NCCN MDS Flashcards

NCCN MDS Version 2.2024 - May 22, 2024

1
Q

This disease is suspected in the presence of peripheral blood dysplasia, blasts, or associated cytogenetic abnormalities.

A

MDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Defined as values lower than standard lab hematologic levels, being cognizant of age, sex, ethnic, and altitude norms

A

Cytopenias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What test should be performed if standard cytogenetics (with ≥20 metaphases) cannot be obtained?

A

A chromosome microarray analysis (CMA; also known as chromosome genomic array testing [CGAT]) or MDS-related fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) panel should be performed.

-If karyotype is normal, then consider CMA. Note that CMA will detect not
only somatic but also constitutional (germline) changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A more representative measure of folate stores and is the preferred test to serum folate

A

RBC folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An accurate way to assess B12 status and is mandatory to the vitamin B12 evaluation, particularly for patients with possible pernicious anemia.

A

Serum methylmalonic acid testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Associated with normal karyotypes. More frequent in CMML (40%–60%).
Common in CHIP and CCUS.

A

TET2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Identify mutated gene:
More frequent occurrence in AML, particularly R882 mutations.
Common in CHIP and CCUS.

A

DNMT3A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Independently associated with a poor prognosis in MDS and CMML. More frequent in CMML (40%–50%). Common in CHIP and CCUS.

A

ASXL1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Independently associated with a poor prognosis in MDS and MDS/MPN. More frequent in CMML (12%).

A

EZH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Strongly associated with RS and more frequent in MDS-RS (80%). Independently associated with a more
favorable prognosis.

A

SF3B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Identify mutated gene:
More frequent in CMML (40%) and associated with a poor prognosis.

A

SRSF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Independently associated with a poor prognosis. More frequent with complex karyotypes (50%) and
del(5q) (15%–20%). May predict resistance or relapse to lenalidomide.

A

TP53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Associated with a poor prognosis, particularly in patients predicted to have lower-risk MDS. More
frequent in CMML and JMML (~15%).

A

NRAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identify disorder:

Hema findings/myeloid malignancy: Increased myeloid malignancies
and T-cell ALL in people aged
7–29 years

Clinical features include:
sensitivity to ultraviolet light, experiencing severe sunburns within minutes of exposure, dry skin (xeroderma), freckling (pigmentosum), hearing loss, poor coordination, loss of intellectual function, seizures, and development of squamous cell carcinomas and melanomas often as early as 10 years old in sun-exposed areas.

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum C (XPC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give AML-defining genetic abnormalities

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many units of PRBC transfusions to consider daily iron chelation?

A

If >20 to 30 RBC transfusions have been received, consider daily chelation with deferoxamine SC or deferasirox orally to decrease iron overload, particularly for patients who have lower-risk MDS or who are potential transplant candidates (LOW/INT-1).

17
Q

Target ferritin level for patients with serum ferritin levels >2500 ng/mL

A

For patients with serum ferritin levels >2500 ng/mL, aim to decrease ferritin
levels to <1000 ng/mL.

18
Q

Parameters used in REVISED INTERNATIONAL PROGNOSTIC SCORING SYSTEM (IPSS-R)

A

Cytogenetic, marrow blasts, hemoglobin, platelets, ANC

19
Q

Cytogenetic risks based on IPSS-R:

A

Cytogenetic risks:
Very good = -Y, del(11q);
Good = normal, del(5q), del(12p),
del(20q), double including del(5q);
Intermediate = del(7q), +8, +19, i(17q), any other single or double independent clones;
Poor = -7, inv(3)/t(3q)/del(3q), double including -7/del(7q), complex: 3 abnormalities;
Very poor = complex: >3 abnormalities.

20
Q

Parameters used in WHO-BASED PROGNOSTIC SCORING SYSTEM (WPSS)

A

WHO category: RCUD, RARS, MDS
with isolated del(5q); RCMD, RAEB-1, RAEB-2
Karyotype: Good, intermediate, poor
Severe anemia (hemoglobin <9 g/dL
in males or <8 g/dL in females)

21
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Occurs in LGL associated with MDS; associated with immune bone marrow failure.

A

STAT3

22
Q

Identify mutated gene:
Associated with therapy-related MDS, but not associated with adverse prognosis independent of TP53.
Common in CHIP and CCUS.

A

PPM1D

23
Q

Identify mutated gene:
VEXAS syndrome (Vacuoles, E1 enzyme, X-linked, Autoinflammatory, Somatic) associated with systemic
autoinflammatory and hematologic diseases, mainly MDS.

A

UBA1

24
Q

Patients with karyotypes ____, _____, or _____ are considered to have AML even if the marrow blast count is less than 20%.

A

karyotypes t(8;21), t(15;17), or inv(16)

25
Q

This is most useful in detecting aberrant immature myeloid lineages often observed in MDS.

A

Flow Cytometry (FCM)

26
Q

For patients with lower-risk disease MDS-5q (low blasts) del(5q) ± one
other cytogenetic abnormality
IPSS Low/Intermediate-1 and Serum EPO ≤500 mU/mL. What is the preferred treatment? Specify recommended dose.

A

Preferred: Lenalidomide
Recommended Lenalidomide initial dose is: 10 mg/day for 21 out of 28 days or 28 days monthly for 2–4 months to assess response. Use caution for patients with low platelet and neutrophil counts; consider modifying lenalidomide dose. Lenalidomide 10 mg daily if absolute neutrophil count >0.5, platelets >50,000

27
Q

Patient with lower-risk disease MDS-5q (low blasts) del(5q) ± one
other cytogenetic abnormality
IPSS Low/Intermediate-1 and Serum EPO ≤500 mU/mL, but cannot afford Lenalidomide. What are the other recommended treatments? Specify dose.

A

Other recommended treatments:
Erythropoiesis-stimulating
agent (ESA) (epoetin alfa or
darbepoetin alfa)

Dosing is 40,000–60,000 U 1–2 times per week subcutaneously (SC) for epoetin alfa and 150–300 mcg every other week SC for darbepoetin alfa. For lack of response, escalate the dose. At some institutions, darbepoetin alfa has been administered using doses up to 500 mcg every other week. An FDA-approved biosimilar is an appropriate substitute for epoetin alfa.

28
Q

Patient with lower-risk disease MDS-5q (low blasts) del(5q) ± one
other cytogenetic abnormality
IPSS Low/Intermediate-1 and Serum EPO ≤500 mU/mL but no response to Lenalidomide or ESA. Noted serum EPO >500 mU/mL and with good probability to respond to IST. What is the management?

A

No response to Lenalidomide means Lack of ≥1.5 gm/dL rise in hemoglobin or lack of a decrease in RBC transfusion requirement by 3 to 6 months of treatment.

No response to ESA means Lack of ≥1.5 gm/dL rise in hemoglobin or lack of a decrease in RBC transfusion requirement by 6 to 8 weeks of treatment.

Check serum EPO.
For symptomatic anemia with serum EPO >500 mU/mL and with good probability to respond to IST (Patients generally ≤60 years and with ≤5% marrow blasts, or those with hypocellular marrows, PNH clone positivity, or STAT3-mutant cytotoxic T-cell clones), give ATG + cyclosporin A ± eltrombopag.

29
Q

For patients with lower-risk disease with MDS-SF3B1 (low blasts) no del(5q) ± other cytogenetic abnormalities with RS ≥15% (or RS
≥5% with an SF3B1 mutation). With symptomatic anemia. What is the category 1 treatment? Specify recommended dose.

A

Luspatercept-aamt
The starting dose of luspatercept-aamt is 1 mg/kg every 3 weeks, which may be increased to 1.33 mg/kg every 3 weeks if not RBC transfusion-free after at least two consecutive doses (6 weeks) at the 1 mg/kg starting dose. The dose may be further increased to 1.75 mg/kg every 3 weeks if not RBC transfusion-free after at least 2 consecutive doses (6 weeks) at the 1.33 mg/kg dose.

30
Q

Patient with lower-risk disease with MDS-SF3B1 (low blasts) no del(5q) ± other cytogenetic abnormalities with RS ≥15% (or RS ≥5% with an SF3B1 mutation). With symptomatic anemia. On Luspatercept but no response after 3-6 months of treatment. What is the next step of management? Specify recommended doses.

A

Check serum EPO.
If Serum EPO ≤500 mU/mL, give Epoeitn alfa ± G-CSF or
Darbepoetin alfa ± G-CSF

Dosing is 40,000–60,000 U 1–2 times per week subcutaneously (SC) for epoetin alfa and 150–300 mcg every other week SC for darbepoetin alfa.
Dosing is 1–2 mcg/kg 1–2 times per week SC for G-CSF.

If Serum EPO >500 mU/mL, consider
Lenalidomide.
Recommended Lenalidomide initial dose is: 10 mg/day for 21 out of 28 days or 28 days monthly for 2–4 months to assess response. Use caution for patients with low platelet and neutrophil counts; consider modifying lenalidomide dose. Lenalidomide 10 mg daily if absolute neutrophil count >0.5, platelets >50,000

31
Q
A