NCE Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

One family structure that is on the rise in the United States is the:
a. blended family.
b. multigenerational family.
c. single-parent family.
d. homosexual family.

A

b. multigenerational family.

One of the fastest-growing trends in family structures is the multigenerational family, in which the grandparents are raising
their grandchildren. They, instead of the children’s biological parents, are parenting the grandchildren. Blended families have
been around for decades, as have single-parent families. The homosexual family is an acknowledged family structure but is
not one of the fastest-growing trends in family structures

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2
Q

A counselor may decide to administer a number of psychological tests in order to:
a. better understand the client.
b. predict future performance.
c. evaluate the outcomes of counseling.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

If a counselor decides to administer a psychological test, most likely the counselor wants to understand the client more fully.
The counselor may want to predict the future performance of a client. Or the counselor may want to evaluate the outcomes of
treatment. A psychological test provides a means to look at these issues objectively and concretely.

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3
Q

When working with prospective employers about hiring those with mental disabilities, an employer asks the counselor if
it is legal to ask potential employees if they are disabled during the initial interview. Which of the following is the best
response?
a. “Yes, you can ask if the person has a disability that may affect the job.”
b. “You can ask if the person has any disability.”
c. “You may ask only if the person can perform job functions.”
d. “You may ask only if there are job-related functions the person cannot do.”

A

c. “You may ask only if the person can perform job functions.”

If, when working with prospective employers about hiring those with mental disabilities, an employer asks the counselor if it is
legal to ask potential employees if they are disabled during the initial interview, the best response is: “You may ask only if the
person can perform job functions.” If the individual is able to carry out the job functions, the individual is under no obligation
to provide information about a disability. However, the individual may choose to divulge a disability and ask for workplace
accommodations.

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4
Q

Josie likes to play peek-a-boo with her little brother, Jack. According to Piaget, Jack finds this game fun because he has
not yet acquired ____________, which is one of the primary tasks of the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.
a. conservation
b. dual representation
c. object permanence
d. reversibility

A

c. object permanence

Piaget proposed that there are four stages of cognitive development. The first stage is the sensorimotor stage, whereby the
infant or toddler recognizes that even though something is out of sight, it still exists (object permanence). Without object
permanence, games such as peek-a-boo are fun to the child who believes the individual has temporarily disappeared, then
reappears. Piaget’s second stage of cognitive development is the preoperational stage (early childhood years) in which
children begin to recognize that something can be an object as well as a symbol (dual representation). The third stage of
cognitive development according to Piaget is called the concrete operational stage, during which children 6 to 11 years old
develop the capacity of both conservation (object permanence, or the understanding that physical characteristics of objects
remain the same even if the appearance is different) and reversibility (the ability to think through a series of steps and then to
reverse the process mentally).

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5
Q

The Rorschach, TAT, and Rotters Incomplete Sentences are all:
a. projective tests.
b. observational tests.
c. rating scales.
d. standardized personality tests.

A

a. projective tests.

The Rorschach is an inkblot test. The TAT (Thematic Apperception Test) is a storytelling test. The Rotters Incomplete
Sentences test is a finish-the-sentence test. All of these tests are projective tests because they ask test takers to project their
own thoughts and ideas into the stimuli to complete the answers. The test takers come up with their own answers freely
without any suggestions or information being provided by the examiner except the stimuli. Rating scales are typically used to
describe various dimensions of behavior across a number of different situations or environments. Standardized personality
tests include the MMPI-II and CPI, among others. Observational tests would typically involve the examiner observing the test
takers’ behavior across environments or situations.

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6
Q

Styles of group leadership have been described as all EXCEPT:
a. autocratic.
b. effective.
c. democratic.
d. laissez faire

A

b. effective.

Effective is NOT a term used to describe a group leader style. (It is, however, a term used in Virginia Satir’s A-B-C-D-E family
therapy model to describe a healthy way of interacting.) Group leadership styles are described as autocratic or authoritarian,
democratic, or laissez faire. The autocratic style may not be liked by group members, but is best for making quick decisions.
The democratic style may be liked better by group, but is not always the most productive. With a cohesive, committed group,
the laissez faire style often gets superior results.

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7
Q

The withdrawal of reinforcement until the conditioned response no longer occurs is known as:
a. extinction.
b. elimination.
c. discrimination.
d. punishment

A

a. extinction.

When Person A wants to eliminate a previously conditioned response in Person B, Person A withholds any reinforcement
when the response occurs so that Person B no longer elicits the behavior. This is known as extinction. Discrimination occurs
in classical and operant conditioning when a person learns to respond to only specific stimuli, while not responding to other
similar stimuli. The person learns to distinguish between similar stimuli. “Punishment” is also a term associated with operant
conditioning. It is a behavior modification technique that is used to decrease the probability that a particular behavior will
occur again. Punishment can be either the presentation of an aversive stimulus or the taking away of a positive stimulus.
Elimination is not a technique utilized in classical and operant conditioning.

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8
Q

During the working stage of the group, the leader’s role is to:
a. establish a trusting climate.
b. provide a role model.
c. deal with feelings.
d. support risks.

A

d. support risks.

The leader serves as a role model during the transition stage of the group, as well as establishing a trusting climate for the
group, providing support, and addressing resistances and anxiety. During the termination stage, the leader’s role is to deal
with feelings, reinforce changes, and help members make plans. During the orientation stage, the leader’s role is to help
identify goals and structures and begin the modeling process. The leader in the working stage provides reinforcement, links
themes, supports risks, and encourages translating insight into action.

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8
Q

Jeremy is a counselor. He believes in mirroring back his client’s verbalizations, and not passing judgment on what they
say. Jeremy considers himself a facilitator in assisting his client in reaching resolution of the presenting problems. What
type of therapeutic theory is Jeremy working from?
a. Freudian psychoanalysis
b. Behavioral theory
c. Rogerian, client-centered therapy
d. Jung’s client-guiding theory

A

c. Rogerian, client-centered therapy

Carl Roger’s client-centered approach to therapy mirrors back what the patient is saying, guiding him/her to clearer selfunderstanding. Rogers believed in freeing clients from obstacles to growth, and aiding them in becoming independent, selfdirected individuals. This type of therapy involves a therapist who is more facilitator than director, and only guides clients in
making their own decisions. The Rogerian approach involves a positive outlook and high degrees of respect for the client.
This type of therapy works well with many types of cases, but is often not the best choice for more severe disorders, such as
schizophrenia or other organic disorders.

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9
Q

Which of the following screening tools for alcohol abuse include questions about socioeconomic status and
psychological needs as well as the use of addictive substances?
a. CAGE (alcohol abuse tool)
b. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (Modified) (AUDIT-C)
c. Addiction Severity Index (ASI)
d. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)

A

c. Addiction Severity Index (ASI)

The Addiction Severity Index (ASI) includes questions about socioeconomic status and psychological needs as well as the
use of addictive substances. The CAGE tool is a 4-questions self-assessment of alcohol use. The CAGE-AID tool is similar but
includes the use of drugs. The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) includes 10 questions about drinking habits
and how it affects the client’s life. AUDIT-C is a 3-question modification of the AUDIT.

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10
Q

The Minnesota Importance Questionnaire is used:
a. for those reading at an eighth grade level or higher.
b. in the context of vocational counseling.
c. with groups only.
d. with individuals only

A

b. in the context of vocational counseling.

The Minnesota Importance Questionnaire (MIQ) is a useful tool in vocational counseling. The MIQ measures twenty
psychological needs and six underlying values as related to work satisfaction, and it includes 185 occupations. The six values
from which the needs are derived are achievement, comfort, status, autonomy, safety, and altruism. The test is a paper-andpencil inventory, gender neutral, and appropriate for those who are reading at a fifth-grade level or higher. It can be
administered to groups or individuals. A Spanish language edition of the MIQ is also available

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11
Q

Which of the following is a good example of a standardized test?
a. A checklist
b. A rating scale
c. A structured, scored test
d. An open-ended interview

A

c. A structured, scored test

A test with a structured procedure for administration and a specified scoring system is a better example of a standardized
test. A checklist, a rating scale, or an open-ended interview are all good examples of non-standardized tests as they have no
formalized or routinized directions for administering or scoring them.

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12
Q

A client with catatonic schizophrenia has sat in the same chair with the right arm extended for an hour after the phlebotomist extended the arm for a blood draw. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Posturing
b. Waxy flexibility
c. Anergia
d. Mimicry

A

b. Waxy flexibility

If a client has sat in the same chair with the right arm extended for an hour after the phlebotomist extended the arm for a
blood draw, this is an example of waxy flexibility, a psychomotor behavior associated with schizophrenia with catatonia. With
waxy flexibility, the client maintains a position initiated by someone else (such as the phlebotomist). This differs from posturing
in that, with posturing, the client voluntarily assumes abnormal or bizarre postures.

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13
Q

If a mental health client is making statements that seem to be based on delusional thinking, such as “My doctor is
constantly flirting with me,” the best way to express doubt is by which of the following statements?
a. “I don’t believe that.”
b. “You must be kidding!”
c. “Are you telling me the truth?”
d. “That’s hard to believe.”

A

d. “That’s hard to believe.”

If a mental health client is making statements that seem to be based on delusional thinking, the best way to express doubt is, “That’s hard to believe.” This statement is not overtly challenging but does avoid reinforcing false beliefs and may help to
undermine the client’s faulty belief system. The counselor should avoid arguing with the client or directly confronting the client’s false statements, as this is rarely effective, but should remain calm and try to reset reality.

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14
Q

When counseling a client who is self-identified as a lesbian and whom the counselor believes is marginalized, which of
the following should be the first step?
a. Outline the ways in which the client may be marginalized
b. Determine if the client feels marginalized
c. Guide the client to becoming more aware of being marginalized
d. Explore how marginalization has affected the client’s life

A

b. Determine if the client feels marginalized

When counseling a client who is self-identified as a lesbian and whom the counselor believes is marginalized, the first step
should be to determine if the client feels marginalized. It’s important to avoid making assumptions about others. If the client
does not feel marginalized, then focusing on marginalization may avoid the real issues that are concerning the client and may,
in fact, increase the client’s level of stress by introducing new areas of conflict that the client had not previously experienced.

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14
Q

When counseling a client with PTSD, what advice should the counselor advise the client to follow?
a. Try to avoid thinking about the traumatic experience
b. Avoid all stressful social situations
c. Talk about problems with support people
d. Stay alert at all times

A

c. Talk about problems with support people

When counseling a client with PTSD, the counselor should advise the client to talk about problems with support people, such
as close friends, family, or members of a support group. Avoidance strategies usually work for only limited periods of time and
are not helpful in recovery because the client is not dealing effectively with the issue. Clients with PTSD can practice
relaxation techniques as well, but they may need to do so in small increments of time initially

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15
Q

The counselor is assisting with a research study in which half of the subjects are given medication and the other half
given sugar pills. Neither group knows which pills contain medication, yet many who receive the sugar pills repeatedly
report positive effects from taking them. What would account for this?
a. Transference
b. The placebo effect
c. The Hawthorne effect
d. Research bias

A

b. The placebo effect

A placebo is a substance that is generally used in one of two ways. It can be used as a control in an experiment to determine
the true effectiveness of a medication. A placebo can also be used as a substitute for a medication, and is meant to work based on the expectation of the subject using the placebo. Many studies have shown that giving a placebo is preferable to
providing no treatment at all, and that many patients favorably respond to placebos. Some professionals believe that the use of placebos is unprofessional, and its use in psychotherapy is controversial. However, even though not completely
understood, it has been shown to be beneficial in some cases.

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16
Q

A parent stops the counselor and asks, “Could you tell me what is wrong with the client across the hall from my son?
He seems so agitated.” Which of the following responses complies with the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
a. “The law doesn’t allow me to give out any information about clients in order to protect their privacy and
safety.”
b. “His mother is in the lounge. You can go ask her.”
c. “Why are you asking?”
d. “He has bipolar disease, like your son.”

A

a. “The law doesn’t allow me to give out any information about clients in order to protect their privacy and
safety.”

“The law doesn’t allow me to give out any information about clients in order to protect their privacy and safety” is accurate and appropriate. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) addresses the privacy of health information.
It is essential to never release any information or documentation about a client’s condition or treatment without consent. Personal information about the client is considered protected health information (PHI), and it includes any identifying or personal information about the client, such as health history, condition, or treatments in any form, and any documentation.
Failure to comply with HIPAA regulations can make one liable for legal action.

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17
Q

What does multicultural/diversity counseling refer to?
a. Counseling that recognizes diversity and approaches beneficial to specific groups
b. Counseling that attempts to minimize the cultural aspects of particular groups
c. An approach that all counselors should ethically be aware of
d. Both A and C

A

d. Both A and C

It is expected that all counselors respect diversity in their clients and educate themselves as to the individualistic needs of the
clients as affected by such concepts as social identity, history, and economic and political issues, as relevant to particular
cultures. Respect for individual cultures and knowledge of their unique and special features are necessary for a counselor to
responsibly and ethically provide competent service to their clients.

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18
Q

In a support group, one client monopolizes the conversation, talking about the same problems over and over and preventing others from participating. The counselor has spoken with the client privately about the importance of allowing others to speak and not interrupting others, but the behavior persists. Which of the following is the most
effective response?
a. “Remember what we discussed about your interrupting other group members.”
b. “Please stop interrupting other members when they are trying to speak.”
c. “When you interrupt others, I’m concerned that some group members are unable to participate.”
d. “You’ve already expressed your feelings about this topic many times.”

A

c. “When you interrupt others, I’m concerned that some group members are unable to participate.”

If one client monopolizes the conversation in a support group, talking about the same problems over and over and preventing
others from participating, and speaking privately about the matter to the client did not change the client’s behavior, the most
effective response focuses on the results of the action rather than blame: “When you interrupt others, I’m concerned that
some group members are unable to participate.” Many groups include members who tend to monopolize the communication
until other members become angry and/or exasperated.

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19
Q

Ann Roe believed that all EXCEPT which of these elements influence occupational selection?
a. Genetic factors
b. Environmental influences
c. Parent-child relationships
d. Cognitive development

A

d. Cognitive development

Cognitive development was NOT identified as a major determinant in Ann Roe’s theory, which is a needs-based approach. She believed that occupational selection is a function of the needs developed by a child, whose structure were influenced by
a combination of genetics, environmental experiences, and interactions between the parents and the child. Career development as a part of cognitive development is more closely identified with Tiedeman, O’Hara, and Miller-Tiedeman’s
decision-making model of career development.

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20
Q

Interpersonal therapy is generally most effective for which of the following?
a. Depressive episodes associated with specific situations
b. Major depressive episodes
c. Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder
d. Depressive episodes associated with PTSD

A

a. Depressive episodes associated with specific situations

Interpersonal therapy is generally most effective for depressive episodes associated with specific situations (such as grief)
and is usually of short duration (six 20-minute sessions). During therapy, the focus is on one issue, such as conflicts, changing roles, or grief. The client is helped to develop specific goals, and the therapist confronts the client when the client’s behavior
does not facilitate reaching these goals. Clients are encouraged to remain focused on the problem and to associate concrete feelings rather than abstract feelings.

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21
Q

What are some common criticisms of Rogerian therapy?
a. It doesn’t take developmental stages into account
b. It assumes that people are basically good and healthy
c. It may be inappropriate for some type of mental illness
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

There are several criticisms of Rogerian therapy. One common criticism is that while Carl Rogers does take the unconscious
into account in his writings, he doesn’t give it enough emphasis. Likewise, Rogers doesn’t incorporate information relative to
developmental stages into his therapy. Rogers is also sometimes criticized because his therapeutic method is not appropriate
for use with some types of mental illness. For example, some individuals may not have the ability for self-expression, or feel
anxiety for their actions. Rogers’ theory also assumes that people are basically good and healthy, so application with clients
who are particularly violent or lacking in personal or social conscience may be difficult.

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22
Q

__________________ is a disorder of thought, unlike _________________, which is a disorder of mood.
a. Borderline; conduct disorder
b. Conduct disorder; depression
c. Bipolar disorder; schizophrenia
d. Schizophrenia; bipolar disorder

A

d. Schizophrenia; bipolar disorder

Bipolar disorder is primarily a mood disorder, while schizophrenia is characterized more by disordered thought patterns.

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23
Q

A survey researcher has asked Larry and Carol about their attitudes toward obeying laws. They are asked what they would do in certain hypothetical situations. For example, if the only way to help someone and/or to avoid harming someone would involve breaking the law. “Law, schmaw, what’s important is doing the right thing,” said Carol. “True,
we should do what’s right, but we’ve also made an agreement with society to follow its rules. We should try to do that too, but I agree that a lot of it depends on the situation,” said Larry. How did Larry and Carol fit in Kohlberg’s stages of moral development?
a. Larry is in Stage 1 and Carol is in Stage 2
b. Larry is in Stage 4 and Carol is in Stage 3
c. Larry is in Stage 5 and Carol is in Stage 6
d. Larry is in Stage 4 and Carol is in Stage 5

A

c. Larry is in Stage 5 and Carol is in Stage 6

Larry is in Stage 5 (the first of Kohlberg’s two postconventional stages) where social contracts exist and most rules are relative; Carol is in stage 6, the second of the postconventional level: universal ethical principles apply in a self-chosen orientation, and the individual may or may not obey a law depending on whether they believe it is the right or moral thing to do. Kohlberg’s first preconventional level consists of stage 1 which has a punishment and obedience orientation (i.e., we must
obey the law or be punished); and stage 2, which has a hedonistic and instrumental orientation (i.e., we must obey the law to get rewarded). Kohlberg’s second conventional level consists of stage 3, where an interpersonal acceptance orientation is predominant (i.e., we must follow the rules to get approval); and stage 4, where a law and order orientation prevails (e.g., we
must obey the laws to conform to authority). The postconventional and highest level with Stages 5 and 6 is the level and stages of Larry’s and Carol’s respective moral development

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24
Q

Which of these books was authored by Eric Berne?
a. I’m OK – You’re OK
b. In And Out of the Garbage Can
c. Games People Play
d. On Becoming a Person

A

c. Games People Play

Berne, who created transactional analysis (a cognitive model of therapy), believed that the personality has three ego states – parent, adult, and child. He felt that people will play various games, which he named in his book Games People Play, to avoid intimacy. The book I’m OK – You’re OK was written by Thomas Harris. Harris extended Berne’s transactional analysis by
positing four basic life positions: “I’m OK – You’re OK;” “I’m OK – You’re Not OK;” “I’m Not OK – You’re Not OK;” and “I’m Not OK – You’re OK.” The book In and Out of the Garbage Can was authored by Fritz Perls, the founder of Gestalt therapy. The
book On Becoming a Person was written by Carl Rogers, whose therapy focused on the “process of becoming,” which moves
clients toward self-actualization

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25
Q

A client who worries about how she looks and checks her appearance in the mirror repeatedly for 4 to 5 hours every day and has had repeated plastic surgical procedures is diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder. The client has been prescribed an SSRI by a psychiatrist. Which approach to therapy is most indicated?
a. Habit reversal training
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Cognitive restructuring
d. Motivational interviewing

A

c. Cognitive restructuring

If a client worries about how she looks, checks her appearance in the mirror repeatedly for 4 to 5 hours every day, has had repeated plastic surgical procedures, and is diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder and prescribed an SSRI by a psychiatrist, the approach to therapy that is most indicated is cognitive restructuring. Cognitive restructuring focuses on
feelings that result in stress and asks the client to determine what is true about the feelings and what is false and then to develop alternative thoughts.

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26
Q

Robert Carkhuff categorized counselors’ responses as all EXCEPT which of the following?
a. Additive
b. Interchangeable
c. Subtractive
d. Multiplicative

A

d. Multiplicative

There is no “multiplicative” characterization of counselor responses in Carkhuff’s theory. Additive refers to a response that
adds noticeably (Level 4) or significantly (Level 5) to the client’s affect. Subtractive refers to a response that does not attend to
or detract significantly (Level 1) from the client’s affect, or one that subtracts noticeably (Level 2) from the client’s affect. Interchangeable refers to a response that is interchangeable (Level 3) with the client’s affect.

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27
Q

A counselor who has a current caseload of 124 clients decides to close his practice and move to Florida. Unethical handling of this change includes:
a. notifying all his clients in writing of his plans.
b. making referrals to other professionals for all of his clients.
c. safeguarding all client records.
d. posting a public announcement of the close of the practice to ensure that all current and potential clients are notified.

A

d. posting a public announcement of the close of the practice to ensure that all current and potential clients are notified.

If a counselor plans to close his practice, he must inform all of his clients of that fact, provide the clients with referrals to other
professionals, and notify all clients of the safeguards for the clinical records. If these procedures are not followed, the counselor could be violating ethical standards by abandoning his clients. Simply posting an announcement on closure of a
practice does not guarantee that current clients will receive a timely notification to qualify for an appropriate and ethical end
of the therapeutic relationship.

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28
Q

True variance or the coefficient of determination is obtained by:
a. subtracting the correlation coefficient from 1.00.
b. adding the correlation coefficient to 1.00.
c. squaring the correlation coefficient.
d. none of the above

A

c. squaring the correlation coefficient.

The coefficient of determination is true variance. It is obtained by squaring the correlation coefficient. In order to find the coefficient of non-determination, subtract the coefficient of determination from 1.00.

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29
Q

A client states, “I know I have a problem, but I don’t know if I’m ready to make a change.” According to James Prochaska and Carlo DiClemente’s transtheoretical model (TTM) of the stages of change, the client is operating from
which stage?
a. Precontemplation
b. Contemplation
c. Preparation
d. Maintenance

A

b. Contemplation

Individuals in the contemplation stage are beginning to consider making a change. In this stage, clients are aware that they have a problem but are unsure if they want to change, or if they are even capable of making a change. Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1992) transtheoretical stages of change model consists of the following linear stages: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. Individuals in the precontemplation stage lack awareness of behaviors
that may require change, and during the contemplation stage they begin to gain awareness of the behaviors without any plan to act on changing them. In the preparation (i.e., determination) stage, clients acknowledge the detrimental consequences of their behavior and get ready to make a change. Actual changes are made in the action stage. In the last stage, maintenance,
individuals take the action steps required to sustain change.

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30
Q

Would Freud’s psychodynamic approach and Albert Ellis’ REBT favor the emic or the etic approach?
a. They would both favor the etic approach
b. They would both favor the emic approach
c. Freud would favor the etic approach and Ellis the emic
d. Freud would favor the emic approach and Ellis the etic

A

a. They would both favor the etic approach

Both Freud’s and Ellis’ counseling styles would favor an etic approach as both types of counseling use the same techniques for everybody regardless of the individual client’s personality or problems. An emic approach, which emphasizes individual differences rather than similarities. Thus, it would be favored by practitioners of Carl Rogers’ person-centered counseling or
Adler’s individual psychology.

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30
Q

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the other three?
a. Horney
b. Glasser
c. Adler
d. Jung

A

b. Glasser

Glasser is associated with reality therapy, while the other three are Neo-Freudians. Karen Horney is associated with neurotic
personalities, Jung with the collective unconscious and archetypes, and Adler with birth order and family constellations.

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31
Q

A client with court-ordered therapy for antisocial personality disorder is very manipulative and exhibits unacceptable behavior. Part of his therapy includes limit setting. If the client asks the counselor a personal question, such as “Do you live with your boyfriend?” which of the following is the most appropriate response?
a. “That is none of your business.”
b. “It is not appropriate to ask me personal questions.”
c. “Why are you asking me that?”
d. “What is the rule about these types of questions?”

A

b. “It is not appropriate to ask me personal questions.”

If a client with antisocial personality disorder asks the counselor a personal question, such as “Do you live with your boyfriend?” the most appropriate response is “It is not appropriate to ask me personal questions.” Consequences for
inappropriate behavior should be clearly outlined, so the counselor may follow this statement with another: “If you continue to ask inappropriate questions, I will stop our discussion because that is the consequence for this behavior.” The counselor
should use care not to try to coax or threaten the client into behaving more appropriately.

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32
Q

Children who are diagnosed with conduct disorder at a young age (preteen) are most at risk for which of the following personality disorders as adults?
a. Borderline personality disorder
b. Histrionic personality disorder
c. Antisocial personality disorder
d. Narcissistic personality disorder

A

c. Antisocial personality disorder

Children who are diagnosed with conduct disorder at a young age (preteen) are most at risk of developing antisocial personality disorder as adults. Those who develop conduct disorder during adolescence are more amenable to treatment. Adults with antisocial personality disorder have a persistent lack of regard for others and violate the rights of others beginning during childhood or early adolescence although the diagnosis is only made after the person turns 18 and has
exhibited symptoms since age 15.

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33
Q

Which of the following statements is true when considering cultural and familial influences on self-esteem?
a. Chinese and Japanese children have higher self-esteem than North American children, mainly because their cultures
have higher academic standards for achievement
b. Boys tend to have lower self-esteem than girls
c. African American children tend to have lower self-esteem than Caucasian children
d. An authoritative parenting style usually allows children to have especially high self-esteem

A

d. An authoritative parenting style usually allows children to have especially high self-esteem

Asian children usually have lower self-esteem than their North American counterparts, while African American children have higher self-esteem than their Caucasian counterparts. Generally, boys have higher self-esteem than girls. An authoritative
parenting style is generally more accepting and less critical of children’s negative behavior: Parents tend to build their children’s self-esteem because the focus is on building a sense of worth and independence.

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34
Q

Working with individuals from different cultures requires that the counselor do all the following EXCEPT:
a. have sensitivity to the needs of the individuals.
b. make a referral to another counselor.
c. have knowledge about the different cultures.
d. consider utilizing an interpreter if language differences are also present

A

b. make a referral to another counselor.

It is not necessary that a counselor refer a client from another culture to another counselor. What is important is that the counselor demonstrates sensitivity to the needs of that client and has some knowledge about other cultures. If the cultural
differences are accompanied by language differences, respectful care would include an interpreter to ensure that the patient’s needs are being clearly explained and the counselor’s recommendations are provided to the patient with equal
clarity.

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35
Q

If a client states, “I don’t understand! My daughter said that she had to leave town,” which of the following is an appropriate clarifying response?
a. “Your daughter said she had to leave town?”
b. “Are you confused because you don’t know why she had to leave town?”
c. “Did she say anything else about it?”
d. “Why don’t you call her and ask for more information?”

A

b. “Are you confused because you don’t know why she had to leave town?”

If a client states, “I don’t understand. My daughter said that she had to leave town,” an appropriate clarifying question would
be “Are you confused because you don’t know why she had to leave town?” Clarifying questions are utilized to ensure that
the listener has understood the meaning (as opposed to just the words) of the client’s statement. Clarifying questions often
contain some paraphrase of what the client has stated and may include such phrases as “Did I understand you to say…?” or
“Did you say…?”

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36
Q

If a 27-year-old client with narcissistic personality disorder is pregnant and has made plans to have an abortion.
Abortion is legal in the client’s state, but the counselor is opposed to abortion for religious reasons. The counselor should do which of the following?
a. Discuss alternatives with the client
b. Provide literature about adoption
c. Advise the client her decision is morally wrong
d. Support the client’s decision

A

d. Support the client’s decision

If a 27-year-old client with narcissistic personality disorder is pregnant and has made plans to have an abortion but the counselor is opposed to abortion for religious reasons, the counselor should support the client’s decision. The client has the
legal right to make this decision, and the counselor must use care not to impose personal religious beliefs onto the client or try to pressure the client into making a different decision.

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37
Q

Jim decides to go for counseling and makes an appointment. When he gets there, the counselor gives him a
statement of disclosure. Which is true regarding this document?
a. A statement of disclosure is required by law in every state in the United States
b. A statement of disclosure is never required by law, but is highly recommended
c. A statement of disclosure may be required by law in some states and not others
d. A statement of disclosure should be given to a client after a course of therapy

A

c. A statement of disclosure may be required by law in some states and not others

A statement of disclosure is not required by law in every state of the U.S., but may be required in some states. Since it is required by law in some states, answer B is incorrect. A statement of disclosure is given to a potential or new client before
counseling begins, so answer D is incorrect.

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38
Q

Altruism may be explained by:
a. the leadership contingency model.
b. the social exchange theory.
c. catharsis.
d. matching hypothesis.

A

b. the social exchange theory.

The Social Exchange Theory reduces altruism to the simple factors of cost and gain. The theory says that people do things for those people from whom they can expect something in return. Of course, this theory does not explain all instances of altruistic
behavior, but it does point to the reason for some altruistic acts. In fact, some professionals theorize that there is no such thing as a purely altruistic act

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39
Q

The role of the therapist in strategic family therapy is all of the following EXCEPT:
a. find the myth that keeps a behavior going.
b. understand levels of communication.
c. focus on levels of organization.
d. overcome feelings of inferiority.

A

d. overcome feelings of inferiority.

Haley’s strategic family therapy describes the role of the therapist as finding the myths that keep behavior going, understanding levels of communication, and focusing on levels of organization in families. Overcoming feelings of inferiority is
part of the Adlerian family therapy.

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40
Q

In psychoanalytic theory, a dream’s “manifest content” is:
a. its conscious material.
b. its unconscious material.
c. its interpretation.
d. its real-life application

A

a. its conscious material.

In Freudian psychoanalysis, dream analysis is a psychotherapeutic technique used to interpret the client’s dreams. Freud
believed that dreams contain information about unconscious thoughts and conflicts that can be useful in treating the client.
“Manifest content” is the term given for the conscious (or remembered) parts of the dream. “Latent content” is unconscious (not remembered) material from the dream. Psychoanalysts analyze the manifest content (in an attempt to get at the latent content) as a way to better understand the inner workings of the client’s mind, especially material that might be sexual or aggressive in nature.

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40
Q

In standardized testing, a question that requires the test taker to select the only correct answer from among multiple supplied options is testing which of the following abilities?
a. Organization
b. Planning
c. Recognition
d. Recall

A

c. Recognition

Multiple-choice questions of any sort tap into a person’s recognition memory. The person is given information from which to
choose the correct answer. Recall is tapped using short-answer essays or a fill-in-the-blank format. Test takers are provided with very little information and must rely on their own recall memory to retrieve the answers. Organization and planning have no relevance here.

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41
Q

Premature termination of participation in a group usually occurs when an individual is:
a. not very motivated.
b. highly intelligent.
c. open to experiences.
d. empathetic

A

a. not very motivated.

Research shows that individuals who prematurely leave a group are less intelligent, poorly motivated, and high in denial. They have difficulties trusting others. Individuals who continue through the course of group counseling are open to new experiences, trusting, willing to listen to others, and empathetic. Trust is the most important characteristic for individuals who participate in group counseling. If a person is trusting, he will be more willing to open up to others, share experiences, benefit
from feedback, and empathize with others. People with more limited intelligence may not be able to maneuver social situations at an appropriate level of sophistication that is necessary for group success.

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42
Q

A client whose son has been arrested twice for drug use states that her son was forced to use drugs by other people and has no drug problem is probably utilizing which of the following ego defense mechanisms?
a. Displacement
b. Intellectualism
c. Denial
d. Rationalization

A

c. Denial

Denial: Completely refusing to acknowledge a situation that is stressful, such as ignoring a son’s probable drug problem.
Intellectualism: Using rational intellectual processes to deal with stress and loss, such as by discussing positive aspects of
being single. Displacement: Transferring feelings from one person or thing to another, such as being angry with a boss and
taking the anger out on a spouse. Rationalization: Attempting to find excuses for unacceptable behavior or feelings, such as
drinking to relieve the stress of work.

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42
Q

Which two psychologists most emphasize freedom of choice and responsibility in their theories?
a. B.F. Skinner and Arnold Lazarus
b. William Glasser and Rollo May
c. Carl Rogers and Heinz Kohut
d. Albert Ellis and Eric Berne

A

b. William Glasser and Rollo May

William Glasser’s reality therapy emphasizes that we determine our fate and are in charge of our lives. Rollo May’s existential therapy says we have freedom of choice and are responsible for our fate. B. F. Skinner became the primary proponent of behaviorism, which is deterministic and mechanistic in nature. Arnold Lazarus created multimodal therapy, which is holistic and eclectic in its approach but also has strong behavioral influences. These both emphasize learning rather than freedom and responsibility. Carl Rogers had a humanistic and holistic approach. While he believed the individual is self-directed, he emphasized warmth, empathy, self-acceptance and self-exploration more than personal responsibility. Heinz Kohut was a proponent of neo-Freudian psychoanalysis wherein the counselor is directive and in charge. He followed Freud’s belief in unconscious motivations and biological determinism, not freedom of choice. Albert Ellis focused more on rational self-analysis than on issues of freedom or responsibility, and Eric Berne viewed the counselor as a teacher who contracts with the client for positive change. He focused on analysis of transactions and on transformations.

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43
Q

Which of the following is true regarding validity and reliability of tests?
a. Validity is how consistent the test is
b. A test may be reliable, but not valid
c. A test may be valid, but not reliable
d. Reliability is specific to the situation

A

b. A test may be reliable, but not valid

A test may be reliable, meaning it is consistent and its results can be replicated, without being valid, meaning it does not test
what it claims to test. Answer A is the definition of reliability, not validity. Answer C is not true because valid tests will normally be reliable (unless the variable being measured changes). Answer D is not true of reliability but is true of validity, which is situation-specific (i.e., a test can be valid for some purposes but not for others).

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43
Q

A 32-year-old woman with borderline personality disorder and history of attempted suicide has been married for 8 years, but her husband is filing for divorce. She was found wandering in a state of confused panic about her neighborhood and brought to the ER. She feels extremely anxious and abandoned. Which initial intervention is
appropriate for this emotional crisis?
a. Stay with the client and reassure her
b. Administer anti-anxiety medication
c. Provide positive reinforcement
d. Draw up a no-suicide contract

A

a. Stay with the client and reassure her

The initial intervention for an emotional crisis reflecting psychopathology is to stay with the client and reassure her until her
panic subsides. People with BPD often feel insecure and inherently worthless. They are often erratic and have difficulty establishing long-term relationships although symptoms tend to lessen with age. The main feature of borderline personality
disorder (BPD) is a persistent pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotion. Two-thirds of those
diagnosed are female. Characteristics include attempts to avoid real or imagined abandonment and impulsivity in at least 2
areas.

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44
Q

Career choices as expressions of one’s personality are to ______________ as career choices as influenced by genetic endowment, environmental factors, and previous learning experiences are to _________________.
a. Krumboltz; Holland
b. Holland; Krumboltz
c. Roe; Krumboltz
d. Krumboltz; Roe

A

b. Holland; Krumboltz

Krumboltz is a behaviorist and, therefore, is interested not only in genetic endowment but in environmental factors and
learning experiences. Holland developed the SDS, which involves looking at an individual’s personality characteristics and matching them to clusters of job skills or interests. Therefore, Holland believes that career choices are expressions of one’s personality. Roe’s theory is developmental and includes not only aspects of one’s personality, but genetics, parent–child
relationships, and one’s early experiences.

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45
Q

The evidence-based Suicide Assessment Five-step Evaluation and Triage (SAFE-T) tool indicates that a client has modifiable risk factors for suicide and strong protective factors, resulting in an overall low risk factor although the client admits to thoughts of death but denies a plan or intent. Which of the following is the intervention that is most
indicated?
a. Outpatient treatment and crisis numbers
b. Crisis plan and crisis numbers
c. Admission to inpatient facility and crisis plan
d. Admission to inpatient facility with suicide precautions

A

a. Outpatient treatment and crisis numbers

Since the evidence-based SAFE-T tool indicates that the client is at low risk for suicide because risks (such as access to guns and health concerns) are modifiable and protective factors (such as religious beliefs and social supports) are strong, the
intervention that is most indicated is outpatient treatment with crisis numbers to call if the client needs support. The SAFE-T
tool has 5 steps: (1) assessment of risk factors, (2) assessment of protective factors, (3) suicide inquiry (specific questions
about plans, intent, ideation), (4) assignment of risk level (low, moderate, high) and appropriate intervention, and (5)
documentation and plans.

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46
Q

Which of these is correct about insurance laws related to counseling?
a. In some states, insurance laws now require licensed counselors to be reimbursed for treating certain mental illnesses
b. Insurance laws in all states now require that licensed counselors be reimbursed for treating certain mental illnesses
c. There is no law in any state of the U.S. requiring insurance companies to reimburse licensed counselors
d. Insurance laws in all states now require insurance companies to reimburse licensed counselors for all mental illnesses

A

a. In some states, insurance laws now require licensed counselors to be reimbursed for treating certain mental illnesses

Laws have changed in only some states to require insurance companies to reimburse licensed counselors, but often for only
certain mental illnesses. Newer laws do NOT exist in all states of the U.S. In the states where they do exist, they do NOT cover all mental illnesses

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47
Q

Which of the following are examples of negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia?
a. Hallucinations and delusions
b. Inappropriate clothing, aggressive behavior, stereotyped behavior
c. Abnormal thought processes and speech patterns
d. Blunt or flat affect, avolition, and reduced speech

A

d. Blunt or flat affect, avolition, and reduced speech

Negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia include blunt or flat affect, lack of energy and passivity (anergia), lack of motivation and inability to initiate tasks (avolition), poverty of speech content and speech production, and sudden interruption
in speech and thought patterns so that the client may stop speaking in the middle of an idea when the client loses track of what he or she was saying (thought stopping). Negative symptoms impair social functioning and the ability to hold a job
because of the client’s difficulty with decision-making and communication.

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48
Q

Jason is a computer programmer. He is an excellent engineer but is not good at technical support, because he doesn’t know how to converse easily with people. His wife, Sallie, is a teacher and she is great at explaining things. Children
and others love her. However, she can never get her computer to work. John Holland would identify Jason and Sallie respectively as which of his six personality types or styles?
a. Jason is mainly a realistic type and Sallie is mainly an artistic type
b. Jason is mainly an investigative type and Sallie is mainly a social type
c. Jason is mainly a conventional type and Sallie is mainly an enterprising type
d. Jason is mainly an enterprising type and Sallie is mainly a conventional type

A

b. Jason is mainly an investigative type and Sallie is mainly a social type

An investigative type prefers systematic, intellectual activities and has poor social skills. Examples include a computer
programmer or a chemist. This is Jason’s predominant type. A social type dislikes activities with tools or machines and prefers
activities that inform or develop other people. This is Sallie’s predominant type. A realistic type is aggressive, prefers explicit activities involving physical work, and has poor social skills (examples could include a mechanic or a technician). An artistic type is imaginative, prefers self-expression, and dislikes systematic and ordered activities (examples could include an artist or
an editor). A conventional type is practical, prefers structured activities, and dislikes ambiguous or unsystematic work (examples could include a file clerk or an accountant). An enterprising type is an extrovert who likes leadership roles and
persuasive endeavors and dislikes abstract tasks or activities requiring caution. Enterprising types might be salespersons, entrepreneurs, or those in management roles.

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49
Q

The counselor is concerned about how her group therapy sessions are progressing. What can she do?
a. Have an outside observer assess the group
b. She can evaluate the group dynamics herself
c. Ask her group members to each evaluate the group sessions
d. Choose a single group member to evaluate the group dynamics

A

a. Have an outside observer assess the group

An effective method to evaluate the progress of a group therapy session is to have an outside observer sit in on a session or
two, and evaluate the group dynamics. Using the group facilitator or counselor to evaluate the group may not always be the
most effective method, as the counselor would be evaluating his/her own performance. Likewise, group members are
ineffective at evaluating the group because of their personal involvement and possible lack of objectivity. An outside observer
brings an objective view to the situation and can more easily point out possible difficulties between group members, and
between the group and the facilitator.

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50
Q

A client who recently learned he had kidney cancer has been researching everything he can about the disease,
treatment, and outlook. Which defense mechanism is the client utilizing?
a. Rationalization
b. Repression
c. Intellectualism
d. Compensation

A

c. Intellectualism

If a client who recently learned he had kidney cancer has been researching everything he can about the disease, treatment,
and outlook, the defense mechanism the client is utilizing is intellectualism, examining all the facts in a straightforward
manner in order to avoid an emotional reaction. Rationalization is explaining unacceptable thoughts or behavior in a positive
light. Repression is a mental process that removes thoughts and emotions from consciousness. Compensation is the act of
overachieving in one way in order to make up for lack of achievement in another.

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51
Q

If a client is taking Thorazine, he’s taking an:
a. Antidepressant
b. Antipsychotic
c. Antiemetic
d. Antispasmodic

A

b. Antipsychotic

Antipsychotic (or neuroleptic) medications have been in use since the 1950s and are quite effective overall for schizophrenia.
These medications work by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain. They are not, however, a cure-all. The need for
medication is highly individualized and may or may not work depending upon the situation. Some patients are helped a great
deal, but for others the medications aren’t effective. Antipsychotic drugs are often particularly helpful with delusions and
hallucinations. Reported side effects include weight gain, drowsiness, muscle spasms, fidgeting, shaking, or stiffness, and
sometimes heart problems. Commonly prescribed antipsychotic medications are quetiapine, chlorpromazine, and
aripiprazole.

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52
Q

A therapy group for women who have suffered intimate partner violence has agreed to avoid making negative
comments about each other, but during one discussion, one member tells another, “You are a complete idiot if you
believe your husband is going to change his behavior!” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
a. “I can see you are concerned, but we have agreed to avoid negative comments about each other.”
b. “You are violating the rules of conduct by calling her an idiot.”
c. “You need to stop making negative comments!”
d. “What did we agree on about the rules of conduct?”

A

a. “I can see you are concerned, but we have agreed to avoid negative comments about each other.”

If a therapy group for women who have suffered intimate partner violence has agreed to avoid making negative comments
about each other, but during one discussion, one member tells another, “You are a complete idiot if you believe your husband
is going to change his behavior!” the most appropriate response is, “I can see you are concerned, but we have agreed to
avoid negative comments about each other.” Instead of blaming or pointing the finger, this acknowledges the client’s feelings
while still pointing out the violation.

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53
Q

The first professional counseling association (and its founding year) was:
a. the National Vocational Guidance Association in 1913.
b. the Vocation Bureau in Boston in 1908.
c. the American Personnel and Guidance Association in 1952.
d. the Office of Vocational Rehabilitation in 1954.

A

a. the National Vocational Guidance Association in 1913.

The National Vocational Guidance Association founded in 1913 is known as the first professional counseling association.
Though the Vocation Bureau in Boston, directed by Frank Parsons, began earlier in 1908, it is not known as the first
professional counseling association. The APGA founded in 1952 and the OVR founded in 1954 were both founded later than
the NVGA.

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54
Q

In existential therapy, what do umwelt, mitwelt, and eigenwelt mean respectively?
a. Identity of self, physical system, relationships
b. Physical system, relationships, identity of self
c. Relationships, identity of self, physical system
d. Identity of self, relationships, physical system

A

b. Physical system, relationships, identity of self

Umwelt means the world of the physical or biological system. Mitwelt refers to the world of relationships. Eigenwelt is the
world of self-identity. (Welt means world in German. Um means around and umwelt means environment. Mit means with, so
Mitwelt refers to one’s relationships with others. Eigen means one’s own, so Eigenwelt is one’s own world or the self.)

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54
Q

The role of the professional career counselor involves which of the following:
a. facilitating self-awareness.
b. teaching decision-making skills.
c. teaching employability skills.
d. the counselor’s role involves all of the above

A

d. the counselor’s role involves all of the above

Career counselors are involved in all of these activities. They help clients become better aware of themselves, teach decision making skills, and teach employability skills

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55
Q

The Code of Ethics is:
a. legal and binding.
b. a hard and fast set of rules.
c. a set of standards of best practice.
d. All of the above

A

c. a set of standards of best practice.

A code of ethics is not a legal and binding document, nor is it a set of strict rules by which counselors must abide. It is really a
guideline or a set of standards for best professional and moral conduct. There usually are no right or wrong answers to ethical
dilemmas. When confronted with an ethical dilemma, discuss it with other counselors and/or contact the ethics committee.

56
Q

Believing that the significant other of an individual must love them for anything they do, would be an example from
what theory?
a. REBT
b. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Aversive therapy
d. Operant conditioning

A

a. REBT

Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT), by Albert Ellis, deals not only with behaviors and feelings, but also with the
thoughts behind them. Irrational ideas are believed to be the basic reason for the unpleasant and/or unwanted feelings and
behaviors of a client. Ellis theorized that there are twelve core irrational beliefs that can cause or sustain psychological
difficulties. One of those core beliefs is that the significant others of an individual must love them for nearly anything they do,
instead of the healthier focus on self-respect and loving others without expectation of love being returned.

57
Q

A counselor is conducting the initial screening of individuals who may be included in group therapy for victims of
domestic violence. The MOST appropriate candidate for the group would be one who:
a. has a severe mental illness.
b. lacks cognitive and thinking abilities.
c. is free from the use of alcohol or other drugs.
d. has a history of violence or uncontrolled anger.

A

c. is free from the use of alcohol or other drugs.

Individuals who have been diagnosed with severe mental illness, have histories of being violent or explosive, have limited
cognitive or thinking abilities, are unable to communicate effectively, or use alcohol or other recreational drugs are, generally
speaking, not good candidates for inclusion in a group. It is important for all group members to feel safe (particularly those
with a past of domestic violence), and having an individual who is prone to violence in the group may compromise safety. It is
also important that all group members effectively communicate, process, and understand interpersonal relationships at a
functional level. Therefore, individuals with limited capacities for any of these skills would not be good candidates for
inclusion in a group. The process of a group is to learn and practice more appropriate social interaction skills. Someone who
is incapable of understanding social interaction skills would not be a good candidate for the group.

57
Q

Which of the following does NOT use John Holland’s typology for determining a person’s career type?
a. The Vocational Preference Inventory
b. The Self-Directed Search
c. The Career Pattern Study
d. The Career Assessment Inventory

A

c. The Career Pattern Study

The Career Pattern Study was a study by Donald Super that investigated the vocational behavior of individuals from 9th grade
into their 30s. He found that career maturity and achievement in high school were predictive of the same behaviors in
adulthood. The Vocational Preference Inventory and the Self-Directed Search were both developed by John Holland for
identifying a person’s predominant vocational personality type according to his typology. The Career Assessment Inventory is
an instrument developed by Charles B. Johansson, which adopted Holland’s typology. The Strong Interest Inventory is
another instrument in which Strong also used Holland’s typology.

58
Q

Which of the following didactic treatment modes can be used to provide information about an individual’s diagnosis,
medication compliance, prognosis, and treatment adherence?
a. Psychoeducation
b. Crisis intervention
c. Group therapy
d. Primary prevention

A

a. Psychoeducation

Psychoeducation is didactic in nature and can be used to provide information about an individual’s diagnosis, medication
compliance, prognosis, and treatment adherence. There are elements of psychoeducation that can be delivered via crisis
intervention; however, the main goal of crisis interventions is to assess the client for safety and explore treatment options to
match the client’s required level of care. Group therapy, particularly process groups, is designed to help individuals with
similar concerns. The process goals of group therapy are relational and can be elicited by providing members with a safe and
appropriate therapeutic environment. Primary prevention services are used to reach individuals who may be at risk but have
not yet developed a specific problem; this differs from psychoeducation in that psychoeducation targets an identified
diagnosis or specific problem.

59
Q

A marriage and family counselor treating a 10-year-old daughter and her mother tells the daughter that if she loads the
dishwasher on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays, then she and her mother will go shopping at the mall on Saturday.
The counselor then has the mother and the daughter sign a contract to that effect. This is an example of:
a. positive punishment.
b. negative reinforcement.
c. shaping through successive approximations.
d. quid pro quo.

A

d. quid pro quo.

This is an example of quid pro quo: “If you do something for me, I’ll do something for you.” In this case, the act of loading the
dishwasher would be an act that the daughter does for the mother, and the subsequent act of taking the daughter shopping
would be the act the mother does for the daughter. Positive punishment is the act of adding a negative stimulus after an
unwanted behavior in order to decrease the unwanted behavior. Negative reinforcement deals with the removal of
unpleasant consequences when a desired behavior occurs.

60
Q

An adolescent male is seeing the counselor after he was arrested along with four other boys for breaking into a school
and vandalizing it as part of an initiation into a club. The client states he was aware that what he was doing was wrong but didn’t question and went along with the group anyway. This is an example of which dynamic that can take
place in a group?
a. Diffusion of responsibility
b. Deindividuation
c. Mob action
d. Psychopathy

A

b. Deindividuation

If an adolescent male is seeing the counselor after he was arrested along with four other boys for breaking into a school and
vandalizing it as part of an initiation into a club and states he was aware that what he was doing was wrong but didn’t
questions and went along with the group anyway, this is an example of deindividuation. Being immersed in a group caused
the client to be less aware of his own sense of value and to do things that he would likely not have done by himself.

61
Q

There are various stages in group therapy. Which of the following is one of them?
a. Sublimation
b. Invitation
c. Initiation
d. Storming

A

d. Storming

61
Q

A client has been diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder. Which of the following is generally the recommended therapeutic approach?
a. Cognitive behavioral therapy
b. Mindfulness-based therapy
c. Group therapy
d. Psychotherapy (talk therapy)

A

d. Psychotherapy (talk therapy)

If a client has been diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder, the therapy approach that is generally recommended is
psychotherapy, focusing on personality traits. Change is often difficult, and the client may require therapy for extended
periods before making progress, especially if the client is not motivated to make changes. Those with narcissistic personality
disorder typically have little empathy for others and have an elevated sense of their own importance and a strong need for
approval and admiration.

62
Q

What is J. P. Guilford known for?
a. Developing IQ testing for mental patients
b. Studying inherited intellectual qualities
c. Investigating individual differences and intellect
d. Intellectual testing of children with autism

A

c. Investigating individual differences and intellect

J. P. Guilford was an American psychologist known primarily for his study of intellectual ability and individual differences. He
also did research in creativity, which he associated with “divergent thinking.” He believed that intelligence testing wouldn’t be
as effective with divergent thinking/creative people so he developed special tests for divergent thinkers, which are used with
gifted children and others. He believed that creative people could actually achieve lower IQ scores because of the manner in
which they approached the testing. He was one of the early theorists who believed intelligence to be a complex, diverse
issue, and that a variety of differences and abilities must be taken into account.

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group counseling?
a. Cost-effectiveness
b. Focus on individual needs
c. Opportunities for feedback
d. Structured practice

A

b. Focus on individual needs

64
Q

An appropriate primary intervention for clients at risk of emotional illness resulting from trauma, such as an act of
violence, is to do which of the following?
a. Clarify the client’s problem
b. Refer for inpatient treatment
c. Provide behavioral modification therapy
d. Institute a suicide prevention plan

A

a. Clarify the client’s problem

An appropriate primary intervention for clients at risk of emotional illness resulting from trauma, such as an act of violence, is
to clarify the client’s problem to ensure that both the client and the counselor are perceiving the problem in the same manner.
Other primary interventions related to trauma include focusing on a reality approach, avoiding lengthy explanations of the
problem, helping the client understand what precipitated the problem, acknowledging the client’s feelings, and showing
unconditional acceptance.

65
Q

There are many confounding variables that can threaten an experiment’s validity, but which of the following is MOST
likely to threaten both internal validity and external validity?
a. Attrition (mortality)
b. Instrumentation
c. Selection of subjects
d. Experimenter bias

A

c. Selection of subjects

65
Q

Convergent validation and discriminant validation occur within what type of validity?
a. Content validity
b. Predictive validity
c. Construct validity
d. Concurrent validity

A

c. Construct validity

Construct validity exists when a test successfully measures a hypothetical construct, such as locus of control, field
dependency, creativity, etc. Convergent validation occurs when the construct being studied correlates highly with other
constructs. Discriminant validation occurs when there is no statistically significant correlation with other constructs. Content
validity refers to the instrument containing items from the proper domain of usable items. Predictive validity refers to the
confirmation of a test’s predictions by later behaviors or other measurable criteria. Concurrent validity refers to test results
being successfully compared with other criteria or test results at the same time.

66
Q

Which of these is true about professional liability insurance for counselors?
a. This insurance is always required by law in every state of the U. S.
b. This insurance is required by law in some states, but not in others
c. This insurance is not required by law and is an unnecessary expense
d. This insurance is not recommended since it invites litigation

A

b. This insurance is required by law in some states, but not in others

67
Q

Negative reinforcement _______________ the behavior by ________________ a negative stimulus; positive
reinforcement ______________ the behavior by ____________ a reinforcer.
a. increases, taking away; increases, adding
b. increases, taking away; increases, taking away
c. decreases, adding; increases, adding
d. decreases, taking away; increases, taking away

A

a. increases, taking away; increases, adding

68
Q

Why did R. K. Conyne create the “Group Work Grid”?
a. To address psychotic issues among group members
b. To expand practical understanding of group work
c. In hopes of eliminating intergroup resistance issues
d. To clarify working relationships between group members

A

b. To expand practical understanding of group work

69
Q

Emotion-focused coping is:
a. usually the best coping strategy.
b. less effective overall than problem-focused coping.
c. rarely a good coping strategy.
d. more effective overall than problem-focused coping.

A

b. less effective overall than problem-focused coping.

Emotion-focused coping can be productive in times when a delay in dealing with stress is the best course of action; however, overall, problem-focused coping is usually the best strategy.

69
Q

A 20-year-old male college student has been referred for evaluation by his family. They note that over the last six to
seven months he has increasingly avoided contact and/or talking with family members and friends, that he often
seems intensely preoccupied, and that his hygiene and grooming have become very poor. In speaking with him the
counselor notes that he seems very guarded, that his affect is virtually expressionless, and that he resists talking.
When able to coax him to speak, his speech is very tangential, disorganized, and even incoherent at times. He seems
to be responding to internal stimuli (hallucinations and/or intrusive thoughts). The family and he deny substance
abuse. Which would be the MOST likely diagnosis?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Somatization disorder
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Major depression with psychotic features

A

a. Schizophrenia

Typical symptoms of schizophrenia include: grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior and/or speech, delusions and/or
hallucinations, blunted affect (poor or inappropriate expressive responses to external stimuli), autism (intense self-preoccupation). Continuous signs of symptoms must be present (allowing for waxing and waning fluctuations) for six or more months. There are five types: 1) paranoid; 2) disorganized; 3) catatonic; 4) undifferentiated; and, 5) residual. Early mild symptoms are sometimes referred to as prodromal schizophrenia.

70
Q

A(n) _____________ schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish.
a. fixed interval
b. consistent
c. systematic
d. variable ratio

A

d. variable ratio

The unpredictability of a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement makes it the hardest to extinguish because the subject
doesn’t know if he will get reinforced the next time or in five minutes or after twenty tries. All the other schedules of
reinforcement are predictable.

71
Q

If a counselor is conducting an experiment and chooses a significance level of .01, what does this mean?
a. It means that the counselor is willing to accept the possibility of erring in accepting or rejecting the null
hypothesis one time out of one hundred
b. It means that the counselor is willing to accept the possibility of erring in conducting the experiment in one percent
of the trials made
c. It means that the counselor is willing to accept the possibility that the instruments will err in their measurements one
out of ten times
d. It means that the counselor is willing to accept the possibility that the hypothesis will be wrong in ten out of one
hundred experiments

A

a. It means that the counselor is willing to accept the possibility of erring in accepting or rejecting the null
hypothesis one time out of one hundred

Significance level means the degree to which one is likely to make a mistake in either rejecting or accepting the null
hypothesis when they should not (i.e., There is not a significant difference between experimental groups but the null
hypothesis is rejected, or there is indeed a significant difference but the null hypothesis is not is accepted). Conventions of
experimental research tend to use significance levels of .05, .01, or .001. A level of .01, as in this question, means that one is
willing to accept the possibility of error in one out of one hundred experimental trials. Significance level does not refer to
actually executing the experiment itself wrongly, nor does it refer to errors of instrumentation or to the hypothesis itself being
incorrect. Additionally, in answer D, “ten out of one hundred” is wrong. In answer C, “one out of ten” is also wrong.

72
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the FERPA?
a. The acronym stands for the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
b. This law is also referred to as the Buckley Amendment
c. The intention of this act was to protect individuals’ privacy
d. It gives students’ parents access to their counseling records

A

d. It gives students’ parents access to their counseling records

73
Q

Terry’s average score per basketball game is 27 points. This places him sixth among all the forwards in the Midwest
basketball league. The type of measurement described in this example as it relates to Terry’s rank is:
a. ordinal.
b. ratio.
c. interval.
d. nominal.

A

a. ordinal.

74
Q

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia was admitted to an inpatient hospitalization program and is now ready for discharge. He has responded well to medication and group therapy and is no longer a threat to himself. However, he continues to need assistance with treating avolition and anhedonia. Which level of care would best meet the client’s current needs?
a. Outpatient therapy
b. Residential treatment
c. Partial hospitalization
d. Crisis stabilization unit

A

c. Partial hospitalization

75
Q

The only test a counselor is using with her client has a reliability of 0.60, so she should:
a. feel confident that the results are accurate.
b. consider the results to be questionable, but still acceptable.
c. disregard the results of the test as the reliability is too low.
d. realize that the reliability is low, but still consider the test to be acceptable.

A

c. disregard the results of the test as the reliability is too low.

Reliability levels of 0.60 or below are often considered to be too low to be acceptable. Lower levels can be acceptable only if
the counselor is using the information gained from the test in conjunction with other tests or information and should not be
considered if the counselor is using it as the primary source of information about the client. A high reliability is considered
0.90, with 0.80 as moderate and 0.70 as low reliability. A reliability of 0.60 would be considered by most to be too low to be
of significant use.

76
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason to use nonparametric statistics?
a. There is a homogeneous sample
b. There is a normal score distribution
c. There are two independent samples
d. There is nominal (categorical) data

A

b. There is a normal score distribution

77
Q

In “rater bias,” a supervisor who rates an employee negatively overall simply because of one very negative attribute is
using what type of rater bias?
a. Halo
b. Severity
c. Horns
d. Recency

A

c. Horns

78
Q

Robert Carkhuff proposed a five-point scale to measure the quality of a counselor’s empathic responses. Which level
does the following example best represent? Client: Oh, my wife yelled at me so bad you wouldn’t believe it! It just
killed me!!! Counselor: What did she say?
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4-5

A

a. Level 1

78
Q

Raymond Cattell’s “factor analysis” theory refers to three types of traits. What are they?
a. Source, surface, and unique
b. Original, modulating, and final
c. New, old, and resolved
d. Complex, simple, and modulated

A

a. Source, surface, and unique

79
Q

When beginning a counseling relationship, the counselor is ethically required to:
a. inform the patient of the limits of confidentiality.
b. explain that everything said during sessions will remain confidential.
c. keep a detailed record of what is said during each session.
d. write very few details of what is said during each session.

A

a. inform the patient of the limits of confidentiality.

80
Q

Dr. Stanwyck has determined that his two groups of students have significantly different scores on the post-test of
self-efficacy he gave to them after two different courses of counseling. Now he wants to find out whether there is also
a statistically significant interaction between the two groups’ mean scores. What kind of test would he be likely to use
to determine this?
a. A one-way ANOVA
b. A factorial ANOVA
c. A MANOVA
d. An ANCOVA

A

b. A factorial ANOVA

81
Q

MMPI-A and CPI are to _________________ as Rorschach and TAT are to __________________.
a. interest inventories; subjective tests.
b. objective tests; interest inventories.
c. objective tests; standardized tests.
d. objective tests; subjective tests

A

d. objective tests; subjective tests

82
Q

The goals of what type of therapy include gaining knowledge about the self and recognizing and integrating the self?
a. Adlerian
b. Jungian
c. Existential
d. Freudian

A

b. Jungian

Jungian therapists believe in a collective unconscious. Another key concept of Jungian therapy is the archetype. The goal of
Jungian therapy is to transform the self by gaining knowledge about the self (collective unconscious, archetypes, personal
unconscious) and then recognizing and integrating all aspects of the self (archetypes, etc.).

82
Q

Daniel Levinson’s work has been criticized as being too limited because:
a. his developmental life stages did not include any transitional periods.
b. his samples used for research and data collection were limiting.
c. he believed that there is a midlife crisis, but many do not see a crisis.
d. he stated that people question their lives but did not include careers.

A

b. his samples used for research and data collection were limiting.

83
Q

Hypnotherapy is used today for:
a. headaches.
b. childbirth.
c. chronic pain.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

84
Q

The best kind of random sampling technique that would include 10% Asian, 10% Hispanic, and 15% African American, as well as individuals from the majority ethnic group, would be a:
a. mixed randomized sampling technique.
b. stratified sampling technique.
c. cluster sampling technique.
d. random chance sampling technique.

A

b. stratified sampling technique.

85
Q

A client’s employer has mandated that she take an immediate vacation. She is resistant, feeling she needs to work harder to prove herself. The company’s concern, however, may more likely be related to:
a. cost-cutting techniques.
b. the eventual elimination of her job.
c. occupational stress.
d. interpersonal conflicts.

A

c. occupational stress.

86
Q

Down syndrome is caused by:
a. prenatal drug use.
b. environmental factors.
c. poor parenting.
d. a chromosomal abnormality

A

d. a chromosomal abnormality

87
Q

Adlerian family therapy involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. overcoming feelings of inferiority.
b. promoting social interest.
c. pinpointing irrational beliefs.
d. investigating goals of behavior.

A

c. pinpointing irrational beliefs.

88
Q

Of the following, which is the lowest acceptable p-value bound if a researcher needs to demonstrate that something
is 98% statistically significant?
a. p < 0.05
b. p < 0.01
c. p < 0.001
d. p < 0.10

A

b. p < 0.01

89
Q

Under the ethical principles of informed consent, a counselor must inform each client of:
a. the limits of confidentiality.
b. her credentials.
c. issues related to third-party billing and missed appointments.
d. Both A and C

A

d. Both A and C

90
Q

A client wants to enter into treatment with a counselor but does not have insurance. He reports that he can afford to
pay only $25 per session. The usual fee is $100. In this case, the counselor would:
a. refuse to see him unless he can pay the usual fee.
b. charge him the usual fee and have him make installment payments.
c. consider his financial situation and negotiate a reduced fee if this is warranted.
d. make a referral to someone else.

A

c. consider his financial situation and negotiate a reduced fee if this is warranted.

91
Q

A counselor is court-ordered to disclose confidential information about a client he is counseling. What does the
counselor do?
a. Limit, as much as possible, any possibly damaging personal information
b. Divulge any and all information about the client as court-ordered
c. Attempt to obtain written permission from the client to share confidential information
d. Both A and C

A

d. Both A and C

92
Q

Someone who always agrees with anything the other group therapy members say is:
a. nonassertive.
b. assertive.
c. passive aggressive.
d. play-acting.

A

a. nonassertive.

92
Q

The Inuit word “piblokto” refers to “arctic hysteria” characterized by uncontrolled screaming and crying that is often
accompanied by running through the snow naked. This is an example of what kind of disorder?
a. Culture-specific
b. Culture shock
c. Culture free
d. Cross-cultural

A

a. Culture-specific

92
Q

What is John Bowlby best known for?
a. Psychosocial development theory
b. Behavioral therapy
c. The Oedipus complex
d. Attachment theory

A

d. Attachment theory

93
Q

A malpractice claim can be lodged against a counselor when:
a. the counselor was negligent.
b. the client suffered physical or psychological injury.
c. a professional relationship was established.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

93
Q

Which of these is NOT generally identified as a circumstance in which testing may be useful?
a. Job or educational placement
b. Counseling
c. Diagnosis
d. None of these

A

d. None of these

94
Q

What’s the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?
a. A test for personality disorders
b. A personality test
c. An intelligence test
d. A test of neurological function

A

b. A personality test

94
Q

Which is NOT included in the conditions required for a successful malpractice claim against a therapist?
a. A professional relationship was established
b. There was a breach of duty causing an injury
c. The client disliked the counselor’s methods
d. A client was physically or psychologically injured

A

c. The client disliked the counselor’s methods

95
Q

Two clients are referred to a counselor and deemed to be “workaholics.” One enjoys his work, and the other does not.
Which is likely to be more problematic?
a. The client who enjoys his work
b. The client who does not enjoy his work
c. Neither is likely to be problematic
d. Both are likely to be equally problematic

A

b. The client who does not enjoy his work

96
Q

Jennifer has to choose between spending the evening with her parents or spending the evening babysitting her
younger sister. Jennifer does not like either of these choices. This situation describes an:
a. approach-avoidance conflict.
b. avoidance-avoidance conflict.
c. approach-approach conflict.
d. avoidance vector.

A

b. avoidance-avoidance conflict.

97
Q

A client was involved in a severe accident that resulted in the death of the client’s spouse and child, but in the hours
since the accident, the client has been unable to recall anything about the accident. Which of the following types of
amnesia is the client likely experiencing?
a. Selective
b. Localized
c. Generalized
d. Systematized

A

b. Localized

Localized amnesia, usually occurs in
response to severe trauma and persists for hours or days. Selective amnesia involves the inability to remember some
aspects of a traumatic event while remembering other aspects

98
Q

In contrast to a homogeneous group, a heterogeneous group:
a. is more cohesive and supportive.
b. has more diversity within its membership.
c. has less conflict among participants.
d. focuses on one specific problem.

A

b. has more diversity within its membership.

98
Q

A 22-year-old female is receiving haloperidol for schizoaffective disorder. She was admitted to the psychiatric unit
with delusional thinking, rapid disorganized speech, irritability, and lethargy. She has begun slapping at her face
repeatedly. Which assessment tool is most indicated?
a. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS)
b. CAGE
c. Mini-mental state exam (MMSE)
d. Confusion Assessment Method

A

a. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS)

98
Q

According to Albert Bandura, observational learning happens primarily through:
a. reinforcement.
b. trial and error.
c. cognition.
d. conditioning.

A

c. cognition.

99
Q

What is meant by the term “regression toward the mean?”
a. It means that most individuals are more likely to score near the mean on most standardized tests
b. It means that most individuals’ standardized test scores will go down from a pretest to a posttest
c. It means that those individuals scoring near the mean on a pretest will score lower on a posttest
d. It means that most scoring very high or low on a pretest will score nearer the mean on a posttest

A

d. It means that most scoring very high or low on a pretest will score nearer the mean on a posttest

99
Q

Which is one of Glasser’s five fundamental needs from Choice Theory?
a. Freedom
b. Wealth
c. Happiness
d. Meaningful work

A

a. Freedom

100
Q

Ethical dilemmas often center on issues related to:
a. dual relationships.
b. confidentiality.
c. credentials of test administrators.
d. licensure.

A

b. confidentiality.

100
Q

An 8-year-old boy has been sleeping poorly, complaining of stomachaches, crying frequently, and refusing to go to
school. A complete physical examination ruled out a physical ailment. As part of an assessment for anxiety, which of
the following is the simplest assessment tool to use with a child?
a. Hamilton Anxiety Scale (HAS)
b. Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI)
c. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
d. Revised Children’s Manifest Anxiety Scale (RCMAS)

A

d. Revised Children’s Manifest Anxiety Scale (RCMAS)

101
Q

A group that is focused on a common disorder, learning about that disorder, and gaining the appropriate coping skills
to manage that theme is most likely a:
a. cognitive behavioral group.
b. self-help group.
c. psychoeducation group.
d. T-group

A

c. psychoeducation group.

101
Q

Which of the following pairs of personality theorists and perspectives is INCORRECT?
a. Abraham Maslow; humanist
b. Carl Rogers; humanist
c. Carl Jung; genetic
d. Sigmund Freud; psychodynamic

A

c. Carl Jung; genetic

101
Q

Which group of students would be least likely to seek out career counseling?
a. Students in high school or middle school
b. Students with high responsibilities at home such as taking care of younger siblings
c. Students entering college
d. Students who were taking college prep courses in high school

A

b. Students with high responsibilities at home such as taking care of younger siblings

102
Q

Which of these is NOT a condition for which testing should be used?
a. Gaining self-understanding
b. Licensure and certification
c. Labeling some individuals
d. For educational planning

A

c. Labeling some individuals

103
Q

A 10-year-old boy refuses to eat at the dinner table with the rest of the family and often stays home when the family
goes to the zoo or a museum. According to Minuchin, this youngster is _____________ the family.
a. disengaged from
b. enmeshed in
c. the placater in
d. triangulated in

A

a. disengaged from

104
Q

In a group therapy setting, what is a “gate keeper”?
a. A way to ensure that therapy goals are set and consistently met
b. The individual who ensures the group remains “open” or “closed”
c. A role assumed by a group therapy member
d. The means by which therapy goals are safeguarded

A

c. A role assumed by a group therapy member

105
Q

The psychodynamic model has a _______ unit of study; the experiential model has a ______ unit of study; the
transgenerational model has a _______ unit of study; and the strategic model has a ________ unit of study.
a. monadic; dyadic; triadic; dyadic and triadic
b. dyadic; monadic; monadic and dyadic; triadic
c. monadic; dyadic and triadic; triadic; dyadic
d. triadic; monadic and dyadic; dyadic; triadic

A

a. monadic; dyadic; triadic; dyadic and triadic

105
Q

What idea is Francis Galton known for?
a. Statistical relevance studies
b. Inherited intellectual abilities
c. Statistical validity studies
d. Personality testing

A

b. Inherited intellectual abilities

106
Q

What is a “token economy”?
a. A behavioral modification technique
b. A temporary, experimental economic system
c. A way to test a societal economic construct
d. A new type of dream analysis

A

a. A behavioral modification technique

107
Q

Which one of the following includes legislative and non-legislative actions designed to promote the counseling
profession by removing barriers inhibiting the growth and development of others?
a. Consultation
b. Gatekeeping
c. Bartering
d. Advocacy

A

d. Advocacy

108
Q

Which of the following is a warning sign that a counselor is developing a relationship with a client that is too
personal?
a. Enjoying meeting with the client
b. Recognizing that the client’s values are different from the counselor’s values
c. Feeling attracted to a client but not acting on the attraction
d. Asking the client about personal matters unrelated to client’s needs

A

d. Asking the client about personal matters unrelated to client’s needs

108
Q

What is the Minnesota Job Description Questionnaire used for?
a. Determining what job is best for the client specific to Minnesota
b. Describing the characteristics of jobs currently available
c. Measuring the reinforcing characteristics of an occupation
d. A survey to evaluate job satisfaction

A

c. Measuring the reinforcing characteristics of an occupation

109
Q

A 22-year old college student comes for counseling following a visit to a hospital emergency room where he was
complaining of chest pain. The medical work-up was negative. During the counseling session the counselor learns
that his father recently died of a heart attack (a few weeks ago) while he was away at school, and that he is now
experiencing episodes of sudden-onset fear accompanied by symptoms such as a rapid heart rate, sweating,
tremors, chest pain, and shortness of breath, and feelings that he is about to die. After a short time, the symptoms
subside. In recent days he has been sleeping outside the hospital, fearful that he may not otherwise arrive in time
when the symptoms strike. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Generalized anxiety disorder
b. Panic disorder
c. Somatization disorder
d. Post-traumatic stress disorder

A

b. Panic disorder

110
Q

A client with a long history of alcoholism had worked as an engineer but has been unemployed for four years and is
now in early stages of recovery and wants to find work. The counselor should advise the client to do which of the
following?
a. Apply for engineering jobs
b. Wait to apply for work for at least 6 months
c. Contact previous employers about jobs
d. Apply for jobs that are less demanding

A

d. Apply for jobs that are less demanding

111
Q

If a client has a smoking habit, Sigmund Freud might say he is:
a. in need of behavioral therapy.
b. anal-retentive.
c. orally fixated.
d. in the latent period.

A

c. orally fixated.

111
Q
  1. What is abnormal behavior?
    a. Behavior that is maladaptive and harmful
    b. Behavior that is atypical
    c. Behavior that is not “normal”
    d. Behavior that is different from that of the individual’s peer group
A

a. Behavior that is maladaptive and harmful

112
Q

As of the 21st century, the number of certified and licensed counselors in the U.S. is close to:
a. 10,000.
b. 50,000.
c. 100,000.
d. 1,000,000.

A

c. 100,000.

113
Q

What does a “correlation strategy” measure?
a. How strong the relation is between things
b. The way in which the experiment is conducted
c. The “strategy” for graphing the experiment’s results
d. The validity of a research study

A

a. How strong the relation is between things

114
Q

What is the difference between confidentiality and privileged communication?
a. Confidentiality is a legal concept, and privileged communication is an ethical concept
b. Confidentiality is an ethical concept, and privileged communication is a legal concept
c. Confidentiality and privileged communication are both legal and are the same thing
d. Confidentiality and privileged communication are ethical concepts and are the same

A

b. Confidentiality is an ethical concept, and privileged communication is a legal concept

115
Q

Albert Bandura’s best-known research was his:
a. psychoanalytic attachment study.
b. Little Albert experiment.
c. Bobo doll study.
d. behavioral contrast research.

A

c. Bobo doll study.

116
Q

During the intake interview and beginning stages of counseling, which of the following correctly identifies the
pathway to developing a client’s treatment plan?
a. Assessment, diagnosis, case conceptualization, and treatment planning
b. Assessment, case conceptualization, diagnosis, and treatment planning
c. Case conceptualization, assessment, diagnosis, and treatment planning
d. Case conceptualization, diagnosis, assessment, and treatment planning

A

a. Assessment, diagnosis, case conceptualization, and treatment planning

117
Q

A counselor with several clients is also adjusting to a difficult divorce. The counselor is not sleeping or eating well, is
highly distractible, and is generally less in-touch with her emotional state. The counselor should:
a. continue to see clients as she regularly would.
b. discontinue client contact until she has adjusted to her new life situation.
c. seek psychological help for herself.
d. be alert to her mental status and be able to determine if continuing with her clients poses any threat of being
detrimental to the counseling process.

A

d. be alert to her mental status and be able to determine if continuing with her clients poses any threat of being
detrimental to the counseling process.

117
Q

Harry is a little boy whose parents have taken him to a behavior therapist. The parents want some help getting him
to clean up his room, go to bed on time, get dressed for school in the morning, and complete other similar daily
activities without a struggle or a big fight. The therapist makes a chart for Harry. Every time he completes a desired
behavior, he gets a gold star on the chart for that activity. At the end of each week, he and his parents count his gold
stars, and he gets a reward based on the number of stars—a pizza or ice cream treat, a movie, etc.—something he
values. Which of the following is the most accurate name for the technique that Harry’s therapist is using?
a. Token economy
b. Reinforcement schedule
c. Systematic desensitization
d. Negative reinforcement

A

a. Token economy

118
Q

What would Erich Fromm have said about religion?
a. It may inhibit healthy growth and development
b. It may be used to encourage warfare
c. It’s fine to have religious faith and experience
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

119
Q

The test created by David Wechsler is what type of test?
a. IQ
b. Personality
c. Developmental
d. Functional

A

a. IQ

120
Q

Reinforcement ___________ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again, and punishment _________________ the
likelihood of the behavior to occur again.
a. increases; increases
b. decreases; increases
c. increases; decreases
d. decreases; decreases

A

c. increases; decreases

121
Q

A client in a support group assumes that another member of the group who is hearing impaired is also intellectually
disabled. Which of the following is the correct description of this attitude?
a. Halo effect
b. Guilt by association
c. Disability as punishment
d. Horn effect

A

d. Horn effect

122
Q

According to the “bystander effect,” an individual is ____ likely to help someone in need if that individual is the only
other person present.
a. more
b. less
c. just as
d. not

A

a. more

123
Q

Christine’s new therapist believes that clients’ problems have social and political sources, and that one’s personal
and social identities are interconnected. The therapist also believes that the therapeutic relationship is a
collaborative process between equals, and that androcentric norms are to be rejected. To what type of theory does
Christine’s therapist likely adhere?
a. Solution-focused brief therapy
b. Narrative therapy
c. Feminist therapy
d. Reality therapy

A

c. Feminist therapy

124
Q

What type of test is the National Counselor Examination (NCE)?
a. Objective
b. Projective
c. Subjective
d. Retrospective

A

a. Objective

124
Q

A client with borderline personality disorder was sexually abused by her father as a child and vacillates between
insisting he is a kind and loving father and a horrible abusive monster. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Dissociative symptoms
b. Magical thinking
c. Rationalization
d. Splitting

A

d. Splitting

125
Q

In what ways do stereotypes distort reality?
a. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist between groups
b. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist within groups
c. Stereotypes produce many differing perceptions by many people
d. Stereotypes demonstrate that members of a group can be different

A

a. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist between groups

126
Q
A