Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DH practice > NBDHE questions > Flashcards

NBDHE questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of temporomandibular joint disorder? TMJ

A) Jaw pain
B) Headaces
C) Ear pain
D) Neck pain

A

Neck pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of tooth loss in adults?

A) Dental caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Trauma
D) Tooth fracture

A

B) Periodontal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is an effective technique for removing interproximal plaque?

a. Flossing
b. Mouthwash
c. Chewing gum
d. Whitening strips

A

a. Flossing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the recommended amount of time for brushing teeth?
A) 15 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 1 minute
D) 2 minutes

A

D) 2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary function of fluoride in oral health?
A) To prevent dental caries
B) To whiten teeth
C) To freshen breath
D) To reduce gum inflammation

A

A) To prevent dental caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is an example of an occlusal surface?
A) The biting surface of a front tooth
B) The chewing surface of a back tooth
C) The side of a tooth
D) The root of a tooth

A

B) The chewing surface of a back tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following bacteria is the primary cause of periodontitis?
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. Porphyromonas gingivalis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus

A

b. Porphyromonas gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication for nitrous oxide sedation?

Pregnancy
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c. Asthma
d. Claustrophobia

A

D. Claustrophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is an example of a hard tissue lesion?
a. Canker sore
b. Leukoplakia
c. Erosion
d. Caries

A

Caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is a complication of periodontal disease?
a. Tooth sensitivity
b. Halitosis
c. Tooth loss
d. Dental caries

A

c. Tooth loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is a complication of periodontal disease?
a. Tooth sensitivity
b. Halitosis
c. Tooth loss
d. Dental caries

A

c. Tooth loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation and damage to the pulp tissue of a tooth?

A. Gingivitis
B. Periodontitis
C. Dental caries
D. Pulpitis

A

Pulpitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of fluoride ingestion?
A. Diarrhea
B. Headache
C. Nausea
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the smooth elevated area between the eyebrows called?

A

Glabella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During your periodontal charting, which of the following gingival features should be included in your description?

A) Color
B) Contour
C) Consistency
D) Distribution
E) All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As a group, ester-type local anesthetics are more likely than amide-type local anesthetics to cause which of the following drug effects?

A) Allergy
B) Overdose
C) Vasovagal syncope
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Hypertension

A

Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

W hich of the following does most of the work of drug metabolism in the body?

A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Thyroid
D) Parathyroid
E) Adrenal gland

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following analgesics might your dentist tell a patient to avoid following removal of third molars due to an increased risk of bleeding?

A) Tylenol
B) Percocet
C) Vicodin
D) Motrin
E) Lorcet

A

Motrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a progressive disease in which the bone marrow produces and increased number of immature or abnormal white cells?

A) Myeloma
B) Lymphoma
C) Leukemia
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
E) Hemophilia

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the maxillary central incisor compare to the maxillary lateral incisor in root form?

A) Maxillary central incisor is longer

B) Maxillary lateral incisor is longer

C) Maxillary central incisor is shorter, but wider

D) Maxillary lateral incisor is shorter, but wider

E) They are both approximately the same length

A

E) They are both approximately the same length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

You get a call from a frantic mom who claims her son has fallen off his bike and “knocked” his front tooth out. She has the tooth and wants to come in so her son can be seen. You tell her to hurry in with the tooth and tell her to transport the tooth in which of the following?

A) Whole milk
B) Hanks balanced salt solution
C) Her sons cheek
D) Physiologic saline
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the well controlled diabetic?

A) Fasting blood sugar < 125 mg/dL
B) Post prandial < 140 mg/dL
C) HbA1C < 7%
D) Use maximum of 2 carpules Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of fluoride?

A) Reduced acid solubility
B) Enzyme inhibition
C) Decreased morphology
D) Polysaccharide synthesis
E) Lower free surface energy

A

C) Decreased morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Toothbrush prophylaxis plays a crucial role in pediatric dental care by not only removing plaque but also serving as an educational tool for both young patients and their caregivers. Considering its importance, which of the following statements best describes the rationale and benefits of utilizing toothbrush prophylaxis in the dental care regimen of most young children?

A) Toothbrush prophylaxis is primarily beneficial for its ability to introduce young children to more invasive dental procedures gradually, preparing them psychologically for future dental treatments.

B) While toothbrush prophylaxis effectively removes plaque in young children, its main disadvantage is the inability to demonstrate proper brushing techniques to caregivers, requiring additional instructional sessions.

C) The primary advantage of toothbrush prophylaxis for young children is its efficiency in calculus removal, surpassing other methods in terms of effectiveness and patient comfort.

D) Toothbrush prophylaxis is preferred for young children because it is non-threatening and allows dental professionals to demonstrate proper brushing techniques to caregivers, promoting good oral hygiene practices from an early age.

E) The effectiveness of toothbrush prophylaxis in young children is limited to those with advanced manual dexterity, making it a less suitable option for the majority of young patients who cannot yet brush their teeth effectively.

A

D) Toothbrush prophylaxis is preferred for young children because it is non-threatening and allows dental professionals to demonstrate proper brushing techniques to caregivers, promoting good oral hygiene practices from an early age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

All of the following are types of necrosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Coagulative
B) Granular
C) Caseous
D) Fat
E) Fibroid

A

B) Granular

26
Q

What structure propagates the action potential (AP) in the atria from right to left?

A) Internodal fiber
B) Bundle of His
C) SA node
D) Bachmann’s bundle
E) Purkinje fibers

A

D) Bachmann’s bundle

27
Q

All of the following are indications for the use of topical fluoride therapy EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Active caries
B) White spots
C) To reduce tooth sensitivity
D) Increased salivary flow
E) Orthodontic treatment

A

D) Increased salivary flow

28
Q

Which of the following signifies the start of ventricular repolarization?

A) P wave
B) T wave
C) Q complex
D) R complex
E) S complex

A

B) T wave

29
Q

Which of the following are the multiple bluish-gray macules set on an erythematous background that occur on the buccal and labial mucosa in stage 1 rubeola (measles)?

A) Kaposi sarcoma
B) Koplik spots
C) Molluscum contagiosum
D) Verruca vulgaris
E) Heck’s disease

A

B) Koplik spots

30
Q

What is the neurotransmitter involved in the olfactory process?

A) Glutamate
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine (ACh)
D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) Norepinephrine (NE)

A

A) Glutamate

31
Q

Fluoride is recognized for its role in preventing dental caries through both systemic and topical mechanisms. While the systemic ingestion of fluoride is crucial for incorporating fluoride into the developing enamel of unerupted teeth, its benefits extend beyond the eruption of teeth. Systemic fluoride continues to play a role in enamel protection after teeth have erupted. Which of the following statements accurately explains how systemic fluoride contributes to enamel protection throughout an individual’s lifetime?

A) After tooth eruption, systemic fluoride has no further role in enamel protection, as it cannot interact with enamel that is already fully mineralized and exposed to the oral environment.

B) Systemic fluoride is only beneficial for dental health during the developmental stages of teeth, and its excretion through saliva in adults is too minimal to have any protective effect on erupted teeth.

C) Consumed fluoride, once systemically absorbed, is excreted through the saliva and continues to aid in the protection of enamel by promoting remineralization and inhibiting demineralization of erupted teeth throughout a person’s lifetime.

D) The primary mechanism by which systemic fluoride protects erupted teeth is through strengthening the gingival tissue and preventing gum disease, indirectly benefiting the enamel by maintaining a healthy oral environment.

E) Systemic fluoride significantly alters the pH of the saliva to more acidic levels, directly dissolving dental plaque and calculus on erupted teeth, thus providing ongoing protection against caries.

A

C) Consumed fluoride, once systemically absorbed, is excreted through the saliva and continues to aid in the protection of enamel by promoting remineralization and inhibiting demineralization of erupted teeth throughout a person’s lifetime.

32
Q

All of the following affect how well an enzyme works EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Temperature
B) Protein synthesis
C) pH
D) Substrate concentration
E) Enzyme concentration

A

B) Protein synthesis

33
Q

What is the most common potential medical emergency in the dental office?

A) Angina
B) Heart attack
C) Syncope
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Asthma attack

A

C) Syncope

34
Q

You are performing your head and neck examination and note a raised mole on your patients neck. During palpation you notice a firm node on the opposite side. Which of the following terms describes the opposite side?

A) Ipsilateral
B) Contralateral
C) Superficial
D) Medial
E) Distal

A

B) Contralateral

35
Q

The cusp of Carabelli is found on which permanent tooth?

A) Maxillary 1st molar
B) Maxillary 2nd molar
C) Maxillary 2nd premolar
D) Mandibular 1st molar
E) Mandibular 2nd molar

A

A) Maxillary 1st molar

36
Q

All of the following are fat soluble vitamins EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E
E) Vitamin K

A

B) Vitamin B

37
Q

All of the following are stages in the formation of dental plaque biofilm EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Acquired pellicle formation
B) Attachment
C) Young subgingival plaque formation
D) Mature plaque formation
E) Subgingival plaque formation

A

C) Young subgingival plaque formation

38
Q

The surgical procedure which only involves removal of bony ledges or nonsupporting bone is called

A) Osteoplasty
B) Ostectomy
C) Osteotomy
D) Apicoectomy
E) None of the above

A

A) Osteoplasty

39
Q

Which of the following is a measure for assessing population health management?

A) Life expectancy
B) Patient safety
C) Well being
D) Access to care
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

40
Q

Which of the following is not considered a requirement for an ideal desensitizing agent?

A) Slow acting
B) Long term effects
C) Non-irritating to the pulp
D) Painless
E) Easy to apply

A

A) Slow acting

41
Q

Which of the following is not part of the health belief model?

A) Disease has no serious consequences
B) Behavior change is good
C) Change is important
D) Able to demonstrate self-efficacy
E) Patients are vulnerable

A

A) Disease has no serious consequences

42
Q

Which part of the mandible is most often fractured?

A) Coronoid process
B) Condyle
C) Ramus
D) Angle of the mandible
E) Body of the mandible

A

B) Condyle

43
Q

What is the ideal angulation for scaling and root planing?

A) 0-20 degrees
B) 20-40 degrees
C) 40-60 degrees
D) 60-80 degrees
E) 80-100 degrees

A

D) 60-80 degrees

44
Q

A disease that originates from outside of the person’s body caused by either pathogenic organisms that invade the body,radiation, chemical agents, trauma, electric shock, or temp extremes?

A) Endogenous
B) Exogenous
C) Nosocomial
D) Iatrogenic
E) Opportunistic

A

B) Exogenous

45
Q

What is the term that means a complete absence of tissue?

A) Hypoplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Dystrophy
E) Aplasia

A

E) Aplasia

46
Q

Which of the following is not a possible effect of chronic fluoride toxicity on bones?

A) Exostosis
B) Sclerosis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteomalacia
E) Spontaneous fractures

A

D) Osteomalacia

47
Q

Which of the following lacks a cell wall?

A) Borrelia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Mycobacterium
D) Clostridium
E) Nocardia

A

B) Mycoplasma

48
Q

Into what vein does the pterygoid plexus of veins empty?

A) External jugular vein
B) Maxillary vein
C) Superficial temporal vein
D) Superior labial vein
E) Inferior labial vein

A

B) Maxillary vein

49
Q

Which of the following is considered a stress hormone?

A) Melatonin
B) Adrenaline
C) Glucagon
D) Cortisol
E) Thymosin

A

Cortisol

50
Q

Which of the following is not an intervention method of dental caries?

A) Radiographs
B) Fluoride
C) Antibacterial rinses
D) Decreased fermentable carbohydrates
E) Increased saliva flow

A

A) Radiographs

51
Q

What is the large radiolucent cavity observed within the maxilla apical to the posterior teeth?
A) Exostoses
B) Nasal fossa
C) Zygomatic process
D) Maxillary sinus
E) Maxillary tuberosity

A

D) Maxillary sinus

52
Q

What type of gypsum product is commonly known as die stone?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V

A

D) Type IV

53
Q

Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it?

A) Is aerobic
B) Possesses and axial filament
C) Is a rod
D) Is a pathogen
E) None of the above

A

B) Possesses and axial filament

54
Q

Objectives may include improving information as well as achieving direct health outcomes and must be “SMART”. All of the following are part of the “SMART” acronym EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Specific
B) Measurable
C) Accurate
D) Relatable
E) Timebound

A

D) Relatable

55
Q

Which of the following diseases is often confused with erythema multiform and is triggered by a drug reaction rather than an infection?

A) Lyell disease
B) Lichenoid disease
C) Bullous dermatosis
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
E) Paraneoplastic autoimmune multiorgan syndrome

A

D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

56
Q

Which of the following would not be indicated for management of a patient with bronchial asthma?

A) Limit anxiety
B) Tell patient to bring their regular medication with them
C) Allergy to penicillin may be more frequent
D) Avoid certain antihistamines (promethazine and diphenhydramine)
E) Acceptable to use of local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor

A

E) Acceptable to use of local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor

57
Q

Which of the following is not a member of the cytokine family?

A) Chemokines
B) TNF
C) Interferons
D) Leukokines
E) Interleukins

A

D) Leukokines

58
Q

Which one of the following is not considered a dominant phyla in the human gut?

A) Firmicutes
B) Bacteroides
C) Escherechia
D) Actinobacteria
E) Proteobacteria

A

C) Escherechia

59
Q

Which of the following does not typically contribute to limited access to care for dependent patient with special needs?

A) Low caregiver priority on oral health
B) Inadequate funding for care
C) inadequately trained dental professionals
D) Low patient priority on oral health
E) None of the above

A

D) Low patient priority on oral health

60
Q

How long does it take topical anesthetic to reach maximum soft tissue anesthesia?

A) 15 seconds
B) 45 seconds
C) 1-2 minutes
D) 3 minutes
E) 4-5 minutes

A

C) 1-2 minutes

61
Q

Which of the following is a method used to determine the relative position of two objects in the oral cavity using projectional dental radiography.

A) SLOB rule
B) Bisecting angle
C) Paralleling technique
D) Clark’s rule
E) Cieszynski’s rule

A

A) SLOB rule

DH practice (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions