NBS Pathology Cardiovascular disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of arteriosclerosis deals with a calcified tunica media and medium sized arteries?
A. Obliterans
B. Monckeberg
C. Peripheral

A

B

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2
Q

Which type of arteriosclerosis deals with extremities?
A. Obliterans
B. Monckeberg
C. Peripheral

A

C

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3
Q

Which size vessels would obliterans arteriosclerosis deal with?
A. Large
B. Medium
C. Small

A

C

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4
Q
Where is the most common peripheral aneurysm? 
A. Cervical 
B. Popliteal
C. Anticubital 
D. Aortic
A

B

**bilaterally

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5
Q

Proliferation of which vessel layer would be associated with obliterans?
A. Tunica externa
B. Tunica intima
C. Tunica media

A

B

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6
Q
Which artery would be associated with a BERRY aneurysm? 
A. Coronary artery
B. Iliofemoral artery 
C. Internal carotid artery
D. Anterior communicating artery
A

D

**part of the circle of willis

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7
Q

Intermittent claudication is best described as:
A. heart pain when resting
B. increased intrathoracic pressure
C. Nociceptor sensation in extremities with activity
D. Nociceptor sensation in extremities at rest

A

C

It is relieved by rest

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8
Q
Which artery would be associated with intermittent claudication, gangrene and peripheral vascular disease? 
A. iliofemoral artery
B. Celiac and mesenteric artery
C. Internal carotid artery
D. Celiac artery
A

A

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9
Q

What type of aneurysm can be asymptomatic and lead to increased lumbar pressure?

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

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10
Q

This is described as “tearing pain” and deals with a longitudinal cleavage of the aterial media:
A. Dissecting aneurysm of the internal carotid
B. Dissecting aneurysm of the aorta
C. Dissecting aneurysm of the iliofemoral artery
D. Dissecting aneurysm of the coronary artery

A

B

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11
Q
Berry aneurysms of the anterior communicating artery would be considered which type of hemorrhage(s)? Pick all that apply.
A. Intracerebral 
B. Supra-arachnoid 
C. Subarachnoid
D. Extracerebral
A

A and C

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12
Q
Arteriosclerosis of the vertebrobasilar artery would lead to ischemia and infarction of: 
A. Pons and cerebral cortex
B. Cerebellum and brain stem
C. Thalamus and spinal cord
D. Medulla and brainstem
A

B

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13
Q
Increased lumbar pressure caused by an abdominal aortic aneurysm would lead to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Pick all that apply.
A. (+) Z translation
B. Imbrication 
C. Scaffolding
D. Ivory vertebrae
A

C and D

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14
Q

T/F: Berry aneurysms can be linked via heredity.

A

True, especially for males.

Study tip: Uncle Berry.

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15
Q
Arteriosclerosis of which artery would lead to chronic cerebral ischemia, strokes, and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)? 
A. Vertebrobasilar
B. Renal
C. Internal carotid
D. Coronary
A

C

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16
Q

T/F: Arteriosclerosis may or may not narrow the lumen while atherosclerosis always does.

A

True

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17
Q

Arteriosclerosis involves tunica media thickening due to calcification while in atherosclerosis media thickens due to ______ ______.

A

inflammatory mediators

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18
Q

Which of the following deals with intimal fibrosis?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriosclerosis

A

B

ARTERIO = intimal fibrosis

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19
Q
What is a risk factor for arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis? Pick all that apply. 
A. LDL over 160mg/dl
B. Morbid obesity in males
C. Post menopausal women over 65 
D. Smoking
A

All of the above.

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20
Q
What type of familial hyperlipoproteinemia increases your risk for arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis? 
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
A

C

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21
Q
Myocardial infarction, ischemia, chronic heart failure, and arrhythmias deal with artery stenosis? 
A. Coronary 
B. Anterior communicating 
C. Mesenteric 
D. Iliofemoral
A

A

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22
Q
Arteriosclerosis of this artery leads to ischemic colitis? Pick all that apply.
A. Coronary 
B. Celiac 
C. Renal
D. Mesenteric
A

B and D

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23
Q
When a patient has hypertension, they sometimes wake up with a headache in which cephalic region? 
A. Maxillary
B. Occipital
C. Frontal
D. Temporal
A

B

EOP THROB

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24
Q
Hypertension can be described as systemic elevation of diastolic pressure over: 
A. 85 mmHg
B. 90 mmHg
C. 70 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
A

B

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25
Q
50% of HTN patients have a blood pressure reading of: 
A. 180/100
B. 200/150
C. 140/90
D. 120/80
A

C

26
Q
Essential hypertension would be associated with individuals: 
A. over 40 yrs old
B. over 15 yrs old
C. over 30 yrs old
D. over 25 yrs old
A

A

27
Q

Secondary HTN can be best described as:
A. increased Na+ retention, increased peripheral resistance
B. decreased Na+ retention, increased peripheral resistance
C. earliest phase of HTN
D. fibronoid necrosis of tunica media

A

B

28
Q
Benign HTN is described as: 
A. individuals over 40 years old
B. decreased Na+ retention, increased peripheral resistance
C. earliest phase of HTN
D. fibronoid necrosis of tunica media
A

C

Benign = earliest phase

29
Q
Papilledema, retinal hemorrhages, exudates, fibrinoid necrosis of tunica media, intimal fibrosis and vessel stenosis would best describe which type of hypertension?
A. Essential
B. Secondary
C. Malignant
D. Benign
A

C

30
Q
What would a typical blood pressure reading be for an individual experiencing malignant HTN? 
A. 140/90
B. 100/150
C. 200/150
D. 120/80
A

C

31
Q
Systemic HTN that increase the work on the left ventricle can lead to left ventricle hypertrophy and failure. This best describes which HTN disease? 
A. Cerebral disease
B. Heart disease
C. Retinal disease
D. Renal disease
A

B

32
Q

With hypertensive renal disease, you would be experiencing which of the following?
A. Thrombosis and strokes
B. Decreased GFR and loss of nephrons
C. Nephron hypertrophy and hyperplasia
D. Increased GFR, fibrosis, and nephron hyperplasia

A

B

*leading to renal failure

33
Q
If there were fluffy exudates, cotton wool spots and papilledema present which HTN disease is most likely the cause? 
A. Cerebral disease
B. Heart disease
C. Retinal disease
D. Renal disease
A

C

34
Q

During a dissecting aneurysm which vessel layer would be ripped?
A. Tunica externa
B. Tunica intima
C. Tunica media

A

B

*remember the intimate has two layers, internal and external elastic layers

35
Q
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is common in premature infants. It is the congenital failure of the closure between: 
A. Pulmonary vein and aorta
B. Pulmonary artery and aorta
C. Right atrium and right ventricle
D. Coronary artery and left ventricle
A

B

36
Q
Rheumatic fever is associated with which valvular failures? 
A. Aortic and pulmonary
B. Mitral and aortic
C. Tricuspid and pulmonary
D. Mitral and tricuspid
A

B

37
Q
Which part of the heart is associated with cor pulmonale?
A. Left ventricle 
B. Left atrium 
C. Right ventricle 
D. Right atrium
A

C

38
Q
Which of the following is NOT involved with cor pulmonale? 
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Dextrorotation of aorta
C. Emphysema
D. Chronic bronchitis
A

B

39
Q
With metrology of fallot you would see which of the following? 
A. Left atrial hyperplasia
B. Right ventricle hypertrophy
C. Right atrial hypertrophy 
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
A

B

40
Q
Dextrorotation of the aorta is common with:
A. Tetralogy of fallot
B. Cor pulonale
C. Rheumatic fever 
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
A

A

41
Q
Pulmonary stenosis would be associated with: 
A. Tetralogy of fallot
B. Cor pulonale
C. Rheumatic fever 
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
A

A

42
Q
Intraventricular septal defects would be seen with: 
A. tetralogy of fallot
B. Cor pulonale
C. Rheumatic fever 
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
A

A

43
Q

What is the acronym to remember all things associated with tetralogy of fallot?

A

DRIP

44
Q

We know that the mitral and aortic valves are involved with rheumatic fever. Which one is usually affected primarily?

A

mitral

45
Q

What is another name for the mitral valve?

A

bicuspid or left av valve

46
Q
Iron deficiency is common in women of child bearing years. Which anemia is associated with this? 
A. Microcytic hyperchromic 
B. Microcytic normochromic
C. Macrocytic hypochromic
D. microcytic hypochromic
A

D

47
Q

What anemia test would be used to look for cancer, ulcers and gastritis associated with chronic hemorrhages?

A

GUIAC

48
Q
Occult is an AKA for? 
A. Seen blood
B. Hidden blood
C. Hidden oxygen
D. Hyperchromic
A

B

49
Q
Frank is and aka for? 
A. Seen blood
B. Hidden blood
C. Hidden oxygen
D. Hyperchromic
A

A

50
Q

T/F: Pernicious anemia is highly associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia.

A

False

Macrocytic normochromic anemia

51
Q
Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency or malabsorption of which vitamin? 
A. Thiamine B1
B. Cobalt B12
C. Folate B9
D. Niacin B3
A

B

Can be called cobalt, cyanocobalamin, cobalamin

52
Q

T/F: Vitamin B12 is found in animal products.

A

True. That’s why vegans have a deficiency.

53
Q
Pernicious anemia can lead to a loss of parietal cells, leading to malabsorption, RBC breakdown and nervous system issues. What do parietal cells secrete that help with RBCs and myelin production? 
A. Pepsinogen
B. Extrinsic factor
C. Intrinsic factor
D. Ghrelin
A

C

intrinsic factor is VERY important

54
Q
Production of reticulocytes is common with pernicious anemia. What are they? 
A. Large immature WBC
B. Large mature RBC
C. Large immature RBC
D. Small mature RBC
A

C

Large immature

big baby huey

55
Q

Once a RBC matures it:
A. gets smaller
B. gets bigger

A

A

56
Q
Glove and stocking paresthesia (hand and foot) is the end stage of: 
A. iron deficiency
B. multiple sclerosis
C. posterolateral sclerosis
D. anterolateral sclerosis
A

C

posterior columns degrade first usually

57
Q

When would you see an air emboli?
A. jumping out of an airplane
B. climbing Mt. Everest
C. deep sea diving

A

C

58
Q
Which 2 of the following are associated with macrocytic normochromic anemia? 
A. Cobalt
B. Copper
C. Thiamine
D. Folate
A

A and D

59
Q

In which disease would there be no meissners or auerbach’s?

A

Hirschsprung disease

60
Q
Which bacteria commonly causes ulcers in the stomach? 
A. Mycobacterium lepromatosis
B. Vibrio cholerae 
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Helicobacter pylori
A

D.

Helicopter lands in the stomach