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0
Q

What are contraindications to all modalities?

A

Hemorrhage
Infection w/ suppuration
Malignancy (except TENS)

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1
Q

The therapeutic application of forces & substances that induce a physiological response & use &/or allow the body’s natural processes to return to a more normal state of health

A

Physiotherapy

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2
Q

What are contraindications to all heating modalities?

A 
Diabetes Mellitus
Encapsulated Swelling
Active TB
Decrease thermal sensations
Edema
Abdomen or low back during pregnancy
Acute conditions
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3
Q

What stage of injury/healing is up to the 1st 72 hours?

A

Acute

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4
Q

Stage of injury/healing that is 72 hours or early phases of ds. Swelling is limited but debris & discoloration prevents healing. Pump, (alternating vasodilation & vasoconstriction) is beneficial

A

Subacute

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5
Q

Stage of injury/healing that is 2 wks longer than anticipated

A

Chronic

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6
Q

What are contraindications for all electrical modalities?

A 
Brain
Eyes
Heart
Carotid Sinuses
Pacemaker
Anesthesia (Except high volt)
Pregnancy - low back (except TENS)
Open wounds
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7
Q

Tx of acute conditions uses the acronym PRICES. What does it stand for?

A 
Protect
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevate
Support
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8
Q

What type of EMS freq. reverses charge?

A

Ultra Low, <1Hz, (MENS)

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9
Q

What is the Hz range for low freq. EMS?

A

1-150 Hz (Contraction)

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10
Q

What is the Hz range for med. freq. EMS?

A

1,000-10,000 Hz (Depth)

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11
Q

What is the Hz range for high freq. EMS?

A

1 million Hz (Heating)

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12
Q

What EMS modalities are considered low freq.?

A 
HVG
LVG
Sine
Faradic
Interference (IF & RS)
TENS
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13
Q

What EMS modalities are considered med. freq.?

A

IF (4,000Hz)

RS (2,000Hz)

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14
Q

What types of high freq. EMS modalities cause superficial heat?

A

IR

UV

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15
Q

What types of high freq. EMS modalities cause deep heat?

A

MWD
SWD
US

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16
Q

Which type of wave form is symmetrical?

A

Sine

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17
Q

Which type of wave form is asymmetrical (sporadic)?

A

Faradic

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18
Q

Which type of wave form is composed of two sine waves?

A

Interferential

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19
Q

Which type of wave form has a twin, pulsed peak (“M” spiked peak)?

A

High Volt

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20
Q

How are pad size and mA related?

A

1mA per sq in. of pad size

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21
Q

What are the 3 types of pad placement?

A

Monopolar (dispersal pad & active pads)
Bipolar (small muscle group, dispersal & active pads are equal size)
Quadripolar (Crisscross pattern)

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22
Q

Continuous EMS is used for what?

A

Pain

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23
Q

Surge EMS is used for what?

A

Exercise

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24
Q

Pulsed/tetanizing EMS is used for what?

A

Fatigue/spasm

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25
Q

Modulation settings in EMS help to avoid what?

A

Accommodation

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26
Q

What low freq. pps setting do you use to release endorphins?

A

1-20pps

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27
Q

What low freq. pps setting do you use to release enkephalins?

A

70-150pps

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28
Q

What low freq. pps setting do you use for edema?

A

3-5pps

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29
Q

What low freq. pps setting do you use for exercise?

A

15-25pps

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30
Q

What low freq. pps setting do you use to fatique?

A

~50pps

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31
Q

This is when one object produces electromagnetic property in another

A

Electro-induction

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32
Q

Measurement of charge?

A

Coulomb

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33
Q

This is assoc. w/ pulse width, interpulse width, & freq.

A

Waveform

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34
Q

Magnitude/depth of an electric charge

A

Amplitude

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35
Q

Electricity that flows (number of electrons)

A

Current

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36
Q

This increases or decreases volts

A

Transformer

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37
Q

Ability to store up electrical energy

A

Capacitance (Ohm)

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38
Q

Property of substance to oppose current. Measured in Ohms.

A

Resistance

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39
Q

Difference in force b/w two objects. Measured in Volts.

A

EMF (Electromagnetic force)

  • greater the charge = increase EMF
  • greater the distance = decrease EMF
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40
Q

Slows down (dampens) electric charge.

A

Impedance

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41
Q

The time necessary for contraction when the rheobase is doubled

A

Chronaxie

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42
Q

The minimum volts necessary to excite a nerve

A

Rheobase (threshold)

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43
Q

Type of EMS you should assoc. w/ “paralyzed muscle”, “weak muscle”, or “research”

A

Faradic

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44
Q

Galvanic & Faradic current are compared to determine extent of damage & prognosis of nerve damage to muscle.

A

Reaction of Degeneration (R.D. Factor)

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45
Q

Best method of muscle testing

A

EMG (Electromyography)

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46
Q

Best method of nerve testing

A

NCV (Nerve Conduction Velocity)

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47
Q

Principle that states the energy of modality has to be absorbed by body to stimulate physiological response

A

Arndt - Schultz Principle

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48
Q

Law that notes the inverse relationship b/w penetration & absorption of energy (US)

A

Law of Grotthus-Draper

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49
Q

What are effects of cryotherapy?

A

Vasoconstriction
Anesthesia
Pumping Reaction

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50
Q

What does CBAN stand for?

A

Cold
Burn
Ache
Numb

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51
Q

After “about 20 mins” of cryotherapy, what reaction occurs?

A

Hunting-Lewis Reaction

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52
Q

What are the different tx temps?

A 
Cold: 55-65
Cool: 65-80
Tepid: 80-92
Neutral: 92-96
Warm: 96-99 (therapeutic)
Hot: 99-104 (therapeutic)
Very Hot: 105-115
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53
Q

Transmission of heat in gases & liquids by circulation of heat particles. Baths (hot & cold), IR

A

Convection

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54
Q

Transmission of heat w/o the intervening medium getting warm. Lamps, MWD, IR, UV

A

Radiation

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55
Q

The transformation of electrical energy into heat or mechanical energy. US.

A

Conversion

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56
Q

The transfer of heat through a substance, often heating up a solid. Ice, hydrocollator, paraffin, IR

A

Conduction

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57
Q

What effect does cryotherapy have on circulation?

A

Vasoconstriction
Decreased blood flow (increase BP)
Decreased edema

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58
Q

What effect does cryotherapy have on metabolism?

A

It decreases it

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59
Q

What effect does cryotherapy have on connective tissue?

A

Increased viscosity

Decreased ability to stretch

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60
Q

What effect does cryotherapy have on pain?

A

Decreased, after an initial increase, numb (anesthesia)

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61
Q

What neuromuscular effects does cryotherapy cause?

A

Decreased spasticity, trigger points, MFS
Increased or decreased strength
Decreased skilled motor tasks

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62
Q

What are indications for cryotherapy?

A 
Headaches (migraine)
Urticaria (red wheals)
Spasticity (trigger points)
Sprain/strain
Angiomas
Warts & herpes
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63
Q

What are contraindications of cryotherapy?

A 
Elderly & infants
Hypersensitive to cold
Vascular diseases (Raynaud's)
High BP
Chilblains & frostbite
Tension headaches
Spasm
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64
Q

What are the different types of cryotherapy?

A

Ice packs - conduction, moist towel layer
Blue ice - conduction, dry towel layer, reusable
Vapocoolant spray - fluori-methane/ethyl chloride
Ice massage - conduction, direct ice has deepest effect
Ice Immersion - convection
Cryokinetics - conduction, ice 1st, activity 2nd
Ice massage & passive ROM - conduction

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65
Q

What are the effects of infrared?

A 
Vasodilation
Perspire
Decreased BP
Increased blood & lymph flow
Decreased spasm
Phagocytosis
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66
Q

Redness or mottled skin is called what?

A

Erythema

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67
Q

Mottled skin in area habitually exposed or one prolonged exposure

A

Erythema Ab igne

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68
Q

What is the difference in distance b/w short wave IR vs. long wave IR?

A

Short wave = 14-18”

Long wave = direct contact w/ towel - layers

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69
Q

What are the different types of short wave IR?

A
  • Luminous
  • Wire bound around porcelain
  • Sunlight - Heliotherapy
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70
Q

What are the different types of long wave IR?

A 
Hydrocollators
Heating pads
Hot water bottle
Baths
Fluidotherapy
71
Q

What is the difference in penetration b/w short wave IR vs long wave IR?

A

Short wave = 10mm

Long wave = 1-3mm

72
Q

What is the difference in intensity b/w short wave IR vs. long wave IR?

A

Short wave = 150-1500 watts

Long wave = Varies

73
Q

What is the difference in wavelength b/w shortwave IR vs. long wave IR?

A

Short wave = 7,200 - 15,000nm

Long wave = 15,000 - 150,000nm

74
Q

What is the distance used when treating w/ a hydrocollator?

A

Six towel layers

75
Q

What temp is used for hydrocollators?

76
Q

What temp is used for paraffin?

77
Q

What are indications for a contrast bath?

A 
Subacute connective tissue injuries
Bruises
Early PVD's *
Raynaud's *
Buerger's 
Diabetes Mellitus
78
Q

What are contraindications for a contrast bath?

A

Anesthesia
Advanced arterial compromise
Late PVD’s

79
Q

What type of heat transmission does a hydrocollator use?

A

Conduction

80
Q

What kind of heat transmission does a contrast bath use?

A

Convection

81
Q

What kind of heat transmission does a whirlpool bath (hubbard tank) use?

A

Convection

82
Q

What are 3 results of using a whirlpool bath?

A

Relax
Vasodilator
Debridement (burns & abrasions)*

83
Q

Which modality can cause a burn & treat a burn?

84
Q

What is the temp of a whirlpool bath?

A

100-105F (varies, based on desired effect)

85
Q

What kind of heat transmission does a sitz bath use?

A

Convection

86
Q

How long do you tx w/ a sitz bath?

A

2-10mins (<20 mins)

87
Q

What kind of heat transmission does a paraffin bath use?

A

Conduction

88
Q

What temp do you use for a paraffin bath?

89
Q

How many times do you dip into a paraffin bath?

A

7-10 times

90
Q

What is the ratio of paraffin to mineral oil in a paraffin bath mixture?

A

7:1 paraffin:mineral oil

91
Q

What is another name for Fluidotherapy?

A

Dry whirlpool

92
Q

What is used for to heat in fluidotherapy?

A

Solid cellulose

93
Q

What kind of heat transmission does a fluidotherapy use?

A

Convection

94
Q

What are indications for fluidotherapy?

A 
Chronic arthritis
Amputees
Strains
To increase ROM
RSDS aka CRPS (only tx for RSDS)
Dystonia
Open wounds (Unless diabetic)
95
Q

What does LASER stand for?

A

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

96
Q

What wavelength does a cold laser use?

A

630-1200nm (absorbs best into body rather than skin surface)

97
Q

What type of gas does a cold laser use?

A

Neon helium gases

98
Q

What are irreversible effects of cold lasers?

A

Protein coagulation*
Thermolysis
Evaporation

99
Q

Treating w/ UV for too long can cause what?

A

Erythema ab igne

100
Q

What are contraindications of UV?

A 
H.I.M.
Vascular diseases
Suppurative lesions
Hemorrhage
Tetracycline (competes w/ Ca++ absorption)
SLE
101
Q

What skin conditions can UV treat?

A 
Fungal
Herpes zoster (vesicles)
Burns
Psoriasis
Carbuncles
Wounds
Decubitus ulcers
102
Q

Erythema caused by UV is related to what 3 things?

A
  1. Pt sensitivity
  2. Intensity vs distance (inverse square law)
  3. Angle of radiation (cosine law)
103
Q

What is the tx protocol for UV?

A

Start at MED. As pt. tolerance increases, increase duration by 15sec/tx to a max of 3 mins. When max time is reached, decrease distance by 2” per tx, approaching no closer than 18”

104
Q

What distance do you start tx w/ a UV lamp?

105
Q

What are the different types of UV devices?

A
  1. Hot quartz (Mercury-helium gases, Kromayer lamp)
  2. Cold quartz (Neon & mercury, orificial)
  3. Wood’s lamp aka black light
106
Q

Type of UV device that filters UV light through nickel oxide glass used to dx fungal infections (tinea)

A

Wood’s Lamp aka Black Light

107
Q

How far must a diathermy unit be from any other electrical device?

108
Q

How far must a diathermy tx on an individual be from hearing aids, bridge work, etc?

109
Q

Generally speaking, how does SWD tx?

A

Outside in (general)

110
Q

Generally speaking, how does MWD tx?

A

Inside out (local)

111
Q

What are some indications for SWD?

A

Bronchitis
PID
Otitis media

112
Q

What are some indications for MWD?

A

Otitis externa

Neuritis

113
Q

What is a major contraindication for both SWD & MWD?

114
Q

How much space do you use to get 100% heat from SWD?

A

2” (towel)

115
Q

What are the 3 types of SWD?

A

Induction
Condensor
Butterfly

116
Q

What is the wavelength for SWD?

117
Q

What is the freq. of SWD?

A

27.12 megacycles

118
Q

What type of tissue does SWD heat first?

119
Q

What distance do you use when treating w/ MWD?

A

1-7” (Air space)

120
Q

What is the wavelength of MWD?

121
Q

What is the freq. of MWD?

A

2450 megacycles

122
Q

What type of tissue does MWD heat first?

123
Q

What are some contraindications for US?

A

Over spinal cord
Over epiphyseal growth plates (look at the age in questions)
Laminectomy

124
Q

In LVG, what effects does the positive pole (anode) have?

A 
"Anode acts like ice"
Vasoconstricts
Produces acid reaction in skin
Repeals alkaline
Attracts oxygen
Repels hydrogen
Causes ischemia
Hardens tissue
Pain relief
Astringent
125
Q

What are the M/C solution mixtures used w/ LVG?

A

2% solution mixtures

126
Q

What substances are used under the positive pole (anode) in LVG?

A 
"Repels Metals"
*Magnesium - edema, IVD, DJD, arthritis, neuritis, PNE
*Calcium - adhesions, capsulitis
*Copper - fungus
*Zinc - ulcers, gyn., derm
Histamine - PVD, spasm
Hyaluronidase - post trauma swelling
Potassium - sprains
Xylocaine - painful ROM
Hydrocortisone - DJD, PNE
127
Q

What substances are used under the negative pole (cathode) in LVG?

A 
"Repels non-metals"
*Salicylate - pain, inflammation, arthritis
*Iodine - scars, adhesions
Chloride - adhesions & scars
*Acetate - calcium deposits, bursitis
Niacin - PVD, arthritis
PABA - Scleroderma
Novocaine/alcohol - strains
Hesperidin - ecchymosis
128
Q

What intensity is used for LVG?

129
Q

What are indications for HVG?

A

Acute & subacute injuries to reduce edema
Analgesia & spasms reduce muscle atrophy
Cast, disuse atrophy

130
Q

What settings do you use in EMS for edema? muscle exercise? fatigue? endorphin production? enkephalin production?

A 
Edema - 3-5pps
Muscle exercise - 15-25pps
Fatigue - ~50pps
Endorphin production - 1-20pps
Enkephalin production - 80-150pps
131
Q

What are the 3 modes of HVG?

A

Continuous Mode - beneficial for edema, pain, & neuritis
Reciprocal Mode - permits alternating contracture of agonist & antagonist, limits accommodation
Surge on/off - used when re-education & exercise is desired

132
Q

What is the primary effect of MENS?

A

tissue healing

133
Q

Immediately after trauma, noxious stimulation lowers nerve thresholds

A

Primary Hyperalgesia

134
Q

W/i hours of trauma, chemicals diffuse to surrounding tissues causing hypersensitivity

A

Secondary Hyperalgesia

135
Q

Nerve pain fiber that is well localized, often first pain (protopathic), stings or burns

136
Q

Nerve pain fiber that causes diffuse, second pain, & visceral pain (epicritic), achy or throbbing

137
Q

Type of nerve fiber that is large, myelinated mechanoreceptors. Responds to light touch & can interrupt nociception in dorsal horn

138
Q

Small regions of metabolic distress, caused by the combination of increased energy demand & impairment of oxygen & energy supply. This is probably d/t a local restriction of circulation.

A

Trigger points

139
Q

What is biofeedback used for?

A

Used to modulate autonomic functions

140
Q

What are indications for biofeedback?

A 
Hypertension
Migraines
Stress
ADD
Incontinence
141
Q

Cervical brace used for emergency transport?

A

Philadelphia collar (hard collar)

142
Q

Brace used for scoliosis

A

Milwaukee/Risser Jacket (Boston brace used on juveniles)

143
Q

Brace used for a spondylolisthesis, L/S disc

A

Lumbosacral corset (Boston brace)

144
Q

Brace used for SI dysfunctions

A

Sacroiliac girdle (Williams)

145
Q

Brace used for hip lesions?

A

Intertrochanteric belt/girdle

146
Q

How many effleurage strokes per min?

147
Q

What is the purpose of the effleurage stroke?

148
Q

What is the purpose of the Petrissage stroke?

149
Q

What is the purpose of the Tapotement stroke?

A

For congestion

150
Q

What is the purpose of the Friction stroke?

A

Break adhesions

151
Q

What is the purpose of the Vibration stroke?

A

For congestion

152
Q

What is the purpose of the Deep Pressure stroke?

A

Adhesions, trigger points

153
Q

What is low velocity vibratory therapy used for?

A

Congestion

154
Q

What is the minimal & maximum amount of weight used in cervical traction?

A 
Min = 10lbs
Max = 30-50lbs
155
Q

What position do you use for traction of C3-C6?

A

Flexion at 20-28degs

156
Q

What is the starting tx dose for cervical traction?

A

Begin at 5% of body weight, increase 2lbs max each tx

157
Q

What is the starting tx dose for lumbar traction?

A

Begin at 25% of body weight & increase 5lbs max w/ each tx

158
Q

What is the minimum & maximum amount of weight used for lumbar traction?

A 
Min = 25% of body weight
Max = 50% of body weight or 120lbs
159
Q

What are the different types of traction?

A

Continuous
Intermittent - imbibition
Inversion - Lumbars (contra - high BP)
Positional - Decrease pressure best
Over the door - Csp, face door w/ 28degs of Csp flex.
Axial - don’t use w/ osteoporosis, Paget’s, Mets (weak bone)
Rotational - don’t use w/ facet trophism
Hydrotherapy traction - water belts, wings & buoys

160
Q

What are 3 reliable LBP questionnaires?

A

Oswestry
Roland-Morris
Quebec

161
Q

What area examples of ADL charts?

A

Copenhagen - neck
Croft - shoulder
Harris - hip

162
Q

Breathing exercises & posture used for COPD’s, aging, & AS

A

Breugger’s

163
Q

Administered to pt’s w/ peripheral vascular disease

A

Buerger - Allen’s

164
Q

The Harvard step test is used to test for what?

165
Q

Flexion exercises for the low back. Pt is instructed to do sit-ups w/ knees flexed, hands in front of the chest, while the head & shoulders are lifted off of the table. The position is held for 5mins. Purpose is to help decrease lordosis by strengthening the abdominal muscles. Benefits spondylolisthesis, facet syndrome, increased lumbosacral angle, hyperlordosis

A

William’s exercises

166
Q

Modified McKenzie exercises are used for what?

A

Benefits acute discs & spinal stenosis. Flexion exercises

167
Q

Extension exercises for low back. Purpose is to help increase lordosis by strengthening the paraspinals. Benefits chronic disc & acute lumbar antalgia to “centralize” pain & get pt to neutral position

A

McKenzie’s

168
Q

LBP (core) exercises. Includes side bridge, bird dog, & abdominals

A

McGill’s

169
Q

Exercises for the pelvic floor musculature. Benefits incontinence

170
Q

Strengthens the shoulder girdle while eliminating the use of the supraspinatus muscle

A

Codman’s/Pendular

171
Q

Use fingers to crawl up the wall for shoulder ROM

A

Wall walking

172
Q

This type of exercise is focused on position & breathing mechanics. Benefits spinal stability & balance.

173
Q

What is the terrible triad composed of?

A

Medial meniscus
ACL
MCL

174
Q

What sign is assoc. w/ a PCL tear?

NBS (1 decks)

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