NBME Test #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is most important in maintaining blood pH near 7.4? What would change these values?

A

Most important = bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer –> changes in ventilation impact the relationship of the buffer and are responsible for compensation for acid-base disturbances. Breathing in low PO2 = hyperventilation = less PCo2 = alkalosis

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2
Q

What is specificity? What decreases sensitivity?

A

Proportion of all people with the disease who test positive for the disease. Moving cut point higher decreases sensitivity?

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3
Q

What is M protein associated with? What are some other symptoms of this disease?

A

M spike most associated with multiple myeloma, which presents with bone pain, anemia, hypercalcemia, renal dysfunction, and lytic bone lesions

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4
Q

How does an AV Fistula impact pressures and cardiac output?

A

Increases right atrial pressure and increases cardiac output due to the increase in preload. AVF = abnormal artery/vein communication = low resistance and high volume flow

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5
Q

Characteristics of Pierre Robin Syndrom

A

Presents at birth with small jaw, downward displacement of tongue, celft palate –> can lead to airway obstruction, hypoxia, issues with feeding. Caused by defect in first pharyngeal arch

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6
Q

What develops from each pharyngeal arch?

A

First: maxilla, mandible, masseter, pterygoids, mylohyoid, CN V2 and V2

Second: Middle ear, hyoid bone, temporal styloid process, muscles including facial muscles, CN VII

Third: Stylopharyngeus muslce and glossopharyngeal nerve

Fourth: Cricothyroid and muscles of soft palate, thyroid

Sixth: All intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid

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7
Q

In mycobacterium tuberculosis, what is the virulence factor? How does it act?

A

Cord factor = glycolipid on surface of cell wall that protects the bacteria from phagocytic killing and is directly toxic to macrophages

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8
Q

What is Kaposi sarcoma? How does it present? What does biopsy show?

A

Low-grade neoplasm of vascular endothelial cells with raised, erythematous cutaneous plaques that are reddish-purple. On histology, see slit-like vascular spaces with proliferation of spindle cells and is usually caused by HHV-8.

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9
Q

What factor can increase cerebral blood flow?

A

Serum carbon dioxide directly increases/decreases cerebral blood flow: hypocapnia = cerebral vasoconstriction and hypercapnia = cerebral vasodilation. Changes in MAP have minimal impact on CBF.

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10
Q

What is the difference between Hunter and Hurler syndrome? What are they characterized by?

A

Both are mucopolysaccharidoses = enzyme deficiency

  • Hurler caused by a-iduronidase and Hunter caused by iduronate-2 sulface resulting in heparan sulafe and dermatan sulface

Hurley = AR, first year of life, coarse facial features, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomgaly, joint contractures, developmental delay

Hunter = x linked recessive and milder, no corneal clouding

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11
Q

What test is used to test cerebellar dysfunction? What about other neuro tests? (Babinski, Dolls eye, Glabellar tap, tinel?)

A

Rapid alternating movements

Babinski: upper motor neuron sign for damage to corticospinal tract

Dolls eye: brainstem reflex

Glabellar tap: blinking from tapping –> primitive related to frontal lobe immaturity

Tinels: median nerve –> carpal tunnel

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12
Q

What is the typical presentation of sarcoidosis?

A

SOB and cough in a younger, african american female associated with uveitis, erythema nodosum, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with noncaseating granulomas

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13
Q

What are classic physical exam findings associated with pleural effusion? How is this different from lobar pneumonia?

A

Unilateral decreased breath sounds, dullness to percussion, decreased tactile fremitus, in lobar pneumonia –> coughing, fever, chills, INCREASED tactile fremitus

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14
Q

Preventing polymerization of actin filaments would impact what function of leukocytes?

A

Phagocytosis –> permits extension of cell membrane around pathogen to allow for encapsulation and internalization

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15
Q

What is the pattern of sarcomeres in left ventricular hypertrophy? What about in dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

LVH: Increased sarcomeres in parallel with each other to generate grader contractile force to overcome higher afterload

Dilated cardiomyopathy: Increased sarcomeres in series - cardiac myofibrils lengthen

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16
Q

In pediatric patients, what is the difference between viral synovitis and septic arthritis?

A

Septic arthritis: trauma, bacteremia, fever, chills, myalgias, nausea, painful swollen joint with limited ROM, often knee and hip, leukocytosis, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and c-reactive protein

Viral synovitis: viral infection causes inflammation often in hip, but NO leukocytosis and only mildly elevated ESR and c-reative protein

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17
Q

What is fibronectin? What is its role?

A

Critical component of extracellular matrix that is secreted from cells into extracellular space

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18
Q

How does acute intermittent porphyria present? What accumulates? whats different in porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Sx: psychosis, abdominal pain, burgundy urine following a medication exposure = acute intermittent porphyria

Mutations of enzyme porphobilinogen deaminse = can’t synthesize heme = accumulation of porphobilinogen which is neurotoxic. NO photosensitivity.

Porphyria cutanea tarda = Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase and get cutaneous photosensitivity/blistering

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of metformin?

A

Decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glucose uptake, and decreases serum free fatty acid concentration. Side effects include nausea, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea and RARELY, but importantly, lactic acidosis.

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of erectile dysfunction meds? What is their name?

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors that directly relax smooth muscle of the vasculatore of corpora cavernosa which leads to erection. Work by overriding sympathetic input that usually vasoconstricts to extinguish erections.

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21
Q

What are the actions of the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Internal rotation: subscapularis
External rotation when adducted: teres minor
External rotation: infraspinatus
Abduction: supraspinatus

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22
Q

What helps with scar remodeling and wound healing?

A

Matrix metalloproteinases, which help breakdown extracellular matrix and breakdown of bone/cartilage. necessary for healing of wounds.

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23
Q

How does Vitamin E deficiency present?

A

Usually protects erythrocytes from free radical damage, so deficiency = hemolytic anemia and generalized muscle weakness, but NO megaloblastic anemia/hypersegmend neutrophils

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24
Q

What organisms cause cellulitis? How does it present?

A

Cutaneous erythema, warmth following inoculation from an injurty like an abrasion. Fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis.

Two most common pathogens: Staph Aureus and Streptococcus Pyogenes (Group A)

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25
Q

What is proliferative glomerulonephritis? How is this different from minimal change disease?

A

Presentation: Children, nephritis dynrome following acute pharyngitis, usually follows strep pyogenes.

Nephritic syndrome with gross/microscopic hematuria and RBC casts, as well as proteinuria.

Minimal change disease is most common NEPHROTIC syndrome in kids triggered by recent infection.

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of gemfibrozil and pioglitazone?

A

Pioglitazone: binds to peroxisome proliferator activated receptors (PPARs) = increased insulin sensitivity

Gemfibrozil = fibrate lipid lower agents that activates PPARs and up-regulates lipoprotein lipase = decreased LDL, increased HDL, decreased triglyceride concentrations

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27
Q

How do you access the renal arteries from the femoral artery? What does the celiac trunk, internal iliac arterys, and SMA supply?

A

Advance just superior to the testicular artery.

Celiac trunk: –> common hepatic, left gastric, splenic artery supplying liver, stomach, proximal duodenum, pancreas, inerior esophagus, and spleen

Internal Iliac arteries: Branches of common iliac –> buttocks and pelvic organs including bladder but NOT the kidneys

SMA: branch of abdominal aorta, supplies duodenum, jejunum, ileum, and proximal 2/3 of the colon

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28
Q

What vessel is involved in portal venous system and can lead to portal HTN? What is an outcome of portal HTN and how does this manifest?

A

Inferior esophageal vein drains into left gastric, which is part of the portal venous system. With portal HTN, increased pressure = esophageal varices = vomiting blood

29
Q

What spinal tract carries pain and temperature fibers? Is this ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

Lateral spinothalamic tract, causes contralateral issues

30
Q

Where does the posterior cerebral artery originate and what does it supply?

A

Originates from the basilar artery and supplies most of the occipital lobe. Infarctions lead to contralateral homonymouos hemaniopsia with macular sparing.

31
Q

What is uniparental maternal heterodisomy? How is it different from uniparental isodisomy?

A

Uniparental heterodisomy = inheritance of a pair of nonidentical chromosomes from a single parents resulting from an error during meiosis I.

On chromosome 7 = itrauterine growth restriction, short stature, psychomotor development issues caused by genomic improting of growth genes; You can epigenetic modification of one copy where it is methylated.

Uniparental isodisomy = inheriting a pair of identical chromosomes caused by errors during Meiosis II.

32
Q

What is intracranial pressure impacted by/ What is the most significant impact?

A

Brain volume, blood volume, and CSF, most significantly changes in PaCO2 which is changed based on tidal volume and respiratory rate. Increases in Co2 = increase in ICP

33
Q

How does homocystinuria present? What enzyme has a defect?

A

Intellctual disability, Marfanoid habitus and long limbs, ocular lens subluxation, vascular disease, risk for intravascular thrombosis, and MI at a young age

Results from deficiency of multiple enzymes, including cystathionine b-synthase = increased homocysteine

34
Q

What can be used to treat diabetic neuropathy? How does it work?

A

Substance P depletion because of capsaicin cream = agonist of TRPV1 on nociceptive nerves = depletes nerve fibers of substance P which limits nociception.

35
Q

What prophylaxis to neonates get to prevent bacterial conjunctivitis? What bacteria is it caused by?

A

Get topical prophylaxis to prevent N gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis; Erythromycin is used which binds to bacterial 50s ribosomal subunit and prevents bacterial protein synthesis

36
Q

What substance causes erythema, warmth, and edema?

A

Bradykinin (also histamine and prostaglandin-E2) are inflammatory mediators that promote vasodilation and innate immune response

37
Q

What is Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency? WHat is the defect and what is impacted?

A

LAD = defect in the attachment of leukocytes to the vascular endothelium due to dysfunctional CD18 protein (integrins) = no normal attachment because leukocytes can’t adhere to the vascular endothelium

Presents with recurrent bacterial infections, impaired wound healing, and delayed detachment of umbilical cord after birth

38
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for development of pancreatic cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking!

39
Q

How does our body maintain adequate serum glucose during prolonged exercise? Where is it stored? What supplies glucose?

A

Liver and skeletal muscle = primary areas where glycogen is stored

Liver and kidney participate in gluconeogenesis and help release free glucose into the serum to maintain euglycemia

40
Q

What is borderline personality characterized by? What about histrionic?

A

BPD = unstable sense of self, emotional dysregulation, and tumultuous relationships - suicidal gestures, desperately avoid abandomnent, and idealize or devalue other people

Histrionic = theatrical, superficial expressions of emotion that garner attention from others - dressing in seductive ways, not suicidal

41
Q

How does folate deficiency manifest? What are risk factors?

A

Megaloblastic anemia from impaired erythrocyte DNA synthesis with risks including alcohol abuse, malnutrition, and high cell turnover like pregnancy/sickle cell. Acts as a cofactor for methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl CoA –> increase in methylmalonic acid and homocysteiene

42
Q

What is acute renal allograft rejection mediated by? Which MHC does it recognize?

A

Host CD8+ T lymphocytes recognize class I MHC molecules on allograft cells leading to transplant rejection within 6 months.

43
Q

What does human herpesvirus 6 looks like? What does it cause?

A

Cause of roseola infantum - high fevers and blanching, macular eruption forms on neck and trunk and spreads outwards to face and extremities

44
Q

What is the difference and main features distinguishing Ascaris Lumbricoides and Trichuris Trichiura?

A

A. Lumbricoides: endemic to India/Asia from foood and water - larval infiltration of intestinal wall, mature

Trichuris Trichuiuria: Intestinal worm, but only about 4 cm in length. Sx include nocturnal diarrhea, hematochezia, and dysentry, may also get rectal prolapse

45
Q

Supplements that contain licorice have what impact on the body? How might it manifest

A

Licorice has active ingredient glycyrrhetinic acid/enoxolone, which inhibits 11-b hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase Type II –> catalyzes conversation of cortisol to cortisone in zona fasiculata so with inhibition, have increased cortisol to cortisone ratio = mineralcorticoid effects that inhibit RAAS and decrease serum concentrations of associated hormones

46
Q

In the sympathetic trunk, what role does norepinephrine play?

A

Preganglionic sympathetic nerves release ACH onto postganglionic sympathetic nervers which release norepinephrine to stimulate smooth muscle of viscera and blood vessels

47
Q

Difference between a case control and a cohort study?

A

Case-control looks at association between an exposure and an outcome. Identifies group with the OUTCOME (cases) and without the outcome (COnTROLS) and then compared their exposure.

In a cohort study, a group of patients is identified and followed to see whether an exposure is associated with an outcome of interest.

48
Q

What are the features of Von Willbrand disease? What lab tests show this?

A

Symptoms: AD, epistaxis, gingival bleeding, petechiae, easy bruising, menorrhagia

Increased BT, decreased factor VIII activity, suppressed ristocetin cofactor activity

49
Q

What part of the tubule does Hydrochlorthiazide and other thiazide diuretics exhibit its effect?

A

Inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule by inhibiting sodium-chloride transporter channel

50
Q

What is the formula for steady-state concentration?

A
51
Q

What is hypobetalipoproteinemia?

A

Defects in apolipoprotein B (APOB) = malabsorption of fats and steatorrhea, failure to thrive, hepatic steatosis and cirrhosis

APOB = role in chylomicrons, VLDL, and LDL-cholesterols.

52
Q

What nerve innervates the deltoid and rotator cuff? What happens if it is compressed?

A

C5-C6 cervical node roots = innervate deltoid and rotator cuff, compression = weakness of upper extremity abduction

53
Q

What are changes in maternal physioogy during pregnancy? Why do respirations increase?

A

Increased CO, increased oxygen demand, increased minute ventilation because of increased CO2 sensitivity due to fetal metabolic CO2 production –> increased CO2 is expired from lungs by mom

54
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia - how does it present and what enzyme is messed up?

A

CAH = adrenal enzyme deficiencies leading to issues with synthesis of cortisol. 21-hydroxylase is most common and presents in genetic FEMALES with virilization and hypoaldosteronism during infancy. Nonclasically can present in young adult with virilization only. Leads to buildup of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.

55
Q

What is the formula for NNT?

A

NNT=1/ARR (absolute risk reduction)

56
Q

What is the mechanism of propranolol?

A

Class II antiarrythmic = prolongs the slow, spontaneous depolarization = slower heart rate = decreased slope of diastolic depolarization

57
Q

Compare and contract Churg-Strauss and Wegener Granulomatosis

A

Churg-Strauss = small vessel vasculitis with symptoms like asthma, ear, nasal and sinus inflammation, peripheral neuropathy, arthralgias, skin lesions with granulomatous nectortizing vasculitis and eosinophilia.

Wegener: nectoritzing small vessel vasculitis presenting with sinopulmonary disease and kidney disease –> episataxis, hemoptysis, hematuria

58
Q

What are the differences in presentation with Chancroid, HPV, and Syphilus, and Genital herpes?

A

Chancroid: exudative painful ulver with inguinal lymphadenopathy with H. Ducreyi

Herpes: painful vessicles and erosions, shallow, lymphadenopathy

HPV: genital warts - soft and fleshy from HPV 16,18, 31, 33

Syphilis: multiple stages, painless chancre, secondary with fever/lymphadenopathy, tertiary with aortitis and gummas

59
Q

What does aortic stenosis look like on a cardiac pressure tracing? What is it indicative of?

A

Large peak pressure difference between LV and aorta = early onset aortic stenosis from congenital bicuspid valve.

60
Q

What is reciprocal inductive signaling, and what is an example?

A

Process by which two distinct cell populations impact differentiation of eachother through signaling. Example = uteric bud and mesenchyme –> generate the mature kidney

61
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium formula?

A

Frequency of a dominant and recessive allele in a population

p+q = 1
P^2 +2pq +q^2= 1

62
Q

What does hemolytic uremic syndrome manifest as?

A

Acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), seen in children with E.coli

63
Q

How do you calculate incidence?

A

of new cases of a disease / population at risk (remove initial diagnosed to see the group at risk)

64
Q

What is MPO deficiency?

A

Immunodeficiency from inability to produce hydroxy-halid free radicals in phagolysosomes, usually get recurrent candida infections

65
Q

What is necrotizing enterocolitis? How does it present? What age?

A

Associated with premature infancy and has inflammation and necrosis of the bowel wall leading to abdominal distention, tenderness, vom, blood diarrhea, lethargy, and feeding intolerance.

66
Q

When mast cells degranulate in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, what do they release?

A

First histamine, then prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and inflammatory mediators

67
Q

How does HIV mutate?

A

HIV reverse transcriptase = error prone = viral resistance

68
Q

What diseases are only inherited from the mom? What is the term for this?

A

Mitochondria diseases only inherited through mom. Hetroplasmay = presence of normal and mutated mitochondrial DNA = variable expression of diseases

69
Q

What lab values (Potassium, chloride, bicarbonate) are impacted in bulemia w/ abuse of laxatives?

A

Low bicarb, low potassium, increased chloride