm muscles if hypocalcemic.

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185
Q

What is Chovstek’s sign and how is it elicited.

A

A sign of hypocalcemia, oberved by tapping face at the angle of the jaw and observing for facial contraction.

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186
Q

IV catheter gauge

A

14g for administration of fluids/meds in emergency/field settings and hypovolemic shock
18g for blood or large qty fluids in adults
20/22g for general IV and meds. 20 is acceptable for blood but not ideal.
24g children and elderly pts with small fragile veins

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187
Q

Suddent onset of left upper quadrant pain can indicate

A

Spleen rupture –a possible complication of Epstein Barr (mononucleosis) infection

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188
Q

Abrupt cessation of central acting alpha2 agonists or -beta blockers can cause what?

A

Abrupt stop of clonidine or methyldopa (CAA2A) or -olol (beta blockers) can lead to rebound hypertension. Drugs should be tapered down, not stopped abruptly.

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189
Q

High levels of PEEP can lead to what complications?

A

High PEEP (10-20 cm H20) can cause barotrauma of the lung (overdistension or rupture of alveoli) leading to pneumothorax or subcutaneous emphysema. Decreased venous return can also cause hypotension.

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190
Q

1 TBSP = ? mL

A

15 mL in 1 TBSP

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191
Q

If a question asks whether an ABG is compensated or NOT compensated and the ABG is partially compensated what is the correct answer?

A

Not compensated, because it is not FULLY compensated

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192
Q

Hypertonic total enteral feeds can cause what complication? What is the treatment?

A

hypertonic TEF can cause N/V/D due to higher osmolality, similar to dumping syndrome. Slow the rate of administration and it will usually correct, and then you can taper up the rate to the goal rate.

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193
Q

What is crutch paralysis

A

Muscle weakness/sensory symptoms of forearm/wrist/hand caused by continuous/prolonged excessive pressure on axillae and radial nerve damage due to use of crutches that are too long/not ambulating correctly on the crutches.

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194
Q

Rhythms appropriate for defibrillation

A

Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia, SVT if not responsive to adenosine

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195
Q

Rhythms NOT appropriate for defibrillation

A

Asystole

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196
Q

Ryhthms appropriate for synchronized cardioversion

A

Supraventricular tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia with pulse, atrial fibrillation with RVR

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197
Q

Ideal contraction strength

A

25 -50 mm Hg, should never exceed 80 mm Hg

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198
Q

Resting uterine tone in mm Hg

A

average 10 mm Hg should never exceed 20 mm Hg. After amnioinfusion, expect resting tone to remain equal to or greater than 20 mmHg and observe for fluid leaking, otherwise suspect uterine overdistension.

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199
Q

Proper technique for cane walking, up/down stairs

A

Cane always moves before the bad leg: cane, bad leg, good leg for flat surfaces.
Stairs: Up with the good and down with the bad –cane, good, bad for up stairs, cane, bad, good, for down stairs.

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200
Q

What are considerations re: IVPB Potassium?

A

it should NEVER be given by gravity –must be provided by pump. It is a vessicant so must monitor site. Monitor renal labs and function (urine output). Max PIV rate is 10 mEq/hr and max concentration is 40 mEq/L otherwise needs to be given via central line.

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201
Q

Typical developmental milestones by age 1

A

Can sit from standing without assistance, birth weight should have roughly tripled, pincer grasp.

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202
Q

Presbyopia

A

Inability to see close objects clearly

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203
Q

In elderly patients what is considered febrile?

A

Lower body temp means lower febrile cut off. 37.8 C / 100.2 F is considered febrile

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204
Q

Appropriate fluid resuscitation for burn victims

A

Lactated Ringers

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205
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

RF is an acute inflammatory disease of the heart, occurs 2-3 weeks after a streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) due to delayed onset of autoimmune reaction

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206
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome

A

Oncologic emergency, causes HYPERkalemia, HYPERuricemia, HYPERphosphatemia, HYPOcalcemia. Requires aggressive rehydration, electrolyte correciton (loop diruetics and phosphate binders) and hypouricemic agents (like allopurinol)

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207
Q

TB test reading

A

Positive: induration greater than or equal to 15 mm in a healthy person, greater than or equal to 10 mm in a potential risk person or with mild immunosuppression, greater than or equal to 5 mm in a high risk person. If positive, ask about bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine which lessens receptivity to TB but causes false positive results.

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208
Q

1000 mcg =

A

1 mg

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209
Q

1000 mg =

A

1 g

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210
Q

Rapid acting insulins and OPD

A

Rapid = “logs” humalog, novolog. Onset 15 min, peak 1 hour, duration 3 hours. Give WITH meals.

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211
Q

Short acting insulins and OPD

A

Short = regular = R. Onset 30 min, peak 2 hours, duration 8 hours. Can be run in IV.

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212
Q

Intermediate acting insulins and OPD

A

Intermediate = NPH. Humulin. “N” Onset 2 hours, peak 8 hours, duration 16 hours. Never put anything cloudy in a bag.

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213
Q

Long acting insulins and OPD

A

Long = Levemir, lantus. Glargine. Onset 2 hours, peak NONE, duration 24 hours. Never mix with other insulins. Can be given at same time, as separate injecton. The only insulin safe to give at bedtime.

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214
Q

Neonatal abstinence syndrome s/sx

A

withdrawal from opiates: irritability, hypertonia, jittery, seizures, diarrhea, vomiting, feeding intolerance, sweating, sneezing, pupillary dilation

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215
Q

Drug to reverse benzodiazapine overdose

A

Flumazenil

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216
Q

Normal central venous pressure

A

2-8 mm Hg. If elevated can indicate R ventricular failure or fluid volume overload

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217
Q

Normal MAP

A

70 -105 mm Hg

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218
Q

Normal systemic vascular resistance

A

800-1200 dynes/sec/cm-5

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219
Q

Most severe complication of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Severe hypertension

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220
Q

Narrowing pulse pressure is a sign of

A

hypovolemic shock

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221
Q

Chronic mitral valve regurgitation consideration

A

Often asymptomatic but can develop into heart failure so s/sx of heart failure should be monitored for: pulmonary edema due to L to R backflow, causing dyspnea and orthopnea. Fatigue due to decreased cardiac output. Atrial fibrillations/palpations due to enlargement of L atria.

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222
Q

Scleroderma

A

Collagen overproduction causing tightening/hardening of the skin and connective tissues. Progressive disease with no cure –management of complications is only option. Renal crisis is a possible complication causing malignant hypertension –life threatening

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223
Q

Desmopressin in DM

A

Increased risk of water intoxication and hyponatremia. Symptoms: headache, change in LOC, muscle weakness.

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224
Q

Expected labs in cirrhosis

A

Elevated: ammonia, bilirubin, PTT
Decreased: albumin and sodium

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225
Q

3500 calories =

A

1 lb gain/loss

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226
Q

Chest pain is always considered

A

cardiac until proven otherwise –trumps a suspected DVT in prioritization

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227
Q

Anemia of CKD treatment

A

erythropoietin

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228
Q

Considerations in administration of erythropoietin

A

BP must be checked prior to administration as an adverse effect of erythropoetin is hypertension. Uncontrolled HTN is a contraindication of administration. Also held if Hgb is greater than 11

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229
Q

How is erythropoetin administered

A

subcu or IV

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230
Q

Elevted AST/ALT indicates what and is caused by?

A

hepatic cell injury (hepatitis). Can be due to EtOH use, OTC meds like acetaminophen, herbal/dietary supplements, IV drug use (due to Hep B and C)

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231
Q

Priapism

A

Prolonged, painful erection. An emergency.

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232
Q

WBC normal range

A

4,500 - 11,000/mL

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233
Q

Side lying in pneumonia/lung patients

A

Side-lying on the GOOD side decreases hypoxia by increasing perfusion to the healthy lung, but does NOT increase secretion clearance.

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234
Q

Gastric pH measurement from NG tube purpose

A

confirms correct placement prior to feed

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235
Q

Von Willebrand disease

A

Genetic bleeding disorder that decreases coagulation due to inadequate von Willebrand factor. Must monitor for signs/symptoms of bleeding and avoid medications that exacerbate bleeding (aspirin, NSAIDs)

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236
Q

Bronchodilator respiratory medications

A

BAM
Beta2 agonists -terols
Anticholinergics -pium (decrease mucus production)
Methyxanthines -phylline (increase heart rate, expand lungs, like caffeine)

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237
Q

Anti-inflammatory respiratory medications

A

SLM
Steroids -sone must taper off!
Leukast, Leukotrine receptor agonists. Leukotrines stablized so bronchi and bronchioles relax. example Singulair -montelukast sodium (Luke likes to sing)
Mast cell stabilizers -stabilizes mast cells to reduce swelling. Example Cromolyn. Think “Mass of chrome”

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238
Q

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

A

Kayexolate. Helpful for mild to moderate hyperkalemia. Has risk for intestinal necrosis, requires regular bowel function assessment.

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239
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia

A

Looks like a regular tachycardia but with narrow QRS and shortened PR interval and possibly hidden P –look for combined P and T with fast rate. If I have something tachy and can’t distinguish P from T = SVT. Can be caused by stimulants or heart disease.

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240
Q

Diseases appropriate for droplet precautions

A

N. Meningitidis, Influenza B, Diptheria, Mumps, Rubella, Pertussis, Group A strep (strep throa), viral influenza

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241
Q

What precautions are taken for droplet precautions

A

Surgical mask and private room, gown, gloves, googles/face shield used if risk for splash/body fluid contact

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242
Q

Aceytlcysteine

A

Loosens/liquifies respiratory secretions in CF or other respiratory patients. Has no effect on smooth muscle and can cause/worsen bronchospasm = contraindicated in asthma patients

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243
Q

Significant increase in BP in pregnancy

A

Equal to or greater than 30 mmHg systolic or equal to or greater than 15 mmHg diastolic. even in the absense of HTN/symptoms, assess proteinuria, HA, RUQP.

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244
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Bulge in abdominal aorta due to increased pressure. Can manifest as a pulsative periumbilical mass. Risks: male, over 65, CAD, PVD, HTN, smoking hx, family history, Manifests as acute onset abdominal pain radiating to the back, drop in systolic pressure, increase in pulse, weak pulse, pallor. Life threatening emergency.

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245
Q

Thiazide diuretics and spironolactone

A

Spironolactone when combined with a thiazide diuretic prevents hypokalemia in pts with normal K levels

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246
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl, used to treat Parkinsons and other diseases but can cause urinary retention and can precipitate acute glaucoma and should not be used in patients with BPD or glaucoma.

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247
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

Hypertrophy of pyloric muscle causes postprandial projectile vomiting due to obstruction at gastric outlet. Palpate olive shaped mass to the right of the umbilicus. Vomiting is non-bilious (whatever is eaten is vomited) and leads to progressive dehydration and results in hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Hemoconcentration due to dehydration results in elevated hematocrit and BUN.

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248
Q

Hydroclorothiazide can cause

A

Thiazides are potassium wasting diuretics, and can cause hypokalemia

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249
Q

Physiologic compensation for metabolic acidosis

A

Rapid breathing to blow off more CO2

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250
Q

Loction of injury, classic symptoms and intervention for neurogenic shock

A

T6 and higher thoracic and cervical injuries can result in neurogenic shock which presents as hypotension, bradycardia, pink dry skin due to massive vasodilation. Treat with isotonic solution to maintain perfusion to organs, especially kidneys.

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251
Q

signs of cardiac tamponade

A

Becks triad: low BP, especially large decrease in systolic pressure in short period of time, JVD, quiet heart sounds. Also narrowed pulse pressure, pulsus paradoxus, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia.

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252
Q

Location of the phlebostatic axis

A

Level of atria at 4th ICS, 1/2 anterior-posterior diameter (midaxillary line)

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253
Q

Locations of heart sounds

A

Aortic –2nd intercostal space, pt’s right sternal border
Pulmonic –2nd intercostal space, pt’s left sternal border
Erb’s point –3rd intercostal space, pt’s left sternal border
Tricuspid –4th intercostal space, pt’s left sternal border
Mitral –5th intercostal space, mid clavicular line –this is the APEX/place for APICAL pulse/point of maximal impulse (PMI)

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254
Q

How is elevated BNP is used

A

BNP >100 pg/ml is used to distinguish cardiac cause of dyspnea from respiratory causes

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255
Q

Tinea corporis and tinea capitis

A

Ring worm. highly contagious fungal infection
Corporis – body
Capitis –scalp

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256
Q

Mnemonic for cranial nerve functions

A
I Some (sensory)
II Say (sensory)
III Marry (motor)
IV Money (motor)
V But (both)
VI My (motor)
VII Brother (both)
VIII Says (sensory)
IX Bad (both)
X Business (both)
XI Marry (motor)
XII Money (motor)
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257
Q

What precautions are appropriate for varicella zoster

A

N95 and gloves and gown, negative pressure room until lesions are dry and crusted (no longer contagious at that point)

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258
Q

ACE inhibitors side effects

A

dry unproductive cough. Cough stops with med discontinuation. Hypotension, tachycardia, angioedema, hyperkalemia.

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259
Q

NCLEX position on HIV positive mothers breastfeeding

A

they should not in developed countries where formula is available

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260
Q

Cephalosporin administration in pts with penicillin allergies

A

e.g. cephalexin. Can have a cross allergic reaction. If hx of anaphalaxis d/t penicillin, cephalosporin should not be administered. If reaction was rash or other mild reaction to penicillin, HCP may decide to administer cephalosporin anyway.

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261
Q

Maximum time a bottle of solution can be open and used before it needs to be discarded

A

24 hours

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262
Q

Decerebrate and decorticate position

A

Decerebrate –the more serious of the two. Arms and legs straight out and toes pointed down, head/neck arched back
Decorticate –bent arms, clenched fists, arms bent in toward body, legs out straight

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263
Q

DKA treatment parameters

A

NS fluid bolus. Rehydration with normal saline and IV insulin to bring down blood glucose. IV insulin is titrated down as the blood glucose returns to an acceptable range and may be discontinued when it is below 200 mg/dl. IV potassium will be administered even if normokalemic to prevent common complication of hypokalemia d/t insulin causing shift of K from intravascular to cellular space and resulting life threatening arrythmias that can result.

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264
Q

Risks for fat embolism

A

Long bone fracture –look for dypnea/confusion/decreased Sp02, petichiae on trunk

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265
Q

Calcium channel blockers ending and common side effects

A

-ipine –vasodilators so cause decrease in blood pressure and can result in dizziness, flushing, headache, peripheral edema, and constipation. Can initially cause orthostatic hypotension so pt teaching should include slow position changes.

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266
Q

Tetracyclines teaching

A

Take on an empty stomach, avoid iron supplements, dairy and antacids, take with a full glass of water and remain upright after taking to reduce chances of pill induced stomach upset (i.e. don’t take at bedtime), can cause photosensitivity, and it decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives so another method must be used while taking.

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267
Q

Upward progressing abdominal pain

A

is a bad sign, warrants reporting to HCP

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268
Q

Parkland formula

A

4 ml x body weight in kg x percentage of body burned = 24 hours fluids. 50% is given in the first 8 hours and 50% over the next 16 hours so pay attention to the question wording.

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269
Q

Rule of 9s

A
9% head and neck
18% anterior torso
18% posterior torso (36% total trunk)
9% right arm
9% left arm 
1% genitals
18% right leg
18% left leg
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270
Q

Hospice vs palliative care

A

Palliative focuses on quality of life and managemnet of symptoms. Can be given even with curative or life-extending treatment in the setting of a terminal diagnosis. Involves a multidisciplinary care team for the pt and family. Hospice is started when treatment is discontinued. Palliative is not limited to a specific time frame re: life expectancy.

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271
Q

Considerations re: treatment of syphilis in pregnancy

A

IV penicillin is the only acceptable treatment in pregnancy. If pt is allergic, penicillin desensitization must be anticipated.

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272
Q

Crepitus

A

Grating noise/sensation heard or palpated with movement due to bone and cartilage fragments in joint space

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273
Q

Kussmaul breathing

A

Compensatory respiratory pattern for metabolic acidosis –think “MAcKussmaul”

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274
Q

If pt on ventilator and respiratory alkalosis what does that mean?

A

Respirator ventilation is set too high and they are being over-ventilated

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275
Q

If pt on ventilator and respiratory acidosis what does that mean?

A

Respirator ventilation is set too low and they are being under-ventilated

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276
Q

Calcium channel blockers are like

A

valium for the heart –calms things down. Good for tachycardia, tachy-arrhythmia,

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277
Q

Anything called “neg x-otrophic” =

A

Cardiac depressants. Calm the heart down. For the A, AA, and AAA: Antihypertensive, antianginal, anti-atrial arrythmias

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278
Q

Anything called “pos x-otrophic”

A

Cardiac stimulants

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279
Q

-dipine ending

A

Calcium channel blocker –“dipping in the calcium channel”

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280
Q

What must be measured/what parameters considered prior to Ca Channel blocker?

A

Measure BP, hold if systolic lower than 100. Cardizem can be given continuous IV drip and must be titrated to keep systolic BP above 100 so BP must be taken regularly.

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281
Q

Periodic wide QRS =

A

PVCs
Look like a normal rhythm then a sudden wide QRS complex without a P.
Unifocal –look the same (from a single ectopic source)
Multifocal –look different (from multiple ectopic sources)

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282
Q

Collection of PVCs =

A

short run of V-tach

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283
Q

PVCs are a low priority except when

A

more than 6/min or more than 6 in a row or it PVC calls on T before (R on T), then MODERATE priority. NEVER high priority. PVCs AFTER an MI is GOOD.

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284
Q

Ventricular arrythmia meds

A

(old) = lidocaine. Think V = L.

(new) = amniodarone. Think V = A

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285
Q

Atrial arryhtmia meds

A

ABCDs (Adena-Beta-Calca-Dig)
A -Adenocard/adenosine (FAST push of 1-2 seconds followed by 20 mL saline flush)
B -Beta blockers (lols) –neg x-otrophics. SE: hypotension and headahce
C -Calcium channel blockers
D -digitalis/digoxin/lanoxin

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286
Q

V-Fib treatment

A

D-fib

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287
Q

Asystole treatment

A

Epinephrine then atropine (think AsystolE, reversed)

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288
Q

Chest tube placements

A

High = air (apical)
Low = blood (basilar)
Assume chest surgery or trauma is UNILATERAL unless otherwise specified

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289
Q

If something compromises chest tube, what are appropriate steps

A

Clamp, cut if necessary, place in sterile water, unclamp. NEVER clamp for longer than 15 seconds without an order.

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290
Q

Bubbling in water seal appropriate/inappropriate

A
Intermittent = good (document)
Continuous = bad (leak --needs tape)
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291
Q

Bubbling in suction control appropriate/inappropriate

A
Intermittent = bad (suction too low, increase it)
Continuous = good (document)
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292
Q

Congenital heart defects

A

All are TRouBLe or no trouble
T -all defects starting in T = trouble
RL –right to left = trouble
B –blue = cyanotic

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293
Q

4 defects of tetrology of fallot

A

VarieD PictureS Of A RancH
or
Valentines Day Pick Someone Out A Red Heart

Vendricular Defect
Pulmonary Stenosis
Overriding Aorta
Right Hypertrophy

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294
Q

Contact precautions

A

Anything enteric (fecal oral) plus RSV (which is actually droplet but contact), Staph, Herpes (including shingles)

295
Q

Airborne precautions

A

MMR, TB (droplet but airborne), VZ

296
Q

PPE order putting on

A

Gown
Mask
Googles
Gloves

297
Q

PPE order taking off

A

Gloves
Goggles
Gown
Mask

298
Q

Drop factor formula

A

V x drop factor divided by time in minutes
Micro = 60 drops
Macro = 10 drops

299
Q

What acid base imbalance results from prolonged gastric issues (vomiting/suctioning)

A

Metabolic alkalosis because their acid is being depleted. But once they are dehydrated think acidosis.

300
Q

What does the protein pad on a urine dipstick measure?

A

Albumin in urine

301
Q

What is the first protein typically seen in kidney dysfunction?

A

Albumin

302
Q

B6 deficiency can cause

A

often due to medication interactions –peripheral neuropathy such as ataxia and paresthesia (numbness, burning sesnation, tingling hands/feet)

303
Q

What is murphy’s sign

A

Right upper quadrant pain referring to right shoulder/scapula due to cholecystitis or cholestasis

304
Q

What is cholecystits?

A

inflammation of the mucus lining and wall of gallbladder, can be due to bacterial colonization or irritation. Often experienced after eating fatty foods, low grade feer, chills, N/V/anorexia.

305
Q

What is cholestasis?

A

decrease in bile flow due to obstruction or decrease in secretion

306
Q

Functions of the parietal lobe, when impaired what is affected?

A

Somatic/sensory input

when impaired, sensation deficit

307
Q

Functions of the frontal lobe, when impaired what is affected?

A

Higher order processing, executive function, personality

When impaired, behavioral change

308
Q

Functions of the temporal lobe, when impaired what is affected?

A

Visual/auditory, past experiences

When impaired, cannot understand verbal/written language

309
Q

Functions of the occipital lobe, when impaired what is affected?

A

Visual images

When impaired, visual deficit

310
Q

When are back blows and chest thrusts appropriate vcs abdominal thrusts?

A

Back blows and chest thrusts for children under 1

Abdominal thrusts for children and people over 1

311
Q

Isotretinoin

A

also known as accutane. Derived from Vitamin A, The patient should not take additional vitamin A, donate blood, take with tetracycline, and must use 2 forms of birth control

312
Q

What is important re: timing of narcotics administration in labor?

A

Give at peak of contraction

313
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A

Aka ALS –Lou Gherig’s Disease. A neurodegenerative disease without a cure. Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in brain and spinal cord. Results in progressive muscle weakness and difficulty swallowing, speaking. Eventually leads to respiratory failure. Life expectancy 3-5 years.

314
Q

Systemic Lupus

A

Autoimmune disease, inflammation. Expect elevated creatinine, BUN, abnormal UA due to lupus nephritis

315
Q

Elevated ereythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

> 30 mm/hr = active inflammatory process, expected in inflammatory diseases

316
Q

Positive antinuclear antibody titer

A

> 1:40 = body is producing antibodies against its own DNA/nuclear materal. Expected in autoimmune diseases.

317
Q

Acute pericarditis expected signs/symptoms and what to monitor for

A

Monitor for cardiac tamponade signs (JVD, distant heart sounds, hypotension. Expected: ST elevation, friction rub, pain on inspriation

318
Q

What residual value may indicate urine retention

A

> 100 mL

319
Q

What is Reye syndrome

A

Follows a recent viral infection, esp. varicella zoster or influenza. Causes acute encephalophy and hepatic dysfucntion –Fever, lethargy, increased serum ammonia, vomiting, change in LOC, seizures, coma. Increased risk for Reye syndrome if aspirin used in management of tx for virus, esp in Kawasaki’s patients.

320
Q

How do you estimate Hct or Hgb from a single value

A

Hgb is roughly 1/3 of Hct.

321
Q

What is the key teaching around Antabuse/Revia/Disulfiram

A

it is aversion therapy for EtoH treatmnet. Takes 2 weeks before it is effective and takes 2 weeks to leave the system. Must avoid ANYTHING containing ANY alcohol: mouthwash/aftershave/perfume/insect repellant/anything that is called an exlixir/vanilla extract/some cake frostings etc.

322
Q

For expected withdrawal symptoms, what is considered?

A

For uppers, expect all down symptoms

For downers, expect all up symptoms

323
Q

For overdose symptoms, what is considered?

A

For uppers, looks like downer W/D (eg. seizure)

For downers, looks like upper D/F (e.g. respiratory arrest)

324
Q

EToH W/D vs DTs

A

All alcoholics experience withdrawal after 24 hours abstinence, not life threatening.
Delirium Tremens can (not for all) set in at 72 hours of abstinence, and it is life threatening.

325
Q

aminoglycosides

A

“A mean old mycin” an antibiotic used only when nothing else is working. For gram negative, resistant, life-threatening infections. Not all mycin are aminoglycosides –anything called -thromycin are not mycins. Nephrotoxic and ototoxic so must monitor creatinine and BUN though 24 hour creatinine clearance is best. Think mouse ears (kidneys and ears grown on mice). Given IM or IV except for when bowel needs to be sterilized –neomycin and kanmycin. Who can sterilize my bowel? Neo Kan! Also used in hepatic encephalopathy PO, because it kills e. Coli, which decreases serum ammonia level.

326
Q

When to draw trough

A

30 minutes before administration

327
Q

Peak of medications by route

A

sublingual 5-10 minutes after dissolved
IV 15-30 minutes after administration is finished
IM 30-60 minutes after administration
subcutaenous –only consider for insulin, varies)
PO –too variable to generalize

328
Q

Crutch gaits

A

2 point -move crutch and opposite foot simultaneously
3 point -move 2 crutches and bad leg
4 point -everything moves separately: crutch, opposite foot, opposite crutch, opposite foot.
Swing through -non weight bearing: plant crutches, swing bad leg and good leg through, plant good leg.
Think: even for even, odd for odd –when weakness is evenly distributed 2 for mild weakness and 4 for severe. Odd = 1 leg is affected = #3. Non weight bearing = swing through.

329
Q

Where is a cane held in relation to weakness?

A

Cane is held on the STRONG side of the body

330
Q

Proper use of walker

A

Pick up, set down away, walk to. Repeat. Tie belongings to side NOT front.

331
Q

What does the Allens test determine

A

Prior to ABG, determines patentcy of ulnar artery

332
Q

Normal albumin

A
3.5 - 5.0
if low (cirrhosis) expect fluid overload, edema, acites, weight gain
333
Q

Normal BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide)

A

<100

334
Q

What is a “harsh” systolic murmur a sign of

A

Ventricular septal defect

335
Q

What is a diastolic murmur a sign of

A

Mitral stenosis or aortic regurgitation

336
Q

What is a “machine-like” murmur a sign of

A

if heard on systole and diastole, and if pt is acyanotic, it is a sign of an open ductus arteriosis shunting blood from aorta to pulmonary arteries

337
Q

What are adventitious breath sounds

A

Abnormal sounds heard over lungs and airways (i.e. crackles, wheezes, rubs, stridor)

338
Q

What is ptosis

A

Drooping of eyelid

339
Q

What is pediculosis capitus

A

Head lice

340
Q

Are NG tube feeds or TPN preferable? Why?

A

NG preferable to TPN because maintains gut bacteria and mucosa integrity and helps prevent stress ulcers

341
Q

NPH insulin should never be administered by

A

IV push. Only regular insulin can be administered by IV push.

342
Q

Priority treatment in elevated K

A

D5 and regular insulin IV as temporary fix to push K into cells, kayexolate as longer term solution to remove K from body. Typically 50 mL D6 and 10 units insulin then kayexolate PO or PR. If ECG shows changes due to hyperkalemia, give calcium gluconate to stablize cardiac muscle first.

343
Q

Test for rH sensitization of pregnant person

A

Indirect Coombs Test

344
Q

Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein

A

screens for neural tube defects

345
Q

Parvoviruus B-19

A

Fifth disease, aka Slap cheek d/t human parvovirus. A viral illness affecting mainly school age children, distinctive red rash across cheeks, spreads to extremeties. May also accompany malaise, joint pain. NSAIDs okay for treatment. 7-10 day recovery. Key: infections only BEFORE symptoms appear. Avoid pregnant people (do not allow pregnant nurses to care for these pts) because it is a TORCH infection

346
Q

Tx for epistaxis

A

Lean head forward, upright, apply continuous pressure to nose 5-15 minutes, cold pack on bridge of nose, keep child calm.

347
Q

NPH is usually administered

A

in morning and evening –2 x per day due to long duration of action

348
Q

Oral care and suctioning of ET vented pt

A

Every 2 hours to prevent ventiliator associated pneumonia

349
Q

Carbidopa-levodopa

A

Medication used to elevate dopamine in parkinsons patients and reduce physical symptoms. Teach fall precaustions d/t orthostatic hypotension, takes several weeks for effect, can cause harmless discoloration of saliva, sweat, urine (red, brown, black). Avoid high protein diet.

350
Q

Myelomeningocele

A

Neural tube defect causing outpouching of spinal cord, nerves, fluid, covered by a thin membrane, usually in lumbar area. Cover with sterile moist dressing to protect until surgery is possible, place baby in prone position with head turned to side.

351
Q

Pulsus paradoxis

A

Exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg during inspiration

352
Q

how to calculate MAP

A

Take diastolic blood pressure, multiply it by 2, add the systolid blood pressure, and divide the result by 3.

353
Q

Signs of cardiac tamponade

A

Decrease in cardiac output, hypotension, tachypnea, tachycardia, JVD, narrowed pulse pressure, pulsus paradoxus.

354
Q

Contradindications for cardiac catheterization

A

If pt has prior dye injection reaction, additional meds may be needed to prevent. Dye is excreted through kidneys so creatinine level needs to be assessed, if elevated may be contraindicated. Metformin taken in the last 24-48 hours can cause lactic acidosis.

355
Q

Tonsilectomy post op care

A

monitor for signs of bleeding: frequent swallowing, throat clearing, vomiting bright red blood. Do NOT use straws. Do NOT suction. Expect: ear pain, low grade fever, superficial infection causing halitosis usually self limiting 5-10 days.

356
Q

Hip replacement significant risk/priority assessment

A

Excessive bleeding –assess blood loss first.

357
Q

Holosystolic murmur

A

heard throughout systole at left lower sternal border = sign of VSD

358
Q

Single transverse palmar crease

A

sign of trisomy 21

359
Q

Pursed lip breathing

A

inhale through nose 2 seconds, exhale through pursed lips 4 seconds. Helps decrease shortness of breath, prevent airway collapse, blow off CO2, reduce air trapped in alveoli to reduce work of breathing for COPD patients

360
Q

Pacemaker precautions

A

Avoid MRI, don’t place cell phone over, tell airport security, walk straight through theft detection devices in stores, don’t linger. Take pulse daily, report fever/redness/swelling/draining, do not lift arm above shoulder until HCP approves.

361
Q

Erectile dysfunction drug contraindication

A

if pt is taking any nitrates

362
Q

Glargine should never be

A

mixed with any other type of insulin. it can be given concurrently, but only as a separate injection

363
Q

Proton pump inibitors

A

-prazoles decrease calcium absorbtion = increased risk of osteoperosis and increased risk of c. diff due to supporession of acid in upper GI, and increased risk of pneumonia. Take additional calcium and Vit D.

364
Q

Insulin expiration dates

A

Only good when vial is unopened. Once open, only good for 30 days. Must label date opened, and new date of expiration. Should probably refridgerate unopened insulin, no need to refrigerate open insulin. Must teach pts to refridgerate insulin though.

365
Q

Hypoglycemia in DM is almost always due to

A

over medication. Looks like drunk + shock

366
Q

Tx for hypoglycemia

A

Rapid metabolized carb plus starch or protein. Soda plus crackers, skim milk, soda and a slice of turkey.
At home, unresponsive, give glucagon IM. in ER D10 or D50 (not D5)

367
Q

DKA

A

Most common cause: SUDDEN, acute viral upper respiratory infection in the past 2 weeks in younger insulin-dependent people. Dehydrated. Three Ks: ketones in blood confirms dx. Kussmal breathing. High K. Three A: Acidosis (MacKussmal). Acid breath (fruity). Anorexia due to nausea. Tx: fast 200 mL/hour NS, regular insulin in bag, monitor K.

368
Q

HHNK

A

Hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketotic crisis: dehydration in non-insulin-dependent (T2DM) older people due to illness or infection. Blood glucose much higher than in DKA. More gradual onset than DKA. No ketones, no kussmal breathing –Normal blood pH (no metabolic acidosis) Mental status changes d/t dehydration/hyperosmolar state. Tx is the same as DKA –Normal saline, plus regular insulin in the bag, and monitor K.

369
Q

HbA1c levels

A

6 and lower in control
7 to 7.9 need more eval
8 and higher out of control

370
Q

Toxic range of lithium

A

toxic at 2 and above

371
Q

Digoxin therapeuti range and toxic range

A

therapeutic 1-2,

toxic 2 and greater

372
Q

Aminophylline therapeutic range and toxic range

A

therapeutic 10-20

toxic 20 and higher

373
Q

Bilirubin newborn normal levels, elevated levels

A

normal less than 10
elevated 10-20
14-15 needs hospitalization

374
Q

Dilantin/Phenytoin therapeutic, toxic ranges

A

Therapeutic 10-20

Toxic 20 or higher

375
Q

Kernicterus

A

bilirubin in the brain

376
Q

Opisthotonus

A

the position a baby assumes (hyperextension) when kernicteric –position baby on their side

377
Q

Physiologic jaundice vs pathologic jaundice

A

Physiologic develops a few days after birth due to breakdown of maternal RBCs. Pathologic appears at birth or within 24 hours.

378
Q

Hypothyroidsim

A

Think metabolism. Hypo = everything is metabolically DOWN –slow metabolism = obese, low energy, flat affect, low pulse, low blood pressure, slow, myxedema –severely advanced hypothyroidism. Cold all the time, so heat tolerant and cold intolerant. HASHIMOTOS
Tx: thyroid hormone. Do not sedate them, never hold thyroid meds without clarifying order

379
Q

Hyperthryroidism

A

Think metabolism. Hyper = everything is metabolically UP. Fast metabolism = skinny. High anxiety, high energy, fast pulse, high BP, bulging eyes (exopthalamos). GRAVES DISEASE. Run yourself into the grave.
Tx:
1. radioactive iodine –pt must be by themselves for 24 hours no visitation, flush toilet a LOT, hazmat team if urine spills.
2. Propylthyouricil (puts thyroid under) –cancer drug causes immunosuppression so watch WBC count.
3. Thyroidectomy –removal of all or part of thyroid but need thyroid replacement for life if total, and subtotal have risk for thyroid storm.

380
Q

Post op considerations for thyroidectomy

A

First 12 hours airway, then hemorrhage
After 12 hours and less than 48 hours tetany is major risk for total thyroidectomy. For subtotal thyroidectomy major risk is thyroid storm.
After 48 hours, infection is biggest risk

381
Q

Thyroid storm s/sx, tx

A
Super high temp
Super high BP
Severe tachycardia
Psychotic delirium 
Tx: get temp down, get oxygen up. Put ice packs and or cooling blankets, oxygen at 10L. it is a self limiting condition, no meds given, just attempting to spare the brain until it corrects. Requires 2 nurses to manage.
382
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

UNDER secretion of adrenal cortex.
S/sx: hyperpigmentation (look tan in skin folds, buccal area, palmar creases) and or vitiligo, weight loss, muscle weakness, low BP, hypoglycemia. These pts do not adapt to stress. Normal stress response raises glucose and blood pressure to support brain. So without that support, in stress, person goes into shock.
Give steroids to treat.
ADD a SONE

383
Q

Cushing’s Disease

A

OVER secretion of adrenal cortex. Cushy bank account = extra
S/sx: (memorization of this gives you all signs of bushings and all side effects of steroid meds)
Draw a little man: Cush man
Moon face
Beard —hirsutism
Bump on front and bump on back
truncal obesity
Bump on the front —gynecomastia —female type breasts on men
Bump on the back —buffalo hump
Skinny arms and skinny legs d/t muscle atrophy
Water and sodium retention, potassium loss
Striae
HIGH GLUOSE —most important hyperglycemia like a diabetic
Extremely easy to bruise
Speech bubble: “I am mad, I have an infection”—grouchy/irritable, and immunosuppressed

384
Q

Cervical laminectomy

A

Check diaphragm and arm movement. Risk of pneumonia and arm weakness.

385
Q

Thoracic laminectomy

A

Check cough and bowels. Risk of pneumonia and ileus. Anterior thoracic laminectomy will have chest tubes

386
Q

Lumbar laminectomy

A

Check bladder and leg function. Risk of urinary retention and leg weakness

387
Q

How to move laminectomy patients

A

Log roll, do not dangle, no sitting longer than 30 minutes, may walk/stand/lie down without restriction

388
Q

Relationship to pH and patient status

A

Where the pH goes, so goes my paitent. If pH is going down, assess vitals. pH in 6s is emergent, death imminent. Dr must come to treat underlying cause.

389
Q

Hemoglobin normal range

A

12-18 to cover all humans
8-11 assess for anemia, bleeding, malnutrition
Below 8 assess for bleeding, prep for transfusion, call provider

390
Q

CO2 normal range

A

35-45
46-59 assess respirations, prepare for pursed lip breathing to blow off excess
Over 60 is emergent, respiratory failure. Assess respirations, prepare for intubation/ventilation, call RT and provider.

391
Q

Hematocrit normal range

A

36-54 (3 x Hgb)

Over 54 assess dehydration

392
Q

PO2 normal range

A

78 -100
Low 70s assess respirations, prepare supplemental O2
60s and lower =emergent, assess respirations, give O2, prepare for intubation/ventilation, call RT and provider.
In hypoxia, HR speeds up FIRST, then RR goes up –treat episodic tachycardia with oxygen and IV fluids

393
Q

When does a pt need to be intubated and ventilated

A

when Co2 in the 60s and PO2 in the 60s

394
Q

O2 sat range

A

normal 93-100%

less than 93% is of concern, assess, give O2

395
Q

what invalidates SpO2

A

Anemia makes the SpO2 look much higher than they are. Dye procedure in the last 48 hours also affects reading and falsely elevates reading.

396
Q

Na normal range

A

135-145
If high, assess for dehydration
If low, assess for fluid volume overload
If sodium is abonormal AND change in LOC, a safety issue for the patient.

397
Q

Total WBC normal range

A

Total 5,000 - 11,00

398
Q

ANC normal range

A

Above 500

399
Q

CD4 normal range

A

Above 200

Below 200 –AIDS

400
Q

Trigger values for thrombocytopenic precautions

A

Below 90,000 place on bleeding precautions

Below 40,000 emergent

401
Q

RBCs

A

4-6 million

402
Q

The 5 critical lab values

A

pH in 6s
K in the 6s

Co2 in the 60s
O2 in the 60s

platelets of less than 40,000

403
Q

During hot weather, exercise and illness, what is important for CF patients?

A

Increased salt. Due to CF’s decreased Na and Cl absorption, increased risk of dehydration and hyponatremia.

404
Q

Serious potential complication of statins

A

Rhabdomyolysis -muscle breakdown and kidney damage. S/sx muscle aches and weakness.

405
Q

Limit blood draw attempts to

A

2 x before calling in someone else

406
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

AKA insulin resistance. Increased risk of DM and CAD. Increased waist circumference (35 or greater for women, 40 or greater for men), increased BP (130 or greater systolic, 85 or greater diastolic), increased triglycerides, (greater than 150), LOW HDL (less than 40 men, less than 50 women), increased fasting blood glucose, “We Better Think High Glucose”

407
Q

Normal LDL

A

Less than 100

408
Q

Normal HDL

A

Greater than 40 men, greater than 50 women

409
Q

Single most modifiable risk factor for stroke

A

hypertension

410
Q

Spleen size and sickle cell anemia

A

Regular small splenic infarctions due to sickle cells = a small spleen in most sickle cell patients = autosplenectomy

411
Q

Splenic sequestration crisis

A

Trapped sickle cells in spleen cause enlargement = emergency due to risk of hypovolemic shock

412
Q

Myxedema coma

A

Severe hypothyroidal state that can progress to coma. Everything is DOWN except possibly hypertension (can also by hypotensive). Need emergent endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation if signs of respiratory failure.

413
Q

-pril

A

Ace inhibitors avoid in pregnant people and people planning to become pregnant due to teratrogenic properties

414
Q

-sartan

A

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) avoid in pregnant people and people planning to become pregnant due to teratrogenic properties

415
Q

Nclex position on EToH in pregnancy

A

there is NO safe amount of alcohol

416
Q

Pruritis

A

itching

417
Q

ICP patient appropriate solution

A

HYPERtonic

418
Q

Earliest sign of aspirin toxicity

A

tinnitus

419
Q

Carbon monoxide poisioning

A

Pulse ox will be falsely normal. HA, dizziness, fatigue, nausea, dyspnea. Draw serum carboxyhemoglobin = normal is less than 5% for nonsmokers, less than 10% for smokers. Need to give 100% O2.

420
Q

Mydriasis

A

Pupil dilation

421
Q

Nasopharyngeal airway

A

Maintains upper airway patency in alert or semiconscious patients. NEVER insert a nasophayngeal airway in a patient with confirmed or suspected head trauma.

422
Q

DVT treatment with heparin and warfarin

A

Will be used concurrently until INR reaches therapeutic level. Antithrombotics do not break up blood clots but prevent worsening. Antithrombolytics break up blood clots. Typical overlap of warfarin and heparin in 5 days or until therapeutic INR is reached. Warfarin BEGINS to take effect 48-72 hours after beginning treatment.

423
Q

Flu vaccines live vs inactivated

A

Inactivated are given IM or ID injection. Live attenuated are given nasally. Live is considered safe for ages 2 = 49 unless immunocompromised or pregnant. People outside these parameters should receive inactivated form. No flu shots of any kind for babies under 6 months of age.

424
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A

Potentiall lethal complication of nutritional replenishment in malnourished. Can happen with oral, enteral and parenteral feeding. Due to stimulation of insulin and shift in electrolytes. Key signs: decreased phosphorous, decreased K and OR decreased magnesium. May also have fluid volume overload, increased Na, hyperglycemia, and thiamine deficiency.

425
Q

Phosphorous normal range

A

2.4 - 4.4

426
Q

Location for auscultation for bruit over abdominal aorta

A

Above umbilicus slightly left of midline

427
Q

If ace inhibitor cannot be tolerated, what is recommended

A

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB)

428
Q

Tiotropium vs lpratropium

A

Tiotropium is a long acting anticholinergic for COPD. Inhaled capsule via handihaler –looks like an oral capsule but SHOULD NOT be taken orally. Peak effect is 1 week –not a rescue med. Not a bronchodilator –relaxes airway, does not reduce inflammaton, dries airway secretions.

Ipratropium is a SHORT acting anticholinergic and IS a rescue med for COPD and asthma

429
Q

Beta blocker side effects

A

Bradycardia, bronchospasm, hypotension, depression, impotence.

430
Q

Sulfonylureas side effects

A

Hypoglycemia, do not combine with ETOH

431
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Think drunk + shock: diaphoresis, headache, hunger, tachycardia, confusion

432
Q

Thyroid replacement drug (levothyroxine) side effects

A

Symptoms like hyperthyroidism: diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, heat intolerance

433
Q

Pill induced esophagitis

A

Take meds with at least 4 oz water and remain upright for 30 minutes or more after taking. Take with or immediately after meals. Upright, water, meals reduces gastric upset, risk of lodging in esophagus or refluxing from stomach. Important teaching for oral potassium, tetracyclines and bisphosphonates (“dronates”)

434
Q

1 oz = mL

A

30 mL

435
Q

Dysphasia related to thoracic aortic aneurysm

A

Difficulty swallowing with known thoracic aortic aneurysm can indicate aneurysm growth = needs evaluation ASAP

436
Q

Nurse only responsibilities

A

Assess, diagnose, plan, evaluate, teach ADPET

437
Q

UAP can or cannot take capillary blood glucose?

A

They CAN

438
Q

Sighted guide technique

A

If pt is legally blind, can assist them in ambulation by walking slightly ahead and having them rest their hand on your helbow,

439
Q

Suctioning protocol

A

Preoxygenate with 100% O2
Catheter should be no more than 1/2 width of artificial airway
Insert catheter without suction
Cough is expected from patient.
Insert catheter until resistance is felt, retract catheter 1 cm and then apply suction
Suction pressure should be medium (100 -120 mmHg for adults, 50-75 mmHg for children)
Suction no more than 10 seconds in a pass.
Encourage deep rebreathing
Wait 1-2 minutes before applying suction again

440
Q

Serum ammonia normal range

A

15-45

If high, expect hepatic encephalopathy: confusion, lethargy, asterixis, coma

441
Q

Normal PT

A

11-16 seconds

If prolonged, expect bruising, bleeding

442
Q

Normal PTT

A

25-35 seconds

443
Q

Normal adult bilirubin

A

0.2-1.2

If elevated expect jaundice, slceral icterus (yellow eyes), itching

444
Q

“grel” or “grelor” drugs

A

Antiplatelets

445
Q

“xaban”

A

anticoagulants

446
Q

Expectorants

A

Guiafenesin (Gough-fena-zin)
Guiaf rhymes with COUGH.
Used in non-productive cough associated with respiratory infection. Reduces viscosity of secretions and helps make cough productive.

SE: GI upset, dizziness. Pt should take with full glass of water.

447
Q

Mucolytics

A

Acetylcysteine
For pulmonary disorders with thick secretions like CF. Also an ANTIDOTE for ACETAMINOPHEN overdose.

Action: breaks down molecules in mucus to reduce viscosity.

SE: bronchospasm. Use cautious with asthma patients. N/V and rash. And smells like rotten eggs. “Starts with A, smells like A”

448
Q

Decongestants

A

Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine
“I am phed-up with my congestion.” Used for rhinitis (nasal congestion). Causes vasoconstriction of respiratory tract mucosa.

SE: nervousness, palpitations, weakness, insomnia, possible rebound congestion.

Pseudoephedrine is a key ingredient in meth so it is kept behind the counter.
Phenylephrine is usually in OTC cold meds that you can find on the shelf.

449
Q

Antihistamines

A

1st gen: diphenhydramine
2nd gen: loratadine, cetirizine

For allergy symptoms :runny nose, itchy/watery eyes, sneezing. Also used for Motion sickness and urticaria —hives.
Block H1 receptors which reduces effect of histamine in body.

1st gen side effects are more severe: sedation, anticholinergic, photosensitivity
Remember anticholinergic SE: can’t pee, can’t see, can’t spit, can’t shit.

450
Q

Corticosteroids (respiratory)

A

For respiratory —locally acting. Either inhalers or intranasal.
Beclomethasone, mometasone, budesonide, fluticasone. Use for asthma, rhinitis. Decrease inflammation locally.

SE (less than systemic steroid): HA, pharyngitis (sore throat), fungal infection. Pt must rinse mouth out to prevent fungal infection.

Bronchodilator with steroid: bronchodilator administered first, wait 5 min, then corticosteroid.

451
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

A

Montelukast, zafirlukast

Used in asthma and exercise induced bronchoconstriction. Decrease effect of leukotrienes which reduces airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction

SE: HA, and in zafirlukast may cause increase in liver enzymes. Montelukast should be taken in PM, or 2 hours before exercise.
Zafirlukast should be taken on empty stomach.

452
Q

Antitussives

A

Benzonatate, codeine, dextromethrophan
Think A: BCD

Benzonatate: has anesthetic effect on vagal nerve receptors in airway. SE: sedation, constipation, GI upset.

Codeine binds of opioid receptors in CNS and decreases cough reflex. SE: sedation, respiratory depression, hypotension, constipation, GI upset.

Dextromethorphan: suppresses cough reflex in medulla. SE: dizziness and sedation at high doses.

453
Q

Bronchodilators

A

Beta2 Adrenergic Agonists: Albuterol and salmeterol
Used in asthma, COPD, alone or in combination with glucocorticoid or anticholinergics like iprotropium. Bind to beta2 receptors in the lungs (2 lungs) and result in bronchodilation, opening airways.

SE: nervousness, tremor, chest pain, palpitations.

Albuterol —short acting beta2 adrenertic agonists so used in acute asthma attacks
Albuterol in Acute!

Salmeterol —long acting, used in prevention of asthma attacks. Salmon = long life. Salmeterol = long acting.

If using with glucocorticoid, use B2AA, wait 5 min, then use steroid. B before G.

454
Q

Xanthines

A

Theophylline
Long term control of asthma and COPD.
Increases C-amp, which increases bronchodilation.

SE: HA, GI upset, nervousness, dysrthymias, seizure. Not used as much due to SE. Need regular blood draws to monitor levels. Therapeutic 10-20

455
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Inhaled or nasal
Ipratropium
Used in COPD, rhinitis, asthma (asthma is off label). Used alone or with albuterol, (Duaneb). Relaxes smooth muscle, and has drying effects not a bronchodilator.

SE: dry mouth, bitter taste, throat irritation depending on how administered. Increase fluids, suck on candy.
Dua-neb —do not use if peanut allergy.

456
Q

Meds for HTN

A

Alpha2 Agonists
Beta1 and non selective beta blockers
Ca Channel blockers

457
Q

Calcium channel blockers

A
Treat HTN and angina 
Verapamil
Nifedipine —also treats preterm labor
Diltiazem
Remember “Very Nice Drugs"

Mode of action:
Block calcium channels in heart and blood vessels which causes vasodilation and decrease in HR

SE: peripheral edema, hypotension, bradycardia, headache, constipation

Important teaching: don’t take grapefruit juice, monitor BP and HR.

458
Q

Central acting alpha2 agonist

A

Clonadine

Decreases sympathetic outflow to heart and blood vessels, decreases heart rate and blood pressure.

Three D’s of clonaDINE —dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth

Teach: suck hard candy, chew gum for dry mouth

459
Q

Beta1 Blockers

A

HTN, angina, heart failure, myocardial infarction
Metoprolol and atenolol

“Only have 1 M.A.”

“1 heart”: Beta1 receptors are blocked and decrease blood pressure and HR

Bradycardia, hypotension, fatigue, erectile dysfunction. Also: BLACK BOX: abrupt cessation can cause angina and MI.

Teach: orthostatic hypotension get up slowly, monitor HR and BP, can mask signs of hypoglycemia

460
Q

Nonselective beta blockers

A

Affect BOTH (nonselective) Beta1 receptors in heart and Beta2 receptors in the lungs (1 heart, 2 lungs)
Propanolol, labetalol, carvedilol
“Please Listen Carefully”

Treat HTN, angina, arrhythmia, MI

Decrease HP and HR, but can cause bronchospasm due to Beta2 effect —never give to someone with asthma or issues that would be exacerbated by broncho-constriction

Fatigue, hypotension, bradycardia, ED.

461
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system

A

Renin is relased by the kidneys in response to reduced renal blood flow (low blood pressure). The reinin activates angiotensinogen to turn into angiotensin1 and angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin1 into angiotensin2. Angiotensin2 causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels, water and sodium re-absorption at the kidnets and signals release of aldosterone at adrenal cortex which ALSO causes re-absorption of water and sodium at kidneys.

462
Q

Direct renin inhibitor

A

Aliskiren
treats HTN
Inhibits renin, prevents angiotensinogen to be activated into angiotensin1. “Alice and Karin gang up on Angie”

SE: hypotension, angioedema, and GI upset. BLACK BOX: fetal toxicity

Monitor BP

463
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

—all end in -pril
When you draw an ACE you get a thrill (prill)
Block conversion of angiotensin1 to angiotensin2. Used in HTN, heart failure, myocardial infarction, diabetic nephropathy .

SE: hypotension, angioedema, dry cough, hyperkalemia. Monitor serum creatinine to adjust dose if renal impairment. Think ACE: Angioedema/Cough/Elevated potassium
Also must alter dose in renal impairment –monitor serum creatinine.

BLACK BOX: teratogen,
orthostatic hypotension change positions slowly, monitor BP.

464
Q

Angiotensin2 Receptor Blockers

A

ARBs —sartans
Blood pressure drop, stomach hurt, dizziness. Treats HTN, diabetic nephropathy

Blocks effects of Angiotensin2 which causes vasodilation.

SE: hypotension, dizziness, GI upset. Black box: fetal toxicity. Orthostatic hypotension, monitor BP.

465
Q

Aldosterone Antagonist

A

Eplerenone

Used in HTN and HF after MI

Blocks mineralocorticoid receptors which inhibits effects of aldosterone and causes reabsorbptio of sodium and water

Eplerenone —does an EPic job of blocking aldosterONE

SE: HYPERKALEMIA, dizziness. Monitor K levels and BP.

466
Q

Toddler weight gain

A

Slows in toddler years to 4-6 lbs per year. by Age 2.5 should be roughly 4 x birth weight.

467
Q

Tinea corpus

A

Ring worm –a fungus, not a worm. Tx preferred is lamisil

468
Q

Holder monitor

A

Monitors heart for 24 hours. Wear continuously, normal activities, no shower. Keep diary of symptoms and activities.

469
Q

Power of attorney

A

trumps spouse/next of kin (if not spouse/next of kin) in end of life decisions

470
Q

PPV can cause hypotension by

A

increase in intrathoracic load and reduced venous return and reduced cardiac output

471
Q

Don’t store nitroglycerine

A

in the car or other places that can have wild temp shifts

472
Q

Clozapine potential complications

A

Agranulocytosis. Important that WBC at or above 3500 and ANC at or above 2000 before starting medication, CBC and ANC must be monitored regularly. Can also cause prolonged QT and orthostatic hypotension so periodic ECG and BP monitoring is also indicated.

473
Q

Reduction of aspiration risk for ICU pts on ventilators

A

Continuous feeds rather than bolus feeds, regular assessment (at least q4) of gastric residual volume, regular assessment of feeding tube length, using minimal possible sedation

474
Q

Glyburide

A

Stimulates insulin response via pancreas for T2DM, risk of prolonged hypoglycemia –should not be used in geriatric patients per Beers Criteria

475
Q

Site of immunizations for children under 7 months

A

Vastus lateralis (top of thigh)

476
Q

Niacin side effet

A

Cutaneous vessel dilation = warm sensation/flushing, will abate, harmless, will reduce with continued use

477
Q

Antitubercular drug monitoring

A

Optic neuritis is a possible adverse effect. May be reversible. Requires periodic examinations and pt should report decreased visual acuity and loss of red green distinction

478
Q

“ripping” moving back pain

A

Aortic dissection = emergency. hypertension #1 contributing factor

479
Q

Norepinepherine antidote

A

phentolamine.

480
Q

Norepinepherine administration route

A

Central line preferred due to risk of skin and tissue break down if extravates, but can be run IV at reduced rate until central line established

481
Q

Extravasation

A

infiltration of drug into tissues surrounding vein. Pain, blanching, swelling, redness

482
Q

Normal troponins

A

Troponin I <0.5

Troponin T <0.1

483
Q

Hyperresonance

A

Percussed over a hyperinflated lung or air in pleural space (pneumothorax)

484
Q

Filgrastim

A

Stimulates neutrophil production

485
Q

Postop pneumonia prevention

A

Ambulate ASAP (within 8 hours, ideal), cough with splinting hourly, ICS and deep breathing hourly, fowlers position (45-60 degree HOB), adequate pain control, chlorhexidine mouth wash/swab

486
Q

Relationship between HOB and BP

A

HOB up BP down. HOB down, BP up

487
Q

Herbs that increase bleeding risk

A

Garlic, ginger, gingko, saw palmetto

488
Q

Signs of neurologic emergency

A

Headache, gait distrubance, memory loss, change in level of consciousness.

489
Q

Meniere disease

A

Endolymphatic hydrops –excess fluid in inner ear leading to episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, aural fullness. Nausea, vomiting, feeling of being “pulled to the ground.” Priorities in tx: fall risk precautions, sedation, minimal stimulation, salt restriction

490
Q

MERS PPE

A

Standard, contact, airborne, and eye protection

491
Q

Airway opening technique in pt with possible C-spine injury

A

jaw thrust NOT head tilt/chin lift

492
Q

Subcutanous injection in pt with adequate vs inadequate adipose tissue

A

90 degrees if 2 inches of tissue can be grasped, 45 degrees if inadequate. This ensures injection gets to subcutaneous layer, not muscle.

493
Q

Management of actively vomiting pt with cholelithiasis

A

NPO, suppository of prometazine to relieve N/V/fluid loss, IV fluids and electrolyte replacement, NG tube to decompress stomach and encourage bowel rest

494
Q

Risks for recently extubated patients and management

A

Aspiration, airway obstruction due to edema/spasm, respiratory distress. Place in high fowlers, warm, humidifed O2, oral care, ICS and deep breathing/coughing, keep NPO.

495
Q

Pts with placental abruption and or IUFD are at increased risk for what? What is priority assessment

A

Disseminiated Intravascular Coagulation. Need baseline labs and physical assessment for s/sx of DIC first.

496
Q

PaCO2 vs PO2 vs PaO2

A

PaCO2 –arterial carbon dioxide
PO2 –or sPo2 is O2 sat on peripheral monitor
PaO2 –arterial oxygen

497
Q

Upper central lines vs lower central lines

A

Upper carry less risk of contamination/infection, lower are often inserted in emergencies and should be removed/replaced ASAP

498
Q

Cerebellum functions

A

Voluntary movement, balance and posture

499
Q

Rifampin decreases efficacy of

A

oral contraceptives

500
Q

Creatinine clearance measured via

A

24 hour urine

501
Q

An elevated BUN indicates what kind of a kidney problem

A

A chronic one

502
Q

If platelets are below 90 what is implemented

A

bleeding precautions for thrombocytopenia

503
Q

If platelets are below 40 what is implemented

A

assess for bleeding –can spontaneously bleed to death. Prepare for transfusion. Emergent

504
Q

Chlorthalidone is what kind of med

A

Thiazide diuretic

505
Q

When is first MMR given

A

12-15 momths. Can be given earlier within 72 hours of exposure. If given early, next dose is 12-15 months, and again 4-6 years.

506
Q

When can measles immunoglobulin be given?

A

Within 6 days of exposure to measles

507
Q

Incubation period of measles

A

7-12 days

508
Q

What is wound evisceration?

A

Protrousion of organs through the wound/incisional wall. Most common in abdominal surgeries, 6-8 days postop. Due to poor wound healing, obesity. Medical emergency.

509
Q

What do you do if a wound eviscerates?

A

Cover with normal saline dressings, place pt in low fowlers position w/ knees bent to take pressure off abdomen

510
Q

What type of drug is methotrexate?

A

A disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug

511
Q

What are vesicular breath sounds vs adventitious breath sounds?

A
Vesicular = Normal breath sounds
Adventitious = abnormal
512
Q

Describe the variations of Fowlers position

A
High = 90 degrees (head of bed all the way up, pt's back is straight)
Semi = 30-45 degrees (head of bed up, but pt leaning back)
Low = 10-30 degrees (slightly elevated)
513
Q

What is the ideal angle for a bolus feed?

A

30-45 degrees (semi fowlers)

514
Q

Gastric pH

A

should be acidic 5 or lower

If pH is high, do an x-ray to confirm placement

515
Q

What kind of med is detemir?

A

A long acting basal insulin

516
Q

What kind of med is spironolactone?

A

A potassium sparing diuretic

517
Q

If a patient with T1DM has fasting hyperglycemia and no rapid acting or regular insulin has been prescribed, what should be done

A

Contact provider, request a prescription, hold breakfast until administered

518
Q

At what age does the posterior fontanel close?

A

By 2 months

519
Q

When does infant weight gain slow?

A

After 6 months

520
Q

When does head lag in an infant disappear

A

After 6 months

521
Q

What kind of med is thyophylline

A

A bronchodilator

522
Q

Abnormal vs normal findings re edema after arteriovenous fistula

A

Edema after creation is normal and usually spontaneously resolves. Elevate extremity to encourage. Longer than 2 weeks of edema is abnormal.

523
Q

What is aterial steal syndrome

A

Distal to an ateriovenus fistula, color, sensation, cap refill and pulse should be normal. If pallor, pain, diminished pulse and delayed cap refill = arterial steal syndrome. Anastamosed vein is stealing too much arterial blood and causing distal extremity ischemia and could lead to limb necrosis.

524
Q

Diltiazem and verapamil are examples of

A

Calcium channel blockers

525
Q

Metroprolo, timolol, and atenolol are examples of and when should they be held?

A

beta blockers –hold when HR <60

526
Q

If HR is <60, should you give or hold dlitiazem and verapamil

A

hold. They can lower heart rate further

527
Q

What is timolol opthalmic

A

a beta blocker absorbed through the eye. hold if HR <60`

528
Q

when should ACE inhibitors be held?

A

when hypotensive

529
Q

when is atropine administered

A

In symptomatic bradycardia, increases heart rate

530
Q

What is teaching for parents around bismuth-subsalicylate?

A

Pepto bismol –contains salicylate (same class as aspirin) and can cause Reye syndrome if given during viral illness (Esp varicella and influenza)

531
Q

Typical syptoms of pulmonary embolism

A

sharp pleuritic chest pain on inspiration, shortness of breath, hypoxemia, tachypnea, and cough (dry or bloody), tachycardia, unilateral leg swelling/erythema/tenderness

532
Q

What kind of medication is omeprazole and what is its action

A

Proton pump inhibitor –suppresses gastric acid

used to prevent stress ulcers from surgery or major illness

533
Q

What is reglan also known as and what is it used for? action

A

metoclopramide. used for nausea post op, increases rate of gastric emptying.

534
Q

What does omeprazole, and proton pump inhibitors in general, increase risk of

A

increases risk of c. diff with antibiotic use

535
Q

In what circumstances can parents NOT refuse treatment for a child

A

In emergent life threatening situations. If parents refuse, hospital must seek court-appointed custody.

536
Q

What is kernig sign

A

Sign of meningeal irritation –flexon of neck causes pain, flexion of knees/hip causes pain

537
Q

What are the forms of Heparin induced thrombocytopenia and what should be monitored

A

First form –platelets over 100,000, typically normalizes within a few days
Second form –platelets less than 40,000 = life threatening autoimmune process. D/C heparin, prepare to infuse, monitor patient for signs of bleeding.

Must monitor platelet counts. If platelets decrease by 50% or are less than 150,000, d/c heparin, contact provider.

538
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia

A

d/c anesthesia, give IV dantrolene –slows metabolism, apply cooling blankets, treat hyperkalemia

539
Q

What are the platelet thresholds for surgeries?

A

Neurosurgery and ocular surgery require plts >100,000

Most other surgeries can be performed if plts >50,000

540
Q

Appropriate solution for cleaning periurethral area

A

Soap and water only

541
Q

What are the main risks of liver biopsy and appropriate nursing care

A

High risk of bleeding. Assess pt PT/INR and PTT before and after. Type and crossmatch blood before. Perform frequent vitals for signs of shock/blood loss. Pt should lie on affected (right side) for 2-4 hours after to splint the incision.

542
Q

What are the first and secondary signs of shock

A

First signs are increase in pulse and respiratory rate.

Second sign is decrease in blood pressure

543
Q

Where on the body is a liver biopsy performed, what position is client in during procedure

A

Needle is inserted between 6th and 7th or 8th and 9th right intercostals with client supine, right arm over head, holding their breath

544
Q

What foods can’t someone with celiacs disease eat?

A
BROW
Barley
Rye
Oats
Wheat
545
Q

Simple concussion signs and symptoms

A

Brief disruption in level of consciousness
Retrograde amnesia (can’t remember the event)
headache

546
Q

How to perform CPR for cardiac arrest in a pregnancy person

A

Place hands slightly high on sternum and manually displace the uterus to the pt’s left or roll their right hip onto a wedge or rolled up towel to displace the uterus by gravity

547
Q

What is meningococcal meningitis

A

A bacterial meningitis often caused by N. meningitios = highly infections

548
Q

Appropriate precautions for meningococcal meningitis

A

Droplet isolation and seizure precautions (head of bed 10-30 degrees)

549
Q

What is DOT therapy

A

Directly observed therapy –meds are provided and observed being taken by the nurse. Helpful in TB treatment.

550
Q

Right shoulder pain/right shoulder blade pain and right upper quadrant could be

A

Cholesystitis

551
Q

Where is angina felt

A

Substernal, midline

552
Q

Where is appendicitis felt

A

On the 2/3 diagonal between umbilicus and anterior right iliac, and radiating to umbilius

553
Q

Left upper quadrant radiating around to the left back pain could b

A

pancreatitis

554
Q

Where is nephrolithiasis felt?

A

Left flank and down to left groin

555
Q

What is hemonymous hemianopsia and what is the client at risk for?

A

Loss of half of visual field on the same side in both eyes. Due to stroked.
At risk for self neglect and injury because they can’t see that half. Teach to turn head to get entire field

556
Q

What is angioedema

A

Swelling of lips, tongue, larnyx, also gi, extremeties, genetalia, and can be life threatning if affecting airway. Side effect of ACE inhibitors.

557
Q

What is green vomit indicative of

A

Intestinal bile – could mean bowel obstruction

558
Q

Phenytoin is also known as

What needs monitoring and what reduces efficacy

A

Dilantin
Monitor liver function, use soft bristled tooth brush and get regular dental care due to risk of gingivial hyperplasia
Take folic acid
Calcium reduces efficacy

559
Q

Peripheral artery disease

A

AKA Peripheral Vascular Disease, –thick narrow arteries cause intermittent claudation resulting in pain due to decreased blood flow. Feels like burning pain, worse on elevation, better when dependent. Critical artery narrowing. Skin is cool, dry, shiny, hairless, ulcers and gangrene at most distal sites of body. Progressive walking helps circulation.

560
Q

Broca and wernike’s aphasia

A
Broca = expressive aphasia. Can understan okay but difficulty/frustration with expression --non fluent, sparse speech.
Wernicke's = receptive aphasia. Can not really understand, can speak but is rapid and has no meaning.
561
Q

Global aphasia

A

Cannot speak or understand

562
Q

Contraindication to elective surgery

A

Recent or current infection - more likely for infection of wound

563
Q

Acute pancreatitis patient is at risk for what complication

A

Respiratory –pleural effusion, atelectasis, ARDS due to activated pancreatic enzymes and cytokines causing focal or systemic inflammation.

564
Q

What lung sound is an early indication of ARDS

A

Inspriatory crackles

565
Q

Endotracheal cuff inflation

A

Always keep inflated –even during feeding. Low cuff pressure increases risk of aspiration

566
Q

Characteristic manifestation of systemic lupus erythrematosus (SLE)

A

Butterfly shaped rash across bridge of nose/cheeks

567
Q

Modifications for CHF lifestyle

A

Salt restriction, K supplementation, daily weights, moderate exercise

568
Q

How to calculate cerebral perfusion pressure

A

MAP - ICP

569
Q

Nutrition goal for infants under 6 months

A

110-120 kcal/kg/day

570
Q

What does cochicine do?

A

Reduces pain from inflammation due to uric acid deposits in the joints of pts with gout

571
Q

Necrotising entercolitis nursing actions

A

Daily abdominal girth measurements, monitor temp throughout day but never rectal, keep baby supine and undiapered, keep baby NPO, all nutrition/hydration/meds by central line or IV, may need NG suction to decompress stomach/intestines

572
Q

Inguinal Hernia teaching/considerations

A

s/sx of strangulation = abdominal distension, pain, n/v.
After repair, must avoid coughing without splint –sneeze with mouth open, no heavy lifting. Stand to empty bladder, elevate scrotum and use ice for swelling.

573
Q

Sign of developmental hip dysplasia

A

Extra gluteal folds on affected side (i.e. on inner thighs, should be symmetrical folds, but on affected side there will be more).
May also have decreased adduction
May also have uneven leg lengths

574
Q

Drugs that can cause cross-sensitivity reaction to sulfa drugs

A

Glyburide, thiazide and furosemide

575
Q

Feeding tube med administration

A

Crush separately. Dissolve separately. Administer separately. Flush before and after each administration with water. Only mix with water. Liquid meds should be used if possible.

576
Q

What is ventricular bigeminy

A

every other beat is a PVC possibly due to electrolyte imbalance or ischemia.

577
Q

PVCs after an MI indicate

A

ventricular irritability and increase the risk of more serious dysrhythmia

578
Q

Define cardiogenic shock

A

Heart is unable to pump adequate blood to meet body’s needs

579
Q

Osteoarthritis vs rheumatoid arthritis

A
Osteo = asymmetrical pain in weight bearing joints, crepitus esp. over knees
RA = symmetrical pain and swelling in small joints (hands, feet, wrists) and morning stiffness lasting at least an hour
580
Q

Monitor after mannitol administration

A

Assess for signs of fluid volume overload –esp crackles in lungs.

581
Q

Method for urine collection for dipstick testing in pediatric pt with nephrotic syndrome

A

Place cottonballs in a dry diaper and then later squeeze saturated cotton balls over the dipstick

582
Q

Osteomalacia

A

A reversible bone disorder due to vitamin D deficiency. Weak soft painful bones that are easy to fracture and deform. In Vit D deficiency, calcium and phosphorous can’t be absorbed. Increase calcium, phosphorous, vitamin D, get sunlight, moderate exercise, use a cane or assistive device to prevent falls.

583
Q

Age infants are expected to roll

A

4-5 months

Be suspicious of a child injured by “rolling off” something if younger than this

584
Q

Abuse pattern injuries in children

A
Coup-contrecoup
Long bone fractures
Subdural/epidural hemmatoma
Linear demarcation/immersion burns
Frenulum tears
Gingival lesions
Retinal hemorrhage
585
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

Muscle fibers released into blood causing acute renal failure due to increase in myoglobin
Treat with rapin IV resuscitation to flush myoglobin
S/sx dark possibly bloody urine, oliguria, fatigue, monitor ECG due to increase in K circulation and possible arrythmias –IV fluids decrease this risk

586
Q

Tidaling

A

is the fluctuation observed in the water seal chamber during respiration. Rises and falls, indicates proper function of the chest tube.

587
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

A

Injury to L4-L5 nerve roots = motor and sensory deficits, lower back pain, inability to walk, “saddle anesthesia” –loss of sensation and motor weakness in inner thighs/buttocks, bowel, baldder incontinence (late sign). This is a medical emergency requiring reduction in pressure on nerves.

588
Q

Foods to avoid in phenylketonuria

A

Requires a low-phenylketonuria as it cannot be entirely eliminated (essential amino acid) –probably needed for life. Avoid milk, eggs, meats, no breastfeeding.

589
Q

Esophageal atresia and trachoesophageal fistula (EA and TEF)

A

Congenital malformations in esophagus and trachea when they do not separate/form properly. Most commonly, upper esophagus ends in blind pouch and lower esophagus connects to primary bronchus or trachea through a small fistula. Can usually be corrected by surgery.
S/sx distended abdomen, apnea/choking/cyanosis during feeding.

590
Q

Mitral valve prolapse

A

(Mitral regurgitation) –Palpitations, dizziness, lightheadedness, chest pain does not respond to nitrates.

591
Q

Nonmalfesience

A

Do not harm, protect others

592
Q

Autonomy

A

Freedom for competent people to make their own choices

593
Q

Justice

A

Treat all qually

594
Q

Phenytoin aka

A

Dilantin

595
Q

Phenytoin therapeutic range

A

10-20

596
Q

Late decels intervention

A

Stop oxytocin, left side lying, supplemental O2, bolus of NS

597
Q

Phlebostatic axis

A

at 4th intercostal mid axillary line (halfway between anterior and posterior chest)

598
Q

Typical heparin flush doseage

A

2-3mL containing 10-100 units per mL

20-300 units

599
Q

Partial and full thickness burns and fluid shifts

A

tissue damage leads to increased vascular permeability and fluid shifts (2nd and 3rd spacing). In first 24-72 hours, this leads to a decrease in oncotic pressure, and hypovolemia. Hyponatremia and Hyperkalemia results and causes tall peaked T-waves, shortened QT interval, and arrythmieas. Increased Hct and Hgb due to hemoconcentration.

600
Q

Ear exam and drops adult vs infant

A

Ages 3 + up pull pinna up and back

Under 3 pull down and back

601
Q

Enema administration

A

Pt in left lateral position with right knee flexed, enema bag is held no more than 12 inches above rectum, lubricate enema tip, insert 3-4 inches, directing tip at an angle toward umbilicus. Encourage pt to retain solution as long as possible. Allow enema to flow by gravity, slowing rate if cramping occurs.

602
Q

Normal PT

A

11-16 seconds

603
Q

Normal PTT

A

25-35 seconds

604
Q

Therapeutic PTT

A

1.5 - 2 x normal = 46 -70 seconds.

Over 100 seconds is critical.

605
Q

Teaching around hemophilia

A

Avoid NSAIDs, aspirin, IM injections (subcutaneous injections). Avoid contact sports and safety hazards –swimming, jogging, tennis ok. Wear helmets and pads. Dental hygeine important, medical alert bracelet worn at all times.

606
Q

During peritoneal dialysis what is respiratory risk

A

Risk of respiratory distress due to instilling too rapidly, overfilling abdomen, or fluid entering thoracic cavity, or less dialysate being drained than was infused (fluid gain)

607
Q

Progestin only pills teaching

A

Thickens cervical mucus, thins endometrium, prevents ovulation. Low risk for clots, mostly stops menses (breakthrough bleeding common), extra pill should be taken if vomiting/diarrhea within 3 hours of taking the pill, if pill is not taken within 3 hours of normal dose time, correct pill time and barrier method must be used for 2 days.

608
Q

New S3 sound in older adults

A

Worrisome, requires immediate eval as it may indicate volume overload, or heart failure.

609
Q

Normal gastric residual

A

less than 200-250 mL

610
Q

Falling asleep during conversation when on sedatives

A

= unacceptable sedation level requires intervention on prescribed dosage, and monitoring of respiratory status

611
Q

Statins reduce and increase…

A

Reduce LDL, total cholesterol, and triglycerides

Increase HDL

612
Q

S/sx addisonian crisis, monitoring in addison’s disease

A

Crisis: LOW BP, LOW Blood sugar, dehydration, LOW sodium
HIGH Potassium, HIGH HR
Fever, weakness, confusion
Hypoglycemia, plus hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
Because corticosteroids are immunosuppressive and antinflammatory, they can mask signs of infection, and infection is also more likely so even a low grade fever is considered an emergency.
Manage with NS and D5, IV push steroids

613
Q

Concerning side effect of statins

A

Muscle aches =may indicate myopathy, a serious SE.

614
Q

Molar pregnancy

A

Hydatiform mole = gestational trophoblastic disease due to abnormal fertilization. Causes rapidly growing tissue which is intially benign, but can be come gestation trophoblastic neoplasia (invasive mole, choriocarcinoma). Pregnancy must be avoided for 6 - 12 months after evacuation of mole to HcG levels can be monitored. If pt is RH neg, they need rhogam after molar pregnancy.

615
Q

Mandibular fracture risk

A

Airway compromise due to structural damage, excess saliva, bleeding in mouth, swelling

616
Q

What to monitor during vanco infusion

A

Monitor for signs of red man syndrome, blood pressure due to risk for hypotension, respiratory status, signs of hypersensitivtiy/anaphylaxis, IV site

617
Q

Pattern of herpes zoster

A

Shingles presents as linear, unilateral fluid filled blisters and extreme pain

618
Q

Hypomagnesia range

A

less than 1.5

619
Q

Treatment for hypomagnesia

A

Assess QT interval, monitor ECG, give IV magnesium

620
Q

GTPAL stands for

A
Gravida
Term (37+0 and later)
Preterm (20+0 to 36+6)
Abortion (spontaneous or therapeutic before 20 wga)
Living (living children)
621
Q

Preferred therapy for DI

A

Desmopressin –replaces ADH without vasopressive effect of pitressin

622
Q

Tinea capitis treatment

A

suspension of griseofulvin (antifungal) and sulfide shampoo. Tx may last weeks or months. Do not stop treatment when symptoms go away. May cause photosensitivtiy, suspension should be taken with high fat food (like ice cream).

623
Q

Types of VSD

A

Left to right VSDs shunt blood to the lungs
Patent ductus arteriosis
Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect

624
Q

Right to left congential cardiac defects

A

Many start with T, impede pulmonary flow and cause cyanosis.

625
Q

Post op wound drainage in infants concerning levels

A

More than 3 ml/kg/hr for 3 consecutive hours, or more than 5-10 mL/kg in 1 hour = call provider

626
Q

Kawasaki treatment

A

IVIG (immunoglobulin) and aspirin prevent coronary anyurisms and occlusion. Risk for reyes syndrome due to aspirin use.

627
Q

Continued used of albuterol adds risk for

A

hypokalemia

628
Q

Stage 3 vs unstagable pressure ulcer

A

Stage 3 = full thickness skin loss, subcutaneous fat may be visible but tendon, muscle, bone not visible

Unstagable =full thickness skin loss but eschar and/or slough in base preventing full visualization

629
Q

Rate of K infusion IV vs central line

A

no more than 10 mEq and no faster than 1 hour in IV

no more than 40 mEq and no faster than 1 hour in central line

630
Q

ICS proper use steps

A
exhale
place mouthpiece in mouth
inhale deeply to move mechanism
hold breath 2-3 seconds
exhale slowly around mouthpiece
631
Q

Blood type and Rh factor compatibility

A

A can receive A or O
B can receive B or O
AB can receive A, B, AB, or O
O can receive O

Rh positive can receive Rh positive or Rh negative blood
Rh negative should only receive Rh negative blood

632
Q

Blood transfusion tubing

A

filtered –prevents clumps and hemolysis

633
Q

Affect of nonnutritive sucking on teeth alignment

A

Prior to permanent teeth eruption, does not affect alignment

634
Q

How to tell if a paced rhythm is atrial or ventricular

A

If the spike is before the P = atrial

If the spike is before the QRS = ventricular

635
Q

What pattern characterizes atrial fibrillation?

A

Not equally spaced. Irregularly spaced QRSes, missing Ps.

636
Q

Heparin overdose treatment

A

protamine

637
Q

Normal cardiac outbut

A

4-8 L/minute

638
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

lower respiratory tract infection caused by RSV. Inflammation and obstruction of the respiratory tract. Can be mild, like a cold, or severe and cause respiratory distress. Babies may become dehydrated and have difficulty feeding. Need supportive care: fluids, oxygen, suctioning. Irritability = hypoxia.

639
Q

Ideal angle for assessing JVD

A

45 degrees

640
Q

Salt substitute and kidney pts?

A

Do not use. Many salt substitutes contain potassium chloride.

641
Q

Renal diet

A

low sodium, low K, low phosphorous, low protein.

642
Q

K rich foods

A

tomatoes, carrots, orange juice

643
Q

phosphorous rich foods

A

turkey, chicken, dairy

644
Q

Time frame for use of emergency contraceptives

A

72 hours after unprotected sex

645
Q

Peritonitis warning signs

A

cloudy dialisate outflow, tachycardia, low grade fever. All should be reported to HCP.

646
Q

How to assess for mechanical capture of heart rate on pacemaker?

A

Make sure electrical activity of the heart is corresponding to pulsatile rhythm. Assess a central pulse: apical auscultation, or paplate femoral pulse.

647
Q

Order of drawing up NPH and regular insulin

A
Clean vials
inject air into NPH
inject air into regular
Draw up regular
Draw up NPH
648
Q

Gestational diabetes can result in what blood condition?

A

Polycythemia of the newborn (look for elevated hematocrit)

649
Q

Hypospadia and post op concern

A

when urethra is located on underside of penis.
After corrective surgery, a stent is placed. Hourly urine outflow is measured. If no outflow for 1 hour, concern re: onstruction

650
Q

Sucralfate

A

Oral med, protective layer in GI mucosa against stomach acids/enzymes. Take 1 hour before meals/bedtime on empty stomach with water. Avoid antacids/PPIs/H2 blockers for 30 min after taking. Take other meds 1-2 hours after taking. Constipation common SE.

651
Q

Opthalmic ointment application

A

Tilt head back, pull down lower lid, look up
Apply thin ribbon of medication to lower lid from inside to outside.
Closer eyes for 2-3 min. Do not rub.
Ointment is better at night, drops better in day.

652
Q

Pulse ox affected by

A
Anemia
CO2 poisoning
dark nailpolish
hypotension/low cardiac output (HF)
vasoconstruction (hypothermia, vasopressor meds)
Peripheral artery disease
653
Q

Glass vial medication notes

A

snap away from body
use filter needle to draw up
touch only the needle inside the vial, no other part of needle or syringe should touch vial

654
Q

What OTC meds can cause bronchoconstriction in pts with asthma?

A

Aspirin and ibuprofen

655
Q

Cushing’s triad

A

Hypertension
Bradycardia
Irregular respirations

656
Q

SIRS criteria

A

at least 2 of the following:
T of <36.0 or >38.0
Tachycardia of >90
Tachypnia of >20
Leukocytosis of >12,000 or leukopenia of <4,000
Also: decreased urine output (less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr)

657
Q

Monitoring for submersion injury

A

Must monitor closely for 6 hours.

Look for changes in respiratory pattern, O2 sat, LOC which can indicate impending respiratory failure.

658
Q

Post mastectomy care priorities

A

Elevate affected arm at heart level on pillows, gradual exercises of finger and arm. Full ROM expected 4-6 weeks. Keep pt in semi fowlers, no BP/venipuncture/injections into affected arm

659
Q

Hierarchy of decision making for incapcitated people

A

Health care proxy and alternates per advanced directive
Family
Ethics board or HCP

660
Q

Upper limit of “normal” WBCs in pregnancy

A

15,000

661
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

Long, slendr body, cardiac defects –prone to aortic root dilation/weakness and increased risk of aortic dissection and rupture. High risk of mortality in pregnancy, should avoid, or if intent on pregnancy, should do earlier in life. 50% chance of heritability for children.

662
Q

What drug should be avoided before IV contrast

A

Metformin should be avoided for 24-48 hours before use of IV contrast dye and for 48 hours afterward to reduce risk of lactic acidosis

663
Q

Crutch measurements

A

3 fingers from axilla to pad (1-2 inches), 30 degree bend in elbow when walking.

664
Q

General guide for pediatric medication administration

A

Do not mix in anything. Measure with an oral syringe.
Don’t give another dose if they vomit right after the first one. Give in semi-reclining position for babies. Give in cheek towards back of mouth in small bits. For preschoolers let them aid in prep, push plunger, give positive reinforcement like a sticker.

665
Q

Macrolide abx

A

End in mycin but not aminoglycodies. Azythromycin, erythromiycin, clarythromycin.

666
Q

What must be monitored for in macrolides?

A

Prolonged QT

Liver function

667
Q

Compression stockings in chronic venous insufficiency

A

Help with venous ulcer healing, prevent ulcer recurrence, should be worn during the day

668
Q

Synchronization in defibrillation

A

Cardioversion requires synchronization. Pulsed rhythms require synchronization to avoid R on T
Pulseless do not require synchronization

669
Q

Foods high in tyramine

A

Aged cheese, cured meat, fermented food, broad beans, beer, red wine, chocolate, avocados

670
Q

Non-cycle related breast changes should…

A

be reported to a provider.

671
Q

People over what age should have yearly breast exams and practice self exam?

A

Over 40

672
Q

Chest tube drainage system layout

A

Far left = suction control chamber
Second from left = water seal chamber
Remaining 3 right chambers = collection chambers

673
Q

Semen and amniotic fluid

A

Are both alkalotic and will both cause positive nitrazine tests

674
Q

Birth weight should X by 6 months and X by 12 months

A

double and triple

675
Q

Pulsation of fontanelles

A

Normal

Posterior closes by 2 months, anterior by 18 months

676
Q

BRAT diet

A

not recommended

677
Q

Veracity

A

telling the truth

678
Q

Benefience

A

Doing good

679
Q

Fidelity

A

loyalty and committment

680
Q

Influenza vaccine in okay in babies

A

6 months of age or older

681
Q

Macrolytic anemia

A

Deficient in B12/folic acid = vegans

682
Q

Excessive PP bleeding

A

1 or more pads in 1 hour

683
Q

Stripping chest tube

A

Never ok

684
Q

Looping chest tube / kinking chest tube drainage system

A

never ok

685
Q

Best non-lab indicator of kidney function

A

Urine output

686
Q

Acute ashtma attack treatment

A

Albuterol, solumetrol (or other steroid), ipratropium

687
Q

Dysarthria

A

Motor speech disorder. Can indicate impending respiratory distress if new

688
Q

Proper order of cleaning trach and replacing cannual

A

Remove soiled dressing
Replace cannula
Clean stoma, place new dressing
(inside to outside except soiled dressing)

689
Q

Needle and location for infant injections

A

To 12 months, 1 inch needle, vastus lateralis

690
Q

Statins are most effective when taken

A

At night

691
Q

Most effective indicator of fluid resuscitation adequacy in burn injuries

A

Urine output

692
Q

Blurry spot in middle of vision

A

macular degeneration

693
Q

Flashes of light in vision

A

retinal detachment

694
Q

Inability to see closely

A

Presbyopia = old age

695
Q

Poor peripheral vision/tunnel vision

A

Glaucoma

696
Q

Leukocytosis

A

Elevated WBCs (infection)

697
Q

Why is the bladder emptied before a blood transfusion

A

In the event of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaciton, a fresh urine specimen is needed to analyze for hemolyzed RBCs, so pt needs to empty bladder just prior to starting the transfusion

698
Q

Signs of hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Red urine, hypotension, fever. Late: DIC, hypovolemic shock

699
Q

What is “failure to capture”

A

If a patient has a pacemaker, an impulse is sent to the ventricle or atrium but the myocardium doesn’t depolarize in response. Can be visualized by a pacer spike at the appropriate time but no responding complex following. Usually associated with pacer lead wire displacement or battery failure. Failure to capture can lead to bradycardia, asystole, and decreased cardiac output.

700
Q

Risk for thrush is associated with

A

Systemic abx use in immunosuppressed people, steroid use –inhaled or systemic (NOT albuterol), dentures, infants

701
Q

Trismus

A

Inability to open mouth due to tonic contraction of the muscles used to chew. Can indicate a serious complication of tonsilitis.

702
Q

Complications of tonsilitus

A

Trismus, “hot potato voice” (hoarse/muffled voice), saliva pooling, deviation of uvula to one side –all may indicate an abscess forming and can impact airway.

703
Q

Sunset eyes

A

Visibile sclera above the iris in an infant, a sign of ICP in hydrocephalus. Bulging fontanelles and increasing head circumference are other signs of ICP.

704
Q

Normal range of wet diapers

A

6-10 per day or 1 every 4 hours

705
Q

Babinksi

A

Toes fan out and big toe dorsiflexes with stimulation. Normal up to 12 months, beyond 1 year may indicate neurological disease.

706
Q

Triple lumen catheter

A

Allows for incompatible meds to be given simultaneously, allows for blood draws, allows for hemodynamic monitoring, and allows for TPN

707
Q

Enter, parenteral and Total parenteral feeding

A

Enteral = oral or direct to GI tract
Parenteral = does not go to GI tract, through peripheral vein
Total parenteral = goes through central line

708
Q

Apraxia

A

inability to learn a new motor movement –whistling, clapping, dressing, due to neurological impairment

709
Q

How to assess an unconscious person

A

Assess for medical alert devices (pacemakers, alert bracelets), prescriptive materials (med patches, contacts), remove foreign objects (tampons, jewelry) and personal belongings but LEAVE medication patches on until after consulting with HCP

710
Q

TORCH infections

A

Toxcoplasmosis, other (parvo B19, variceella), rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex

711
Q

Nasal cannula

A

1-6 L/min, FiO2, 24-44%

Low flow, best for pts with adequate tidal volume and normal vital signs

712
Q

Simple face mask

A

6-8 L/min, FiO2 40-60%

Low to high flow depending on use

713
Q

Non-rebreather mask

A

10-15 L/min FiO2 60-90%
Face mask with reservoir bag and two one-way vaolves which prevent exhaled air from entering reservoir bag and room air from entering mask while CO2 is released to atmosphere. Bag must remain inflated –if it is not inflated, increase O2 rate.
Used for short term in pts with low saturation due to asthma, pneumonia, trauma, severe sepsis

714
Q

Venturi mask

A

2-15 L/min FiO2 24-60%
Face mask and color-coded adapters which direct specific O2 concentration. Does not vary O2 concentration with breathing pattern and appropriate if pt cannot tolerate variation in O2 concentration. Used in persistent hypercarbia, and severe hypoxemia. Precise O2 delivery but not for patients with very high O2 demand.

715
Q

If TPN is interrupted, what is the appropritate fluid to use in the meantime

A

10% dextrose at the same rate the TPN was being run, until a new bag of TPN is available.

716
Q

In hypertensive crisis, how is BP managed?

A

It must be lowered slowly so as not to compromise perfusion to organs. Goal is not to decrease MAP more than 25%, or maintain MAP at 110-115 and then decrease lower over then next 24 hours

717
Q

When is external pacing implemented?

A

In symptomatic bradycardia

718
Q

-xaban

A

Anticoagulants prevent and treat venous thromboembolism. More commonly prescribed oral anticoagulant than warfarin due to lower risk and less ongoing monitoring needed. Do NOT take with NSAIDs, garlic, ginger, which can increase bleeding risk.

719
Q

-lam and -pam

A

Benzodiazepines. Anti-anxiety drugs. Taper, don’t stop suddenly. Take at night due to sedative effect.

720
Q

Dental avulsion

A

Adult tooth separated from mouth. Dental emergency. Rinse tooth with NS, reinsert into cavity and hold in place until stablized by dentist. Reinserting within 15 minutes re-establishes blood supply.

721
Q

Sildenafil

A

Viagra. Do not use with nitrates (unstable angina patients). Do not give nitrates within 4 hours of use.

722
Q

Vagal maneuvers

A

Place an ice bag on face, instruct pt to hold breath and bear down.

723
Q

Position for pneumonia

A

Place patient with affected lung UP

724
Q

Prior to starting statin therapy, what needs monitoring?

A

Liver function tests, ongoing liver monitoring because drugs can be hepatotoxic

725
Q

Acathosis nigricans

A

Symmetric hyperpigmented velvty plaques in flexeral and intertiginous areas of skin (axilla, neck). May also have skin tags. Both indicate insulin resistance. Refer to HCP for evaluation of DM or metabolic syndrome.

726
Q

Principles of radiation poisoning

A

Treat patients furthest away from exposure and those with the least symptoms. The closer to the source, the less chance of survival. Most injuries will be internal –blood cell counts low, oral mucosa ulcers, vomiting/diarrhea.

727
Q

Right sided heart failure classic signs

A

JVD enlarged liver, spleen abdomen, dependent edema, generalized edema.

728
Q

If heparin induced thrombocytopenia is suspected:

A

Stop heparin, assess vitals, assess neuro status, repeat blood work (CBC) and contact HCP

729
Q

Where to listen for PMI

A

Mid axillary line, 4th and 5th intercostals. If lower may indicate enlarged heart.

730
Q

“Acceptable” asthma peak flow levels

A

Greater than or equal to 80% of personal best

731
Q

Anticipate for a newly comatose patient –

A

therapeutic hypothermia

732
Q

Low serum albumin manifests as

A

Fluid shift from intravascular compartment to intersititial spaces. Causes pitting edema of lower extremeties, periorbital edema, and ascites

733
Q

Teaching re: birth control after vastectomy

A

It can take months before remaining sperm are ejaculated or absorbed by body, so alternative birth control must be used until semen sample confirms absent of sperm

734
Q

Omphalocele and gastroschisis

A

Congential defects of abdominal wall
Omphalcele –bowel usually covered in peritoneal sac herniates through abdominal wall via umbilical opening
Gastroschisis –bowel herneates through abdominal wall without protective sac (may be offset from umbilicus

Cover with non-adherent sterile dressing soaked in saline and covered in loose plastic, or in a plastic bowel bag
Initiate IV access
Monitor for fluid loss, fever, signs of infection
Allow baby to breastfeed, unless prepping for surgery then keep NPO