NBME 26 Flashcards

1
Q

To assess ulnar nerve function, what action would be most indicative?

A

Abduction of the index, middle, ring, and small finger

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2
Q

An 18-month-old child with HIV is exposed to a child who has an erythematous, maculopapular rash. Three weeks later, the child develops giant cell pneumonia with no rash. What is the causative organism?

A

Measles

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3
Q

__________ and _________ activate the two primary cells responsible for granuloma formation in TB?

A

IL-12 & INF-y

IL-12 is an inflammatory cytokine secreted by macrophages that are infected w/TB, an intracellular pathogen. IL-12 acts on both natural killer cells (NK cells) and cytotoxic T lymphocytes, causing them to release interferon-gamma, which has several roles including the promotion of Th1 T-cell differentiation, the augmentation of antigen
presentation by macrophages, & the differentiation of macrophages into multinucleated giant cells.

Collectively, this activating pathway of IL-12 and interferon-gamma allow for granuloma formation, a histologic hallmark of infection w/TB, isolating the invasive pathogen.

Contrary to other diseases that result in granuloma formation, MTB infection often results in caseating (necrotic) granulomas.

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4
Q

PKU can result from a homozygous point mutation (GT->AT) in intron 12 causing the skipping of exon 12. Why does this occur?

A

RNA splice error

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5
Q

To differentiate ascites caused by constrictive pericarditis vs cirrhosis, what physical finding could confirm the former?

A

Increased JVP

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6
Q

Which mechanism of the cell cycle best explains increased potential for growth and resistance to chemotherapy in late stage colon carcinoma?

A

Genomic instability during S, G2, and M phases

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7
Q

After mannitol administration, how will serum osmolality and ADH levels change?

A

Both increase

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8
Q

In patients with glucagonoma, what process is most likely occurring in the liver?

A

Partial oxidation of fatty acids

Glucagon ENHANCES ketogenesis

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9
Q

Point mutations in HIV in the long terminal repeat region would result in decreased viral replication due to a defect in what process?

A

Integration of the provirus into the host cell genome

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10
Q

The most common cause of anemia in CLL (smudge cells) patients is what?

A

Autoimmune hemolysis

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11
Q

In a GI imaging study, the feathery appearance of some portions of the bowel as compared to others is due to what characteristic?

A

Greater mucosal surface area

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12
Q

What is the function of LFA in neutrophils?

A

Adhesion to endothelium

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13
Q

In a healthy person, what substance has the greatest fraction excreted in urine?

A

Urea

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14
Q

PGE2 administration to smooth muscle cells results in decreased tension (relaxation) due to what intracellular effect?

A

Increased cAMP

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15
Q

Histone acetyltransferase catalyzes acetylation of lysine residues in amino-terminal tails of histones which has what effect on histones/DNA?

A

Decreases affinity of histones to DNA

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16
Q

In premature infants, lungs have increased what?

A

Elastic recoil due to deficient surfactant

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17
Q

Surfactant is critical for reducing alveolar surface tension & collapsing pressure; without it, alveolar collapse results in (3)

A
  1. impaired gas exchange
  2. decreased lung compliance
  3. increased lung elastic recoil
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18
Q

A fast-acting anesthetic would have what characteristic?

A

Low blood solubility

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19
Q

What is the difference between simple partial & simple complex seizures?

A

Complex have altered consciousness, partial has retained awareness and patients may even speak

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20
Q

Prior to ovulation, oocytes are arrested in what stage of cell division? How about after ovulation?

A

Prophase of meiosis I; metaphase of meiosis II

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21
Q

What organism causes tinea versicolor?

A

Malassezia furfur

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22
Q

A patient presenting with shortness of breath, hypokinesis of the posterior left ventricular with increasing activity levels whose father died at 52 from MI likely has what cause of SOB?

A

Stenosis of the right coronary artery

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23
Q

A mutation in the gene encoding for what predisposes patients to malignant hyperthermia?

A

Ryanodine receptor

Malignant hyperthermia—rare, life-threatening condition in which inhaled anesthetics or succinylcholine induce severe muscle contractions & hyperthermia.
AD Inheritance with variable penetrance.

Mutations in ryanodine receptor (RYR1) cause ↑ Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Treatment: dantrolene (a ryanodine receptor antagonist).

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24
Q

In the production of thyroid hormone, iodide is oxidized by thyroidal peroxidase to iodine. Iodine iodinates AA residues within the thyroglobulin molecule including which AA?

A

Tyrosine

25
Q

Why is neomycin used to treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Killing of bacteria in the gut that generate ammonia

26
Q

When placing a stent to treat portal hypertension, it should be placed between a branch of the portal vein and which other vein?

A

Hepatic vein

27
Q

The most likely cause of metabolic acidosis in Fanconi syndrome is decreased reabsorption of what?

A

Bicarbonate from the PCT

28
Q

A patient with headaches and increased ICP is treated with a -zolamide drug. How does this work to decrease ICP?

A

Decreases CSF production by the choroid plexus

29
Q

Why is the GGT value specific for defects in bile flow?

A

It is present in bile ductules

30
Q

Passive flexion of the wrist elicits a pain response in a patient who recently fell due to damage to what structure?

A

Fracture of the distal radius

31
Q

In a study with 120 participants that randomly receive treatment or no treatment, the most significant limitation to the validity of the study is what?

A

Lack of blinding between groups

32
Q

ECG showing QRS complexes with missing p-waves in a patient experiencing palpitations and heavy caffeine use indicates what?

A

Supraventricular premature beats

33
Q

Diverticula typically lack the muscularis propria layer of the GI mucosa because they are formed due to what?

A

Increased luminal pressure

34
Q

A young child with dysostosis multiplex (deposition of lipids in weird places like bone) & increased activity of several lysosomal enzymes likely has what disease?

A

I-cell disease: abnormal targeting of enzymes to lysosomes (M6P deficiency)

35
Q

In a culture of T-cells infected with HIV being treated with a protease inhibitor, what would demonstrate evidence that the medication is working?

A

Lack of a mature core

36
Q

A patient with myasthenia gravis doubles their neostigmine dose but two days later experiences extreme muscle weakness and difficulty breathing. Why?

A

Desensitization of nicotinic receptors

37
Q

Why can deoxygenated blood carry more carbon dioxide than oxygenated blood?

A

Deoxyhemoglobin is a better buffer of hydrogen than oxyhemoglobin

38
Q

Knife wound to R chest + Tracheal deviated to L

Percussion to effected side will show?

A

A: Hyperresonant Percussion

This is Tension Pneumothorax.

Tracheal deviated to the opposite side bc air comes into pleural space causing compression atelectasis

39
Q

An investigator is studying pts w/West Nile virus infection. During a 5-yr period, data is collected on 25 pts dx w/this condition. Demographic information on the pts is reported (age, gender, and ethnicity), as well as info about likely sources of infection.

Which of the following best describes this study design?

A) Case series

B) Case-control study

C) Cohort study

D) Correlational study

E) Cross-sectional study

A

A) Case Series

A case series includes a small # of pts & seeks to describe the course of a disease or txt. It does not imply a causal relationship. It is observational in nature & is useful in describing a disease or txt w/limited # of pts.

-NO CONTROL GROUP in Case Series!

Wouldn’t be a cross-sectional study bc in Cross-sectional the pts are not followed for months/yrs. Cross-sectional is a snapshot in time–> “right now”

A cross-sectional study seeks to identify the prevalence of the condition at a particular point in time. An example of a cross-sectional study would be a single survey of a population inquiring whether pts have coronary artery disease & concurrently inquiring about activity levels & diet. Thus, the risk factor & the outcomes are measured simultaneously. The study does not follow pts over time. All information is collected at a single time point.

40
Q

Pts with phenylketonuria do not have the ability to convert phenylalanine to ____________ due to deficient/defective ________________.

Accumulation of phenylalanine in phenylketonuria leads to physical manifestations including ______________, ____________, & _____________

A

Tyrosine; Phenylalanine hydroxylase or Tetrahydrobiopterin deficiency (BH4)

Neurologic: microcephaly, developmental delay, seizures, severe intellectual disability
Nonneurologic: musty body odor, hypopigmentation (eg, skin, hair, eyes), eczema

41
Q

What are characteristic signs/symptoms of Measles?

A

prodromal fever (low grade fever)

cough

coryza

conjunctivitis

Koplik spots (white spots on buccal mucosa/mouth)

erythematous, maculopapular rash that starts at the head/neck & spreads to the trunk

Rash does NOT include the palms & soles

Pneumonia (immunocompromised pts)

42
Q

After a cerebral infarction (6months later in Q), neurons undergo liquefactive necrosis & are replaced by a glial scar consisting of proliferated _________

A

Astrocytes (Glial Cells)

In peripheral tissues, fibroblasts migrate to the area of injury to participate in tissue repair.

However, in the CNS, repair is instead performed by astrocytes that migrate to the area of necrosis within 2 wks of injury to begin forming a glial scar.

43
Q

Characteristics of bacterial vaginosis infection (4)

what is the treatment?

A
  • gray thin malodorous vaginal discharge
  • vaginal pH > 4.5
  • fish odor (strong amine smell) upon KOH testing
  • clue cells on microscopy

treat with metronidazole
do not need to treat partners (not considered STI)

44
Q

Premature closure of which suture results in narrow, elongated cranium?

which suture results in short, broad flattened cranium?

A

increased AP dimension: sagittal suture
short broad (arrests the AP dimension): coronal

45
Q

_________ addition to PRP (platelet-rich plasma) will result in rapid and irreversible aggregation

A

ADP (adenosine diphosphate) & Thromboxane A2
- critical in normal hemostasis

Acts via the receptors P2Y1 and P2Y2 on the surface of platelets. Binding to these receptors results in G-protein coupled receptor signaling, with concurrent alteration of platelet shape and activation of GPllb/IIIa via the PI3K signaling pathway, which results in rapid platelet aggregation

46
Q

What are main distinguishing factors between RA and OA?

A

❥ Osteoarthritis→ DIP, PIP, spine & the large weight-bearing joints of the lower extremities (knees, hips). Morning stiffness < 30min. Hard, bony enlargement of joints. OA worsens through the day

❥Rheumatoid arthritis→ Morning stiffness that lasts hrs & pt has systemic sxs like fever, wt loss, ANEMIA! Worse in morning, improves w/activity.
-metacarpophalangeal, PIP, & other joints, but DIP joint involvement is less common.
-involved joints in RA have active synovitis, w/warmth & soft/spongy swelling.
-“synovial hyperplasia”

-Rheumatoid factor (an IgM against the Fc region of IgG); anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP); anti-CCP is more specific than rheumatoid factor

47
Q

First-line treatment for ADHD is stimulant medication such as amphetamine salts and methylphenidate.

Whats the MOA?

A

These medications increase presynaptic release of dopamine
& norepinephrine, which improve
hyperactivity & inattention, respectively.

48
Q

12M + lethargy, hip pain, fever (103) has been hospitalized several other times bc of PNA. Neonatal period normal. CBC counts wnl, HIV negative. Blood cultures grow Staph aureus. Serum electrophoresis is likely to show which?

A

D: deficiency in immunoglobulins

first peak = albumin
alpha = alpha 1 antitrypsin, thyroid-binding globulin, transcortin
beta: transferrin and B-lipoproteins, complement
y: immunoglobulins

A: narrow monoclonal spike in the gamma region
- multiple myeloma
- Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
- monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
- amyloidosis

B: blurring of the beta-2 and gamma regions (beta/gamma fusion)
- increased CRP or increased IgA
(severe respiratory infections, RA, cirrhosis)

C: large but wide gamma region consistent with hypergammaglobulinemia
- nonspecific hypergammaglobulinemia (chronic liver dz, CT dz, inflammatory conditions)

E: normal

49
Q

Tetracyclines (i.e. doxy) MOA

Why are tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnancy and in children?

A

MOA: prevents the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosomes

inhibition of bone growth
discoloration of teeth

50
Q

What torch infection is commonly associated with intracranial calcifications?

also: jaundice, hepatomegaly, petechial rash, seizures

A

CMV

51
Q

Respiratory depression (ex. Barbituate overdose) results in hypoventilation, which is characterized by __________ PO2, _________ PCO2, & ________ A-a gradient

A

decreased PO2 (hypoxemia)
increased PCO2 (respiratory acidosis)
normal A-a gradient

52
Q

Which of the following labeled depolarizations is associated with the smallest stroke volume?

A

B

Stroke volume is the difference between the ventricular end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume. premature ventricular contraction (PVC) shorten diastolic filling times leading to lower diastolic volumes with a consequent reduction in stroke volume during ventricular
systole.

53
Q

Pt w/hx of rheumatic valvular disease + EKG shows MI + systolic murmur on exam + Pressure tracings from the aorta, LV & LA shown. Whats the dx & what could cause this?

A

Dx is Mitral Regurgitation

Rupture of the chordae tendineae & papillary muscle is a potential complication of myocardial infarction & results in acute mitral regurgitation.

On a pressure-time graph, this manifests as an increased left atrial pressure during ventricular systole from regurgitant blood.

54
Q

When you hear mitral obstruction you should be thinking Mitral ______

A

Mitral Stenosis

Mitral Stenosis results in an abnormally increased LA pressure due to the impaired flow of blood from the LA into the LV. Additionally, the LV stroke volume may also be reduced from impaired diastolic filling.

Note: MS you hear Opening Snap!

55
Q

Midsystolic click followed by late systolic murmur

What murmur?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

56
Q

Know that MR can be primary & secondary (ex. decompensated HF)

A

Image of Secondary Mitral Valve Regurgitation

57
Q

What are the two primary forms of genomic instability in the pathogenesis of colon cancer?

A
  1. microsatellite (15%)
    - failure of mismatch repair pathway (MMR) from mutations in MLH1, MSH2, APC, and other genes, results in the propagation of aberrant DNA and accumulation of mutations that predispose to malignant transformation
    - seen in familial syndromes: Lynch, FAP
  2. chromosome instability (85%)
    - specific activating mutations of oncogenes (i.e. KRAS) or LOF mutations of tumor suppressor genes (i.e. p53) results in aberrant entry into the cell cycle (and oncogenic potential)
    - genomic instability occurs during chromosomal replication (S), fidelity checks of the chromosomes (G2) and during separation of the chromosomes (M phase) during cell cycle
    - sporadic colon cancers
58
Q

RB1 is a tumor suppressor gene & phosphorylation results in its _________, thereby allowing the cell to enter the cell cycle.

A

inhibition;

By inhibiting/Phosphorylating RB1 cancer cells can overgrow

Reduced phosphorylation would
prevent entry into the cell cycle & would inhibit growth.

59
Q

The RB1 gene encodes the Rb protein that regulates the _____ checkpoint.

A

G1/S

In its active form, Rb protein binds & inhibits E2F transcription factors, thereby halting the cell cycle.

In contrast, when a cell is ready to divide, Rb protein is phosphorylated by cyclin-dependent kinases, allowing the cell to proceed through the G1/S checkpoint.

Loss-of-function mutations affecting the Rb protein result in unrestricted progression through the G1/S checkpoint, leading to uncontrolled cell division.

Inciting RB1 mutations have been linked to retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma.