NavyBMR Flashcards
Assessment of FMAs will be conducted by the Type Commander (TYCOM) or what with cognizance over the FMA.
Fleet Commander
Assessments will be performed annually, not to exceed how many months, to evaluate the ability of the FMA to execute maintenance in accordance with applicable technical directives and specifications?
18
Strike Force FMA/Amphibious Ready Group FMA (CV\CVN, LHA, LHD) assessments will occur once during the inter-deployment training cycle, normally during what phase?
Advanced
Observation of what is preferred to the assignment of projects or mockups in core capability areas?
in process work
The Commanding Officer will submit a findings status report to the TYCOM via the administrative chain of command within how many days following the date of the official assessment report?
60
Findings classified as “Immediate Corrective Action Required” require the immediate attention of the Commanding Officer and must be corrected within how many days following the date of the assessment out-brief?
15
Findings classified as “Corrective Action Required” require the prompt attention of the Commanding Officer to preclude them from developing into “Immediate Corrective Action Required” deficiencies and must be corrected within how many days following receipt of the official assessment report?
60
The maximum interval between boiler inspections and other occasions requiring boiler inspections, including responsibilities for continuation and standardization of the boiler inspection program, are formally assigned in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 9220.3
What shall provide the overall management of the SGPI and NSWCCD LCEM Inspection programs?
NAVSEA
What shall provide management of technical data and boiler history?
NSWCCD
Who shall host the semi-annual SGPI seminars on an alternating coast basis?
Fleet Commanders
Student certification must be conducted on what type boilers with Automatic Boiler Controls (ABC)?
D
What shall provide a qualified SGPI when requested by the ship, Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC) or Type Commander (TYCOM)/Class Squadron (CLASSRON)?
Regional Maintenance Center (RMC)
Who shall assist Commanding Officers in arranging for the corrective action of items beyond the capability of Ship’s Force, when requesting?
ISIC
Who shall conduct boiler inspections as required by appropriate Planned Maintenance System (PMS) item?
Ship Commanding Officers/Officers In Charge
Who shall maintain applicable SGPI certifications?
Senior Inspectors
Commanding Officers/Officers In Charge of ships/craft shall request boiler inspections by letter or message via the chain of command. In addition, what shall be submitted to the RMC requesting boiler inspections?
OPNAV 4790/2-Kilo
Boiler inspection services shall be coordinated by geographic areas for maximum utilization of SGPIs/NSWCCD LCEM Inspectors. Who will combine inspection requests and schedule inspections?
ISICs
Observance of good engineering practices and careful control of boiler water chemistry will reduce the frequency of what entry?
Pressure vessel
Ensure “idle boiler condition” is accomplished per the provisions of the Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS) and what?
NSTM Chapter 221
Water washing of what is not authorized without TYCOM and NAVSEA approval?
Firesides
The decision to overrides normal safety precautions will be made by the Commanding Officer/Officer in Charge and will be reported to the what by message?
TYCOM
Routine Inspections of propulsion, auxiliary and waste heat boilers will be conducted at least once every Inter-Deployment Training Cycle and shall not exceed how many months from its last inspection?
24
The normal interval between routine boiler inspections shall be how many months?
18
To provide scheduling flexibility, boiler inspections may be performed as early as how many months or as late as 24 months after the previous inspection?
12
Boiler inspections that exceed the 18 month interval shall will require a minor what to the TYCOM with recommendation from RMC?
Departure From Specification (DFS)
Any boiler which exceeds the inspection interval shall be placed out of commission until inspected by a certified what?
SGPI
The PSOI/PSAI will be scheduled by the what, as approved by the cognizant TYCOM?
ISIC
The normal interval between Strength and Integrity Inspections shall be how many months?
60
Strength and Integrity Inspections may be performed as early as 48 months or as late as how many months after the last Strength and Integrity Inspection to provide scheduling flexibility?
72
What will be conducted before reinstallation of steam drum internals and de-superheater for the Strength and Integrity Inspection?
COI/CAI
The Newly Constructed Ship Acceptance Inspection shall be accomplished in conjunction with what?
INSURV Acceptance Trials
The SGPI shall ensure a maintenance ready 2-Kilo for every discrepancy found during the inspection is entered into the what?
Current Ship’s Maintenance Project
The Senior Inspector will forward a copy of the BIRMIS report with cover letter to the ship’s Commanding Officer no later than how many days after completion of all discrepancies?
Ten
The SGPI shall report RBO deficiencies discovered during the inspection to the CLASSRON and ship’s Commanding Officer by message within what time frame?
24 hours
The ship’s Commanding Officer shall submit a proposed Plan of Actions and Milestones for deficiency correction for CLASSRON approval within what time frame of boiler inspection?
10 days
The ship’s Commanding Officer shall report corrected deficiencies, by message, to the ISIC, CLASSRON and TYCOM within what time frame of the completed inspection?
30 days
Who is the sole authority for deferral of deficiencies?
TYCOM
Boiler inspections will be conducted using what appropriate forms?
BIRMIS
Ships equipped with ABCs shall use the controls at all times while what?
Steaming
When ABCs cannot be operated in automatic, this fact shall be reported by a what?
CASREP message
Prior to boiler light off, all ABCs shall be tested in accordance with what?
EOSS
What is the desired boiler flexibility performance level?
Level I
All personnel who are required in the course of their duties to test, treat and/or manage boiler water/feedwater programs shall be certified as specified in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 9220.2
The primary use of the water jet machine is for what cleaning?
Boiler waterside
When a water jet machine is out of commission for more than what time frame, the status shall be reported utilizing the CASREP procedures?
24 hours
Initial qualification to perform diesel inspections will be for a period of how many months?
36
A DEI whose certification either expired or was revoked may request reinstatement of his certification by submitting a letter to the Program Manager via his chain of command and the what?
RMC
If the DEI’s certification has been expired for more than how many months prior to the request or was revoked, the two most recent inspections shall be completed under the instruction of a certified DEI?
Six
The normal interval between routine diesel inspections is how many months?
18
In no case shall the interval between routine diesel engine inspections exceed what time frame?
24 monthly
For Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) onboard nuclear powered vessels, industrial activity work on the diesel engine(s) or its support systems will not normally be approved except during a what?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) Availability
Who will make the final determination of whether the overhaul/repair was extensive enough to warrant a Post Overhaul/Repair Inspection?
DEI
Units shall contact the local RMC/ISIC Diesel Inspector to schedule the diesel inspection how many days prior to the desired inspection date?
120
Units shall submit a work request (OPNAV 4790/2K) to the appropriate RMC a minimum of how many days in advance of the desired dates for the diesel inspection to allow for DEI scheduling?
90
It is the responsibility of whom to schedule the diesel inspection with the RMC during a period where the inspection’s condition assessment can be best utilized for repair planning?
Fleet Maintenance Managers
The diesel inspection may require that each engine being inspected normally be placed out of commission for how many days at the minimum?
Five to seven
SSDGs normally have the operational phase performed inport, whereas operational assessment of MPDEs requires the ship to be underway for a minimum of how long?
One day
TYCOMs may approve a minor DFS for diesel inspections in a how many month window?
18 to 24
For inspection deferrals of greater than 24 months, the TYCOM will forward endorsement to what for approval of the DFS?
NAVSEA 05Z
Discrepancies beyond Ship’s Force capability will be scheduled to be corrected through the Fleet Maintenance Managers, utilizing the what?
Current Ship’s Maintenance Project
What discrepancies include those for which continued unrestricted operation could endanger personnel and/or cause serious damage to the engine or associated equipment?
Repair Before Operating (RBO)
Any deficiency that has been noted as major shall require either immediate correction within how many days of discovery or reported by Naval message?
30
The DEI shall ensure a maintenance ready what for every discrepancy found during the inspection is entered into the Current Ship’s Maintenance Project?
2-Kilo
Per NAVSEA S9086-HB-STM-010 the light loading of a diesel engine (less than what percent) should be avoided?
60%
In situations where light loading of a diesel engine is unavoidable, arrangements should be made to operate the engine at 60-80 percent rated load capacity for a minimum of thirty minutes, preferably how many hours, unless other guidance exits specific to the engine’s application?
Three
Per what reference diesel engines that have online purification capability shall operate the purifier continuously while the diesel engine is operating?
NAVSEA S9086-H7-STM-010
Engine Operating Hours since Overhaul is zeroed only when the engine is what?
Overhauled
Ship’s what shall ensure all diesel records are readily available for the inspector’s review and Ship’s Force use?
Commanding Officers
Who provides technical oversight on all scheduled and emergent work performed by the RMC personnel, and contractor, as required?
Subject Matter Expert (SME)
Significant repairs and I/D-Level work packages shall be accomplished by what?
Directive maintenance
What maintenance is defined as maintenance that is directed by the engine’s condition?
Condition based
Each engine’s condition data shall be analyzed on what basis to identify any abnormalities, downward tends or other issues?
Monthly
Results of each Continuous Assessment shall be reported, with recommendations for corrections of any problems/potential problems, to the Ship’s Engineer Officer and ISIC and documented in the what?
Shipboard Automated Maintenance Module (SAMM)
Fuel dilution of what percent is a cautionary condition and requires monitoring by daily sampling?
1.0-2
Fuel dilution greater than what percent is a hazard condition and considered unacceptable for continued use?
2
Fuel dilution greater than what percent is a RBO?
5
Engines with fuel dilution levels greater than what percent may be operated at the discretion of the Commanding Officer if operational circumstance dictates (e.g., restricted maneuvering) with a TYCOM DFS?
2
Light loading of Pielstick PC2.5 MPDE is defined as operation below what percent of the engine rating?
60%
What must be properly operated and maintained or serious health hazard can result?
Sewage systems
The most common pollution abatement sewage system in use on ships and craft is the what?
Collection, Holding and Transfer system
The purpose of what is to confirm that the system, as installed, meets established design requirements, that adequate logistic support is available onboard, and that major installation deficiencies are corrected?
MSD certification
The TYCOM/Immediate Superior In Command shall ensure surface ships participate in the pollution abatement program to the maximum extent possible by utilizing their pollution control equipment when within U.S. territorial waters (how many miles)?
NAVSEAINST 9593.1
All Fleet Maintenance Activities are capable of accomplishing repair and overhaul of all MSD components on what basis?
Ship-to-shop
The only authorized MSD pipe cleaning process is what cleaning?
Hydroblast
Pipe sections which can be removed from the system may be cleaned how using the procedures of NAVSEA S9086-T8-STM-010?
Acid cleaned
Training courses in the maintenance and operation of MSD systems are offered by what?
Fleet Training Centers
What is not flammable but supports and rapidly accelerates the combustion of all flammable materials?
oxygen
What is an almost totally inert gas, does not burn, and does not support combustion or respiration?
Gaseous nitrogen
What which include (liquid oxygen and liquid nitrogen) are extremely dangerous, and they can cause severe burns or frostbite if they contact the skin?
Cryogenic fluids.
What is to be sampled and tested for production and stowage in accordance with NAVSEA S9086-SX-STM-010 and Planned Maintenance System procedures?
Liquid oxygen/nitrogen.
For shipboard produced liquid oxygen, the limit for methane, when sampled at the storage tanks, is how many parts per million?
75
Certification high pressure gaseous storage flasks shall be performed in accordance with what?
MIL-STD-1330.
Equipment such as O2N2 producing plants, storage tanks, and pump-vaporizer units shall be operated only under the supervision of a Fleet Cryogenics School graduate that holds what current Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC) qualification?
NEC 4283.
The Environmental Protection Agency Clean Air Act, Section what prohibits individuals from knowingly venting ozone depleting compounds, used as refrigerants, into the atmosphere while maintaining, servicing, repairing, or disposing of air-conditioning or refrigeration equipment?
608.
Nuclear Propulsion Plant Test and Support Equipment is commonly referred to as what?
Nuclear Test Equipment (NTE).
What is the validation that the equipment is certified based on a review of records and is in a physically acceptable condition for issue and use?
Verification.
What is the detailed technical evaluation of the equipment to conclude that the item conforms to the required specification?
Certificaton.
Who is designated as the custodian of NTE?
Nuclear Repair Officer.
The requirements for General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment to support nuclear electrical/electronics testing are contained in the applicable what?
Ship’s Portable Electronic Test Equipment Requirements List.
NTE shall be certified using a Formal Work Package (FWP) for Electronic/Electrical Test Equipment and a what for Mechanical Test Equipment?
Controlled Work Package (CWP).
What page (current and superseded) shall be retained by the Nuclear Repair Officer for the life of the equipment?
Certification Record.
Requests for test equipment are normally made using what form and identifying the appropriate Master Job Catalog routine Job Sequence Number?
OPNAV 4790/2L.
Prior to issue by the repair facility mechanical NTE which is expected to be subjected to pressure greater than how many pounds per square inch will be operationally pressure tested to the highest pressure expected during use in the propulsion plant?
10.
NTE will inventoried at least how often?
Annually.
Shipboard weapons and cargo handling elevators are supported through the elevator assessment and repair program, which is executed by the what?
Elevator Support Unit (ESU).
Prior to commencement of any ESU evolution, a pre-brief will be conducted by the ESU representative and attended by the ship’s what and all applicable departmental representatives?
Maintenance Manager.
What is conducted with Ship’s Force to promote self-sufficiency?
On the Job Training (OJT).
What is designed to correct discrepancies identified in the ship’s CSMP that could not be repaired during the assessment visit?
Repair Visit.
Who will schedule all ESU visits through the TYCOM sponsored Quarterly Scheduling Conference?
ISIC.
Before departing the ship, the ESU will debrief the Commanding Officer, or designated officer, on the material condition of the elevator system. The ESU shall provide the ISIC and TYCOM a report outlining the results, not later than how many days following the visit?
30.
When TWDs are utilized, the locally developed what should direct execution of the check lists and need only direct other actions that are not included in the check lists?
FWP.
What do not require retention after the test has been satisfactorily completed, documented in the FWP or TWD, and the FWP or TWD is closed?
System Check Lists.
When who accepts the completed retest, the check list may be discarded?
FMA Quality Assurance Officer.
For FMA shop testing of controlled work, the completed check lists, or copies, shall be provided with the test documentation required by the what until the FMA Quality Assurance Officer or Quality Assurance Supervisor accepts the testing objective quality evidence?
Controlled Work Package.
All outside activity work on ship’s systems and components, regardless of who performs the work, requires formal authorization through a what for the specific work to be accomplished?
Work Authorization Form (WAF).
Work requiring what may include Planned Maintenance System (PMS), troubleshooting, corrective maintenance (repair) or alterations?
Formal authorization.
Work on the Fleet’s ships is conducted under positive what in order to ensure rigorous personnel and ship safety standards are met at all times?
Work Authorization Control.
What is the vehicle by which work requiring formal control is authorized for accomplishment and tracked to completion or otherwise no longer requiring isolation or authorization?
WAF.
Who has overall responsibility for ensuring maintenance is accomplished following 3-M System and quality maintenance procedures and that the 3-M System functions effectively within the command?
Commanding Officer.
Who is the command’s 3-M System Manager?
Executive Officer.
Who is the functional manager of the 3-M System?
3M System Coordinator.
The 3M System Coordinator supervision of all administrative facets of the 3-M System program. This position will be assigned in writing as the PRIMARY DUTY of an Officer, Chief Petty Officer or Petty Officer First Class (who has been assigned what secondary Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC))?
9517.
The 3M System Coordinator Ensure all routing review signatures have been applied prior to forwarding 3-M documents to the designated data processing activity within how many working days of document origination or as operationally feasible?
7.
Who is responsible for the final approval of the 3-M Quarterly Schedule?
Department Head.
What shall be submitted requesting a LOEP change for new adds and for equipment removals?
PMS FBR.
Department LCPO shall be 3-M PQS qualified up to what level?
Department 3-M System Assistant.
Who will review, approve, and close out weekly schedules?
Division Officer.
The Division Officer shall ensure all Work Center weekly schedules are updated how often?
Daily.
The Division LCPO/LPO shall be qualified 3-M PQS up to what level?
Division Officer.
Who is responsible to the Division Officer via the LCPO/LPO for the effective operation of the 3-M System within their respective Work Center?
Work Center Supervisor.
What will the Work Center Supervisor use as a daily working document for the scheduling of any maintenance actions not included on the PMS schedules?
Current Ship’s Maintenance Project (CSMP).
What has been developed to provide the Command’s Maintenance Team with the tools to plan, schedule, and control planned maintenance effectively?
PMS.
The maintenance procedures developed in accordance with what principles for planned maintenance are the minimum required to maintain equipment within specifications?
Reliability-Centered Maintenance (RCM).
What contains information relative to PMS requirements for specific equipment for which the command is responsible?
PMS Master File.
Who is the PMS Master File maintained by?
3M System coordinator.
What reflects that portion of the PMS Master File that contains only the planned maintenance requirements applicable to a particular Work Center?
Work Center PMS Manual.
What provides a listing of the MIPs for systems and equipment assigned to each Work Center, and systems and equipment not requiring PMS or currently being evaluated for PMS?
LOEP.
What are basic PMS reference documents?
MIPs.
How many SYSCOM MIP control numbering systems have been developed based on changing PMS philosophy and are currently in use?
Three.
The SYSCOM MRC Control Number is a how many character alphanumeric code which is assigned to each MRC?
7.
What delineates how frequently the maintenance requirement must be performed?
Periodicity Code.
What following the periodicity code indicates a Safety of Ship item?
Asterisk (*).
What following the periodicity code indicates that this procedure is intended to be scheduled and performed by Off-Ship Maintenance Personnel?
Single plus (+).
What following the periodicity code indicates that this procedure is intended to be scheduled and performed by either Ship’s Force or Off-Ship Maintenance Personnel?
Double plus (++).
What are maintenance requirements that must be accomplished concurrently with another maintenance requirement?
Mandatory related.
What are maintenance requirements that can be accomplished concurrently with another maintenance requirement for saving of time or manpower considerations?
Convenience related.
All or part of the related MRC is performed when specific conditions are present or not met on the referencing MRC is known as what type of maintenance?
Conditional related.
What type of maintenance is corrective in nature used to return system or equipment to operational condition within predetermined tolerances or limitations?
Unscheduled Maintenance (U).
ICMP tasks are not applicable to submarines and what else?
Carriers.
What provide detailed procedures for performing maintenance requirements and describes who, what, how, and with what resources a specific maintenance requirement will be accomplished?
MRC’s.
What defines an event that must occur for an MRC to be scheduled?
Situational requirement.
What type of event is a persistent event that can be tracked over duration of time (in days)?
State.
What type of event is a single occurrence or action that may have a maintenance action tied to it?
Trigger.
What type of event is an event that is based on the current value of a measurement i relation to the value at the time of the last accomplishment?
Metered.
What is an aid that is used to determine when the MRC is scheduled based on the occurrence of the event?
Offset Information.
What specifies the situation that must exist in order for the maintenance to be accomplished, and has no effect on scheduling?
Prerequisite.
What maintenance requirements are those documented actions required to restore a system/equipment to an operational condition within predetermined tolerances or limitations?
Unscheduled.
What is used only for General Purpose Electrical and Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE) listed in the Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment Index (TMDE-I)?
Category I.
What established allowances for GPETE for ships and shore activities under NAVSEA cognizance?
SPETERL.
What are defined as any items, which are an integral part of the equipment?
Parts.
What block details the sequence of steps to be followed in performing the maintenance action?
Procedure.
What are associated with equipment safety, e.g., failure to accomplish the step could result in damage to equipment?
Cautions.
The three segment code used in cataloging MRC’s is located as a footer on what side of each page of each MRC card?
Right.
What documents provide new or changed procedures that have not been given a final engineering validation?
Preliminary.
What are authorization for and a record of changes to an existing MIP or MRC, or the addition of a new MRC?
Advance Change Notices (ACNs).
What represents a new MIP and at least one new MRC?
Special Issue.
What changes are authorized revisions to any aspect of existing PMS documentation and are authorized in TFBR responses?
Pen & Ink.
Individual ships sometimes consider it desirable or necessary to shift maintenance responsibility from one Work Center to another, to combine two or more existing Work Centers, or to split an existing Work Center. These requests for changes of PMS maintenance responsibility require concurrence from whom and may require final approval by the applicable TYCOM?
Executive Officer.
Who is the only person that can authorize the splitting of a MIP if an MRC requires another Work Center to completely perform the MRC?
Executive Officer.
Who will develop a split MIP log to manage all split MIPs for the command?
3-M Coordinator.
What type of Maintenance events occur when a MR requires another Work Center’s resources to perform that maintenance?
Collaborative.
What are used to report problems and also to request PMS coverage for newly installed systems or equipments?
Feedback forms.
How many types of Feedback Reports (FBR) are there?
Two.
What type of FBR is Non-technical i nature and is intended to meet PMS needs which do not require technical review?
CAT A.
A TFBR will be considered what when the reason for submission of a PMS TFBR involves safety of personnel, ship, or potential for damage to equipment and relates to the technical requirements of PMS?
Urgent.
NAVSEA has established a goal of providing the answer to a TFBR in what time frame?
One day.
Technical review activities are required to answer all TFBRs submitted to them within how many working days?
21.
Safety-related PMS updates are required to be implemented within how many working days of receipt?
2 to 5.
What provides for a day to day, year to year record of changes to a commands preventive maintenance program?
CSAL.
Each work center shall receive an audit once per quarter by a supervisory individual, (what grade or above)?
E-7.
Who is responsible for the effective assessment of the material condition of the activity?
Commanding Officer.
What will emphasize safety preservation, damage control readiness, material condition and cleanliness, as well as specific items of interest, and will be structured to ensure rapid correction of major discrepancies that could cause injury to personnel, damage to equipment or constitute a fire hazard?
Zone inspections.
All material condition deficiencies that require corrective maintenance, regardless of significance, shall be entered into the what?
Maintenance Data System (MDS).
What classification is given to an equipment which has been analyzed by the designated technical review activity, and the need for PMS requirements established?
MRS.
What term can be assigned to equipment only if no maintenance other than normal housekeeping actions is required to keep the equipment in good operating condition?
NMR.
The intentional placement of a piece of equipment/system in a hibernated state for a specific duration with the intention of reactivating at the end of that duration defines what type of equipment?
Inactive.
The intentional placement of a piece of equipment/system out-of-service with no intention of reactivating the equipment/system defines what type of equipment?
Deactivated.
Who is responsible for determining equipment IEM Status?
Department Head.
What maintenance actions prepare the equipment for periods of prolonged idleness, and are usually performed only once at the beginning of the inactive period?
Lay-Up.
What maintenance actions are accomplished on a recurring basis during the inactive period to prevent equipment deterioration?
Periodic.
What maintenance actions ensure that equipment is in a condition suitable for operation or to reactivate an equipment or system that has been inactivated for a prolonged period?
Start-Up.
To administer any management program effectively, you must be thoroughly versed in the what?
Instructions.
Day-to-day maintenance of a program keeps you out of what mode?
Crisis management.
Using good quality feedwater will help prevent damage to the what?
Boiler watersides.
What is the universal solvent as it tends to dissolve everything it touches?
Water.
What in feedwater contributes to scale buildup in boilers?
Hardness.
Hardness is caused primarily by calcium and what else?
Magnesium.
What act as insulators in the boiler?
Scale deposits.
What is an aggressive ion, which attacks and inhibits the formation of the magnetite layer on the boiler metal?
Chloride.
What causes localized corrosion and pitting?
Dissolved oxygen.
As dissolved oxygen contacts the boiler metal it forms what, which dissolved the metal to form a black iron oxide that covers the pit?
Anode.
The Navy uses two types of boiler water treatment. The older treatment method is the coordinated phosphate (Cophos) treatment. The newer treatment method is what treatment?
CHELANT.
The boiler is a receiver for all contaminants the feedwater system puts into it. One way to prevent these contaminations from damaging the boiler is to precipitate them into what?
Sludge.
The Navy uses three treatment chemicals to maintain the phosphate pH relationship. The chemicals are trisodium phosphate (TSP), disodium phosphate (DSP), and what else?
Caustic soda.
What is used to control pH and add some of the needed phosphates?
TSP.
What occurs when there is a pH rise above the Cophos curve?
Free caustic.
You use caustic soda as a treatment chemical only in casualty situations and only with the approval of whom?
Chief engineer.
Inject caustic soda at the rate of 1 ounce per how many gallons of boiler water and only when boiler is steaming?
1,000.
All 1200 psi and some 600 psi boilers are designed as what?
Type B.
What chelates dissolved metals, including calcium and magnesium, by surrounding and bonding to the metal at several places?
EDTA.
Metal chelates are removed from the boiler by continuous what?
Blowdown.
Continuous blowdown amounts to about a daily blowdown at what percent of normal boiler loads?
4.
Initial treatment with the CHELANT system is achieved by what?
Batch treatment.
The boiler is tested as often as required to maintain limits, but must not exceed what time frame?
24 hours.
Who maintains the boiler water/feedwater chemistry logs?
Oil king.
Review of the boiler water/feedwater chemistry logs and records shall be conducted by the main propulsion assistant (MPA) and the chief engineer how often?
Daily.
Who reviews the monthly water treatment log package?
Commanding Officer (CO).
What is essentially a shipboard laboratory?
Oil shack.
Temperature of the laboratory should be maintained below what temperature?
100 oF.
The primary fuel tests are visual, bottom sediment and water (BS&W), flash point, and what else?
API gravity.
The most common fuel tests are the visual and what?
BS&W.
Only water in mechanical suspension is of concern to the engineer. The suspended water is referred to as what?
Free water.
What provides spectrometric analysis of lube oil at a designated laboratory?
Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP).
A basic requirement of fueling station personnel is a thorough knowledge of what system?
Fuel receiving.
Fuel Tanks should be filled only to what percent mark?
95.
The final soundings, after temperature and gravity corrections, will determine the amount of fuel received, measure the volume and gravity at a standard temperature of what?
60oF.
The specific order of refueling is necessary to maintain the ship’s stability. You can find this information in the what?
Ship’s Information Book (SIB).
What has the responsibility of making the final decision on transferring liquid?
DCC.
What system allows controlled flooding of designated fuel tanks for stability control?
Ballasting.
What is used for ballast?
Seawater.
Consult what instruction before pumping contaminated fuel off the ship?
OPNAVINST 5090.1.
Newer ships require inspection of one service tank per fireroom every how many months?
36.
Never use jury-rigged extension cords, extension cords should not exceed what in length?
25 feet.
What program provides a procedure to prevent improper operation of equipment, components, or systems?
Tag-out.
As a minimum, all electrical systems require how many tags to isolate the component?
2.
Specific procedures for tag-outs are contained in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 3120.32.
Personnel should be trained to notify the EOOW if the dry-bulb temperature reaches or exceeds what in engineering spaces?
100oF.
The basic features of an effective training program are compatibility, evaluation and instruction, and what?
Analysis and improvement.
Training schedules are made out for how many-month periods?
18.
Information on training programs, duties of personnel involved in training, and scheduling training is contained in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 3120.32.
For a ship to answer bells and meet commitments, the turbines must be available for what at all times?
Propulsion.
How many major types of turbines are used in naval ships?
5
What propulsion unit consists of one or more ahead element, each contained in a separate casing and identified as a single casing turbine?
Type I
What propulsion unit is a two element straight through unit?
Type II-A
What propulsion unit consists of three ahead elements, known as the HP elements, intermediate pressure (IP) element, and LP element?
Type III
What transfers steam from the turbine chest to the inlet area of the first stage nozzles in the quantity required to produce the desired power level?
Nozzle control valve
What system provides a continuous supply of oil to the turbine and reduction gear bearings?
Main lube oil
Under normal operating conditions, the temperature of the oil leaving the lube oil cooler should be between 120oF and what?
130oF
The outlet temperature of the bearing should be between 140oF to 160oF but not greater than what?
180oF
The maximum temperature rise allowable in the bearing is what?
50oF
The bearings and gears require a high grade mineral oil (What TEP)?
2190
When operating the turbines, do not rotate them if they have a lube oil temperature below what?
90oF
The lube oil purifier should be operated at least how many hours a day when the ship is underway?
12
To ensure that a failure of the lube oil supply is handled properly, you should ensure all personnel are trained in the casualty procedures outlines in what books?
Engineering Operating Casualty Control (EOCC)
The temperature of oil supplied to the bearings ranges between 120oF and what, and comparisons should be made on the basis of equal inlet temperature?
130oF
Any bearing temperature increase above normal operating temperature is considered a what?
Hot bearing
Turbine rotors should not remain at rest for more than how long while stream, including gland seal steam, is being admitted to the turbines?
5 minutes
The radial position of the turbine is maintained by the what?
Journal bearings
The axial position bye the turbine is maintained by the what?
Thrust bearing
What is the quickest means of detecting any change in the relief position of the rotor caused by bearing wear?
Depth gauge micrometer
The axial position of a turbine rotor is maintained by means of a thrust bearing, usually what type?
Kingsbury type
Any large increase in the what will allow the clearances between the rotating and stationary blading to decrease causing parts to rub together?
Thrust clearance
Use what to check the clearance between the rotating and stationary blading of the high-pressure and low-pressure turbines?
Taper gauge
When a thrust collar is to be re-machined, the bore should be square with the what?
Faces
Discoloration of bearing surfaces almost always indicates what problems?
Lubrication
One of the more common troubles with nozzle control valves is the leakage of steam between the valve seat and what?
Disk
What in conjunction with the gland seal system keeps steam from leaking out of, or keeps air from leaking into, the turbine?
Shaft packing
Worn labyrinth packing should be replaced. However, if spare rings are not available, you can repair the packing by using a chisel bar and a what?
Hand chisel
How many people are usually needed to raise or lower a main turbine casing?
Ten or twelve
What are attached to lifting devices so that chain hoists maybe used in lifting the rotor?
Shackles
Before oil is circulated through the lube-oil system, fit what in the lube-oil strainers?
Muslin bags
What is one of the largest and most expensive units of machinery found in the engineering department?
Main reduction gear
Reduction gears are coupled to what through various arrangement of gears?
Turbine shaft
Reduction gears are classified according to the number of steps used to reduce speed and the arrangement of the gearing. A combination of gears is called a what?
Train
The correct quantity and quality of lubricating oil must, at all times, be available in the what?
Main sump
For most main reduction gears, the normal temperature of oil leaving the lube-oil cooler should be between what and 130oF?
120oF
Ships should take every opportunity to have laboratory tests made of the lube oil. Good engineering practice dictates that this be done every how often, or more frequently in unusual conditions?
3 months
When the neutralization number exceeds what, replace the lube oil?
0.50
What will cause wiped bearings and worn gear teeth?
Emulsified oil
To prevent misunderstanding and confusion in preparing to get underway, use what?
EOSS
When the ship is underway, observe all oil pressures and temperature to see that they remain normal. Record these pressure and temperatures every how often?
Hourly
A rumbling sound that occurs at low-shaft rpm is generally caused by the low pressure turbine gearing floating through its what?
Backlash
The most common causes of vibration in a main reduction gear are faulty alignment, bent shafting, damaged propellers, and what?
Improper balance
During drills the shaft should not be locked more than how long, if possible?
5 minutes
Under normal conditions, what should handle major repairs and major items of maintenance on a main reduction gear?
Shipyard
Enough spares are carried aboard to replace what percent of the number of bearings in the main reduction gear?
50
To maintain shaft parallelism, ensure that bearings on the ends of gear or pinion shafts do not differ more than what?
0.002 inch
Start a lube-oil service pump to circulate oil through the system. Change the muslin bags at how many minute intervals until they no longer pick up dirt? Then you can engage and start the turning gear?
30
The simplest means of checking end play is to use what on any accessible flange on the main shaft while the engines are going slowly ahead and then astern?
Dial indicator
If it is not practical to measure the end play while the engine is running, the next choice is to what (while it is still warm) fore and aft at some convenient main shaft flange?
Jack the shaft
Pitting that is progressive and continues at an increasing rate is known as what?
Destructive pitting
What term demotes a general roughening of the whole tooth surface?
Scoring
You may scrape gear teeth to remove a local hump or deformation; however, you may not scrape gear teeth to obtain contact without the approval of what?
Naval Sea Systems Command
What is the play between the unloaded surfaces of the teeth in mesh on the pitch circle?
Backlash
How many sets of readings are required to get an accurate check of the propulsion shafting?
Two
The high pressure turbine shaft and the low pressure turbine shaft are connected to their respective first reduction pinions by what?
Flexible couplings
When conditions warrant or if trouble is suspected, submit a work request to a naval shipyard to perform a what of the main reduction gear?
10 year inspection
The 10 year inspection may be extended by whom when operating conditions indicate that a longer interval between inspections is desirable?
Type commander
All inspection covers, whether hinged, pinned, or bolted, should be secured by locks of a high security type. The custody of keys for these locks is the responsibility of whom?
Engineering officer
Plates and panels secured with more than how many bolts or nuts need not be locked?
12
In an emergency, when the ship is steaming at a high speed you can stop the main shaft and hold it stationary by the what until the ship has slowed down to a speed at which you can safety lock the main shaft?
Astern turbine.
Who are responsible for ensuring the proper installation of operation of PMS within the ships under their command?
Type Commanders (TYCOMs)
Prior to the PMS installation, equipment configuration information will be verified by the what?
Configuration Data Manager (CDM)
What contains information relative to PMS requirements for specific equipment for which the command is responsible?
PMS Master File
How many months prior to the start of overhaul (SOH) will the responsible Regional Maintenance Center (RMC) initiate a letter of request to NAVSEALOGCEN Det Norfolk/San Diego as appropriate for a PMS update package?
3
What provide the maintenance and material managers throughout the Navy with the means of plan, acquire, organize, direct, control, and evaluate manpower and material resources expended or planned for expenditure in support of maintenance?
MDS
3-M Organizational Level Maintenance provides a means to effectively manage and control organizational maintenance. It is primarily managed via the what?
Current Ship’s Maintenance Project (CSMP)
what 3-M Systems Central Database is the focal point for receipt and distribution of maintenance and material data?
Naval Sea Logistics Center (NAVSEALOGCEN)
What is the source for configuration and logistic support data available to ships and other fleet and shore activities?
CDMD OA database
The Division Officer shall check the Work Candidate/JSN log at least how often?
Weekly
What type of maintenance action is not expected to be accomplished by ship’s force within the time frame prescribed by the TYCOM?
Deferred
For non-automated sites, what Ship’s Maintenance Action Form is used to report a deferred maintenance Action?
OPNAV 4790/2K
What occurs when a maintenance action alters the design or operating characteristics of the equipment?
Modification
What provide the management of configuration and scheduling information for each equipment requiring periodic maintenance or calibration?
PMRs
What is a process that provides the capability for data collection on unique data elements, related to specific equipment, that are in addition to the standard Work Candidate (2-Kilo) submission?
SLR
The value contained in the what controls whether an individual equipment record is regarded as an SLR record?
SEI
As a general rule equipment will automatically be removed from SLR after a period of how many years?
3
Who are responsible for informing applicable TYCOMs/Fleet Commanders if the SLR data is not being received?
SYSCOMs
What provides the TYCOM with the means of determining urgent repairs for scheduling IMA availability, shipyard overhauls, or restricted availability?
CSMP
Who is responsible for evaluating and resolving errors in the CSMP?
3-M Coordinator
Who may request assist visits from the type commaders who can recognize problems the command may be having difficulty in effectively identifying, scheduling, performing, and documenting maintenance actions?
Commanding Officer
The ship shall phase out PMS coverage of equipment in concert with the what?
Decommissioning plan
The ship shall stop MDS reporting how many months prior to its decommissioning date?
2
How many weeks prior to transfer of an operational (hot ship) to a foreign navy will the ship document all outstanding maintenance for inclusion in the CSMP?
2
What was established by Congress as a board to periodically examine naval vessels and make recommendations to the Secretary of the Navy if any should be stricken from the Naval Vessel Register?
INSURV
Examination of naval vessels is conducted as a what, which consists of operational tests or demonstrations of major systems and equipment?
Material Inspection (MI)
The INSURV Board prepares material deficiency documents to record conditions found during the inspection using what?
Fleet Standard Assessment Tool Set
Who shall pay particular attention to ensuring that the mechanisms to identity, document and correct material deficiencies identified by ship’s force or others are accurately reflected within the CSMP?
ISIC
What is “the sole source of work to be accomplished by industrial activities, FMAs, and organizational level activities” and therefore should reflect the deficient material items requiring maintenance action?
CSMP
What capital letter indicates that, in the INSURV reviewer’s opinion, correction of the deficiency is the responsibility of the contractor because he or his subcontractors or vendors failed to meet the requirements of the contract?
K
What capital letter indicates that is the INSURV reviewer’s opinion correction of the deficiency is the responsibility of the government?
G
What enhances force readiness and helps identify material problems?
3-M System
What aids managers by determining how efficiently the command’s 3-M program is operating, and help identify areas with potential problems?
Assist visit
The TYCOM or ISIC under TYCOM direction shall conduct a complete inspection of each command under their cognizance, not to exceed how many months, to determine the effectiveness of the 3-M program with that command?
24
What provides correct information to allow effective planning and estimating of deferred maintenance actions?
CSMP
Submarine PMT Program was established by whom as a method of collecting objective engineering evidence of ship system performance?
Chief of Naval Operations.
The deficiencies and recommendations that result from PMT inspection and monitored maintenance are published in an engineering memorandum called what?
On Site Analysis Report (OSAR)
What is a finite period of time usually corresponding to a patrol period for SSBN’s or aligned with maintenance availabilities taking the IDTC into account for the SSN’s?
Monitoring period
The data collected per the datasheets attached to the “K” MRC’s, as well as the deficiency reports is entered into the PMT’s engineering analysis system and real-time uploaded to a main database. Over how many years of data exists for the data that is collected?
10
What is the CNO strategy for maintaining ship, aircraft, and infrastructure material designed to optimize maintenance program costs throughout the life cycle?
Condition Based Maintenance (CBM)
What provides both the maintenance engineering principles used to determine objective evidence of need and the methodology for determining and continuously improving applicable and effective maintenance requirements and assessment procedures and tools?
Reliability Centered Maintenance
New or modified Common Assessment Procedures shall be developed as what?
Maintenance Requirements Card (MRCs)
What tasks shall be used to call out use of the Common Assessment Procedure included in the appropriate CMPs?
Class Maintenance Plan
Who shall oversee the core processes for Class Maintenance Plans in acquisition program and in-service ships, including development of Common Assessment Procedures?
COMNAVSEA
What process applies “Backfit” Reliability-Centered Maintenance (RCM) methodology in a broad-based MER to examine maintenance requirements for systems or equipment that are exhibiting negative maintenance and reliability trends in execution?
FLEETMER
The recommended maintenance requirement changes from FLEETMER are documented as Technical Feedback Reports (TFBRs) and assigned as either Planned Maintenance System (PMS) or as what actions?
Class Maintenance Plan (CMP)
FLEETMER is a lean process using the concepts of what to efficiently analyze and update the entire maintenance plan for selected systems and equipment in a collaborative environment of maintenance stakeholders?
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
What is responsible for coordinating and executing MERs per approved processes/procedures and to ensure those resources available for reviewing and improving maintenance are efficiently utilized?
Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA)
Who is responsible for the complete analysis and data capture for the assigned FLEETMER systems, including the RCM review as directed by the system project plan?
System Analyst
During the FLEETMER, who assists systems subject matter experts, including the TWH/ISEA, in the RCM analysis and performs quality assurance checks?
Facilitator
What is the Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command’s lead organization tasked with continuously improving Class Maintenance Plans (CMPs) across ship enterprises?
Common Maintenance Planning Working Group (CMPWG)
Who provides system/equipment expertise to system analysts prior to FLEETMER to assist upfront analysis and scope determination?
Commodity Specialist (NAVSEALOGCEN Dets)
Who provide technical expertise prior to the FLEETMER in the area of off-ship maintenance requirements?
System Specialists
Who provide technical expertise for fleet maintenance issues including Navy repair processes and best practices?
Port Engineers
What process identifies cross enterprise High Maintenance Burden systems and components and ranks them through analysis of 3-M, CASREP, Material Condition Assessment (MCA), cost, safety, Fleet/TYCOM recommendations, and mission criticality data?
MP-EA
What consists of shipboard and shore maintenance experts, the PMS commodity specialist, and the NAVSEA Technical Community who provide technical assistance in MER preparation, MER analysis, and post MER evaluation of changes?
Community of Practice
The creation of a what enables the Community of Practice to analyze and make decisions related to the structure of the maintenance program for the system/systems being reviewed?
CFBD
What is a tool to be used to generate a broader understanding of the maintenance program associated with a particular system?
Matrix
What metrics will address the cost impact and benefits of the FLEETMER?
Return On Investment (ROI)
What meeting will be coordinated following each FLEETMER to identify strengths and weaknesses of the process?
Lessons Learned
Ship’s maintenance information is reported by fleet personnel to what which is located in Mechanicsburg, PA, for processing into the Ships’ Maintenance and Material Management (3-M) System Database?
Naval Sea Logistics Center (NAVSEALOGCEN)
The Ships’ 3-M On-line database is a historical repository of corrective maintenance actions spanning from what year through the current date?
1995
What is an intuitive, flexible tool that operates in a Windows environment and was designed to make retrieving maintenance and material management information quick and easy?
OARS
What contains a mirror image of all code tables implemented within the current releases of the Organization Maintenance Management System - Next Generation (OMMS-NG) and the Maintenance Resource Management System (MRMS), and the Regional Maintenance Automated Information System (RMAIS)?
MMBU Standard Codes Forum
What describes the format of all data records processed through the legacy Shipboard Non-Tactical ADP Program (SNAP) systems, which are found within Ships’ 3-M?
Ships’ 3-M Data Record Layout
The ships’ 3-M System consists of the Planned Maintenance System (PMS) along with what else and is the nucleus for managing maintenance aboard all ships and shore stations of the Navy?
Maintenance Data System (MDS)
What is responsible for maintaining a 3-M?
Naval Education Training Command (NETC)
Who must ensure adequate 3-M Program training for all personnel within the command associated with maintenance, configuration and logistics support management?
TYCOMs
What is the program manager for fleet-wide 3-M training?
Center for Service Support (CSS)
Who establishes and maintains a viable 3-M system training program to sustain that level of knowledge and awareness received during formal training?
Commanding Officer
What is developed to provide the maintenance task requirement needed to plan, schedule, and control Intermediate and Depot-level planned maintenance effectively?
CMP
How many categories of CMP maintenance tasks are there?
2
What type of CMP maintenance tasks are performed by a non-time based event or objective evidence of need?
Unscheduled tasks
Who shall oversee the core processes for CMPs in acquisition program and in service ships?
COMNAVSEA
Each tag-out log is administered by a what?
Authorizing Officer
For submarines underway on the surface, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) may designate the officer or Petty Officer in Charge (POIC) of the control room as the Authorizing Officer. During this time no tag will be issued or cleared without the verbal concurrence of the what?
OOD
What is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and adequacy of tag-out before signing the TORS?
Repair Activity (RA)
Ship’s Force qualification in the Tag-out Users Manual should be done by the completion of what Personnel Qualification Standard, and if required, completion of departmental qualifications?
3M 301
Use what to prohibit the operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems or components?
Danger tags
Use what to provide temporary special instruction(s) or to indicate that unusual action must be exercised to operate equipment?
Caution tags
What are tag-outs that have been approved for use for a specific work item with a specific set of ship/system conditions?
Certified tag-outs
Work on any component that has a danger tag or caution tag attached is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the what and, when required, the appropriate RA supervisor?
Department Head
The Department Head shall ensure that tag out audit are performed every how often?
2 weeks
For ships that are in overhaul, conversion, or restricted availability, conduct audits of the propulsion plant tag-out log(s) how often?
Weekly
During Chief Of Naval Operations availabilities, the tag-out process shall be monitored by the what?
Shipyard
What is a red tag prohibiting operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components?
Danger Tag
What contains the number of tags required for the tag out, the location of each tag, the position of the tagged item (e.g., open, shut, off, on, etc.) and the permission and notification requirements for the maintenance and tag-out action?
TGL
TGLs are to be prepared by whom, reviewed independently by the Division Officer, and approved by the Department Head prior to use?
Work Center Supervisor (WCS)
An audit will be performed of the Instrument Log and associated labels how often?
Monthly
Who is the person with authority to sign for issuing and clearing tags and labels?
Authorizing Officer
What is a yellow tag used as a precautionary measure to provide temporary special instruction or to indicate that unusual action must be exercised to operate equipment?
Caution Tag
What is a red tag prohibiting operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components?
Danger Tag
What is a temporary wire used to modify a circuit, such as by completing or bypassing the circuit?
Electrical Jumper
What is the control document for administering labels (OOC and CAL)?
Instrument Log
Out-of-Calibration Labels are labels of what color used to identify instruments that are out of calibration and will not accurately indicate parameters?
Orange
What is a red label used to identify instruments that will not correctly indicate parameters because they are defective, or isolated from the system?
Out-of-Commission
What is any activity other than Ship’s Force involved in the construction, testing, repair, overhaul, refueling, or maintenance of the ship?
RA.
For Ship’s Force maintenance conducted in nuclear propulsion plants, what contains the requirements regarding when a WAF is needed?
Engineering Department Manual
When the job description on the WAF covers multiple components and their associated Technical Work Document (TWD), what is addition to the WAF may be used to document this work?
TWD Record Sheet
What is the process by which Ship’s Force transfers the authority to approve all actions within a system or portion of a system to a shipyard and subsequent return of systems back to Ship’s Force prior to major events?
Transfer of systems
Normally, Ship’s Force retains responsibility for PMS, unless otherwise specified in the what?
MOA
Electrical power, a vital part of today’s modern Navy, is provided throughout naval ships by steam-driven what?
Turbogenerators
What in a turbine indicates that the unit is not in proper working condition?
Vibration
What items for turbines are required for each preventive maintenance task?
Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
What prevents leakage of steam from an ingress of air into the turbines under all conditions of operation?
Packing
To obtain maximum effective sealing, maintain the tip width of packing teeth at what?
0.010 inch
Never use what material to remake a steam casing joint?
Sheet gasket
To seal the joint of a turbine, coat the surfaces with a thin layer of linseed oil and graphite or what?
Copalite
What turbines are usually provided with an opening in the casing t check blade clearance?
Axial flow
Labyrinth packing and, in a few cases, what are used between the inner bore of the nozzle diaphragm and the rotor to seal against steam leakage?
Carbon seals
Where water or dampness remains in contact with the casing, what can seriously weaken the casing?
Corrosion
Turbogenerator reduction gears are generally of the single-reduction, single helical type, with a reduction of about what ratio?
8 to 1
The installation of new bearings requires a thorough check on the alignment of the gear mesh to assure at least what percent contact?
90
Most journal bearings are cylindrical and of the steel-backed, what type?
Babbitt-lined
All of the oil supplied to the bearings, except that supplied by the hand pump before starting, passes through the oil manifold and the what?
Strainer
The hand valve should be set to maintain about what psig on the lube-oil system?
8 to 10
When the turbogenerator is operating, clean the lube-oil strainers at least once each what?
Watch
All turbine-driven generators have a lube-oil low-pressure alarm. The alarm contactor is located in the lube-oil line leading to the bearings and is set at the factory to operate when the oil pressure drops to what psig?
4
The high-pressure gauge is labeled OIL PUMP PRESSURE; and the normal reading is from 50 to what psig, depending on the type of governor used?
100
The low-pressure gauge is labeled BEARING OIL PRESSURE, and the normal reading for this gauge is about what psig?
8 to 10
If it is found that one of the pinion bearings or one of the main gear bearings is worn more than what amount more than the other bearing, replace or restore or restore the bearings to design clearance?
0.002 inch
What is a term used to express the change in speed that occurs with a change in load?
Regulation
What governor is defined as a governor which controls and regulates the admission of the steam to a turbine?
Constant speed
What is a device that automatically releases the operating oil pressure under the throttle valve operating piston?
Overspeed trip
What is used to stop the flow of steam to the turbine in an emergency?
Manual trip
Three devices are used to protect the turbine against excessive exhaust pressure: a sentinel valve, a back pressure tripping device, and a what?
Relief valve
The sentinel valve is spring loaded and set to function at what psig?
2
The back pressure trip is set at the factory to function at what psig?
5
The relief valve is normally set to open at what psig?
10 to 15
Examine and clean the lube-oil strainers at least once each how many hours of operation, and more often if operating conditions indicate the need for more frequent cleaning?
4
Under normal operating conditions, what side of a main condenser should be inspected in accordance with the planned maintenance system?
Saltwater
For short-term lay-ups, the saltwater side should be kept full. Circulate the water once a day for at least how long by running the circulating pump?
10 minutes
The most common cause of tube leakage is what, which starts at the saltwater side of the tube and proceeds through the tube wall of the steam side?
Deterioration
Tube deterioration caused by impingement erosion of the tube ends can be minimized by proper regulation of circulating water through condensers and by proper venting of what?
Water chests
If what impinges on condenser tubes at high velocity, the surface of the tubes will rapidly erode?
Wet steam
What or distribution pipes installed within the condenser shell prevents direct impingement of water and steam from the auxiliary exhaust line, the recirculating line, and the makeup feed line?
Baffles
Before any work is begun in retubing a main condenser, authorization must be obtained from what?
NAVSEA
Only what type of tubes conforming to NAVSEA specification may be used in condensers that are saltwater cooled?
Copper-nickel
Nearly all condensers installed aboard naval ships have the inlet tube ends expanded in the what, forming a metal-to-metal joint?
Tube sheet
A tube expander must be properly set for a given job. To do this, you must ensure that the overall length of the rolls are not less than three-sixteenths inch nor more than what size greater than the thickness of the tube sheet into which the tube is expanded?
Five-eighths inch
Use what packing, in accordance with Navy specifications, to pack the outlet ends of packed condenser tubes?
Flexible metallic
When a condenser is secured, keep what side empty?
Steam
Never subject condensers to a test pressure in excess of what?
15 psig
The most frequent casualty to a main condenser is a reduction i what?
Vacuum
When the gate valve in the circulating-water overboard piping is used to regulate the water flow through the condenser, this valve should be kept at least what?
One-quarter open
During standby most installations fitted with properly functioning air ejectors will produce a maximum vacuum of about how many inches of mercury with cold injection temperature?
29 1/2
What remove gases from the feedwater by using the principle that the volubility of gases in feedwater approaches zero when the water temperature approaches the boiling point?
Deaerating Feed Tanks (DFTs)
What should be operated as required to maintain the oil (inlet) temperature to the bearings at the designed valve?
Oil coolers
With reasonable care, lube-oil coolers on Navy ships will remain in service for several years. When salt water is used as the cooling medium, failure is usually caused by erosion, because of high water velocity, or by corrosion, because of what?
Electrolytic action
Most oil cooler failures have occurred to units that are supplied with cooling water from a what?
Service main
What are used for closed circuit cooling of machinery?
Air coolers
Clean the air cooler at least every how often?
6 months
General information on starting, shifting, and securing air ejectors is given in each ship’s what?
Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS)
In general, air ejector nozzles maybe cleaned with what?
Reamers
What pumps are generally restricted to use as emergency feed pumps, fuel-oil pumps, and lube-oil tank stripping pumps?
Reciprocating
Many emergency feed pumps can use what; however, the air and steam should never be interfaced?
LP air
Obstructions in the suction line often cause operating problems in what pumps?
Fire and bilge
Hot liquid will often vaporize and cause reciprocating pumps to slow down and lose pump to operate erratically or stop?
Worn piston rings
When packing a pump with tucks, flax, or other soft packing, soak the packing in hot water for how long before fitting and installing?
12 hours
What is a frequent source of trouble with pumps?
Improper alignment
In some cases, when steam cylinder foundation pad bolts are slacked off, the cylinder pads pull away from the foundation as much as what distance?
One-half inch
What are widely used on board ship to pump water and other non-viscous liquids and have several advantages over reciprocating pumps?
Centrifugal pumps
Flexible couplings for the centrifugal pump will take care of only very slight misalignment, usually about how much?
0.002 to 0.004 inch
A vapor bound feed pump will require about how many seconds to overheat, causing the wearing rings to seize?
15
For an installation designed to operate at 50 psi of booster pressure, the main feed pump should not be turned over when there is less than what psi of booster pressure?
40
What are rapidly replacing conventional packing in most centrifugal and rotary pumps?
Mechanical seals
Mechanical seals use what from the liquid being pumped to help seal the shaft and stuffing box?
Bleed pressure
What types of bearings are installed in main condensate pumps and main condenser circulating pumps?
Water-Lubricated
Most water lubricated bearings are now made of rubber or what material?
Phenolic
In what type of bearings, the journal is supported by the races and rolling elements rather than the oil film?
Rolling contact
All pump and driving unit rotating parts are balanced dynamically for all speeds from at rest to what percent of rated speed?
125
There are currently two types of flexible couplings in use. The most common type is what?
Self-lubricated type
How many methods are used for checking alignment in shafts connected by flange-type rigid couplings?
3
Whenever new rotors are installed, you must establish the proper settings for what?
Locating cap
On ships built since when, the attached lube-oil pump is driven from the main reduction gear by an assembly of bevel and spur gears?
World War II
What pumps are fitted with devices to control or limit the speed of the unit or to regulate the discharge pressure of the unit?
Turbine driven
What are set to give a rated speed at rated load conditions?
Speed limiting governors
With the governor properly set, the turbine speed should not exceed the rated speed for any condition of load by more than what?
5 percent
Speed limiting governors should be inspected and tested in accordance with what?
3-M systems
Turbine driven main feed pumps and fire pumps are fitted with what type of governors?
Constant pressure
Ensure that overspeed trips are set to shut off steam to the unit when the rated speed is exceeded by what percent?
10
The chloride content of distillate discharged to the ship’s tanks must not exceed what equivalent per million?
0.065
A failure to get what is one of the most frequent troubles in the operation of a distilling plant?
Full rated capacity
A distilling plant cannot maintain its full output unless it is supplied with dry steam at the designed pressure. The orifices must pass the proper amount of steam to ensure plant output with a pressure of about what psig above the orifice?
5
Inspect the orifice how often?
Annually
The pressure in the first effect tube must range from how many inches of mercury, with clean tubes, to 3 inches of mercury as scale forms?
14
On newer ships, the water levels are automatically controlled by what types of feed regulators?
Weir
Most manufacturer’s technical manuals call for a vacuum of approximately how many inches of mercury in the last effect shell when the temperature of the seawater is 85oF?
24
The primary causes of air ejector problems are low steam pressure, wet steam, an obstructed nozzle, or a what?
Clogged steam strainer
An insufficient flow of circulating water is indicated if the temperature of the water rises more than what in passing through the condensing section of the distiller condenser?
20oF
The concentration of what is the evaporators, to a certain extent, has a direct bearing on the quality of the distillate?
Brine
In what year did the Chief of Naval Operations decided that the Navy would install the sewage collecting holding, and transfer (CHT) system (a type of MSD) aboard naval ships that could use that method of sewage pollution control without serious reduction in military capabilities?
1972
Navy ships have how many types of CHT systems?
2
CHT systems with tanks with a capacity of more than how many gallons use a comminutor and aeration system?
2000
The goal of the CHT system is to provide the capacity to hold shipboard sewage generated over a period of what time frame?
12 hours
What aboard ship include fuel oil tanks, fuel oil piping, fuel oil pumps, and the equipment we use to strain, measure, and burn the fuel oil?
Fuel oil systems
Navy ships use how many kinds of tanks that are part of the ship’s system to receive, hold, and distribute fuel oil?
4
The fuel oil filling systems operate with a minimum pressure of approximately what psi at the deck connections?
40
What system can clear the tanks of sludge and water before oil is pumped from these tanks by the fuel oil booster and transfer pumps or by the fuel oil service pumps?
Fuel oil tank stripping
Aboard some ships, what can be used as boiler fuel in emergencies?
JP-5
If the transfer pump is having difficulty moving the fuel, and the fuel in the tank is below 50oF, you may heat fuel oil to approximately what to dissolve the waxy constituents?
75oF
When ships are refueled where the ambient temperature is below 40oF, do not fill storage tanks above what percent of capacity?
95%
As a rule, man fueling stations how long before fueling time?
30 minutes
If you are using a sounding rod during refueling, sound the tank every 3 or 4 minutes until it is nearly how full and then take continuous readings?
75%
Whenever a liquid is shifted from one place to another aboard ship, there is an effect on the ship’s list, trim, or what?
Stability
What system allows controlled flooding of certain designated tanks to control the ship’s stability?
Ballasting
Any soot blower head must be discarded immediately if it has a thickness of what percent less than the original thickness specified on the applicable drawings or is shown to be structurally unsound by examination?
50%
Most soot blowers require the occasional addition or renewal of what?
Packing
What packing is usually used on soot blowers?
Split-ring
Bearings for the soot blower elements are made of 25 percent chrome, 20 percent nickel or 20 percent chrome, 12 percent what?
Nickel
On many soot blowers, the blowing arcs are controlled by what?
Cams
What provides a means to prevent combustion gases from backing up into the soot blower head?
Scavenging air system
Most boiler explosions occur during what?
Boiler light off
What was designed specifically for inspecting the furnace for unburned fuel?
Boiler Inspection Device (BID)
What are used to observe the water level from various locations in the fireroom?
Remote Water Level Indicators (RWLIs)
In what year did Congress pass a law prohibiting the discharge of refuse in navigable waters of the United States
1899
What Act prohibits the discharge of oil of any kind (fuel oil, sludge, oily waste, and so forth) into navigable waters?
Oil Pollution Act of 1924
The Oil Pollution Act of 1961 prohibits the discharge of oil or oily mixtures, such as ballast, within the prohibited zones established by any nation, and those zones range from 50 to how many miles seaward from the nearest land?
150
The Oil Pollution Act of 1924 was repealed by what legislation?
Water Quality Improvement Act of 1979
In what year, Congress passed two acts that declared a national policy to improve the environment?
1970
The Navy’s environmental quality program is the Environmental and National Resource Program Manual, what instruction number?
OPNAVINST 5090.1
The Navy will not discharge oil products within any prohibited zone, and we will not discharge trash and garbage within what distance of shore?
12 miles (50NM)
The preferred method to reduce and control environmental pollution is what?
Prevention
All oil spills and slicks or sheens within the how many mile prohibited zone of the United States shall be reported immediately?
50
What regulations require the Navy to control sewage discharges?
Secretary of Defense
The Navy intends that all naval ships will be equipped with what that will allow them to comply with the sewage discharge standards without compromising mission capability?
Marine Sanitation Devices (MSD)
On burners with safety shutoff valves or other automatic safety devices, the thickness of the what is very important?
Gaskets
Navy boilers are fitted with safety valves on the steam drum and the what?
Superheater outlet
What safety valve system replaces the pilot safety valve as the superheater outlet safety valve?
Greno Industrial Supply (GIS)
After a period of service, safety valves may simmer when they are within what percent of their popping pressure?
1%
For satisfactory operation of safety valves, essential what must be retained?
Original dimensions
Safety valve springs, spindles (stems), and adjusting screws will not be what?
Painted
Settings for safety valves of all ships are issued by what?
NAVSEA
On boilers with a drum pressure of 325 psi or below (300 psi nominal standard safety valves), the maximum tolerance is plus or minus what?
3 psi
On boilers with a steam drum pressure of 326 to 710 psi ( 600 psi nominal standard safety valves), the maximum tolerance is plus or minus what?
5 psi
On boilers with a steam drum pressure of 711 to 1410 psi (1500 psi nominal standard safety valves), the maximum tolerance is plus or minus what?
10 psi
Blowdown range between what percent of individual safety valve lift (popping) pressure is acceptable, if the boiler valves reseat in proper sequential order?
3 to 6 %
One common problem with spring loaded safety valves is leakage past the valve’s what?
Seating surfaces
Don’t place gags on the safety valves of a steaming boiler until the boiler pressure is what psi below the lowest safety valve setting?
100 to 200
What is used to lift the safety valves during emergency conditions and also to check that safety valve internals are free without over-pressurizing the boiler?
Safety valve hand easing gear
You need to check the hand easing gear operation every how many operating hours?
1,800 to 2,000
What are installed to remove soot from the boiler firesides while the boilers are steaming?
Soot blowers
Soot blowers elements should be rotated at a rate of how many seconds for each 90 degrees of rotation?
10 to 15
Most rotary soot blowers operate at what?
300 psi
Stationary soot blowers operate at what?
150 psi
Soot blower piping is inspected according to what?
PMS
Insulation and lagging should NOT be used on soot blower steam piping located underneath the what?
Floor plates
Brine density, which should never exceed what ratio, is dependent mainly on the quantity of brine pumped overboard and the amount of fresh water being produced?
1.5/32
What is used to measure the degree of salinity or the concentration of brine?
Salinometer
In the flash type of distilling plant, the temperature of the water is never raised beyond what?
175oF
Flash evaporation takes place at temperatures as low as what?
104oF
What term means that water is converted to steam as it enters an evaporating chamber, without further addition of heat?
Flash evaporation
What is a gas or liquid heat exchanger that raises the feedwater temperature before it enters the flash chamber of the first evaporator stage?
Saltwater heater
Perform a hydrostatic test on the shell of the saltwater heater before replacing the heads at what psig?
8 to 110
The capacity of the compressor is controlled by unloading and loading the what?
Cylinders
Unloading of the cylinders in the compressor is accomplished by lifting the suction valves off their seats and holding them open. This method of capacity control unloads the cylinders completely and still allows the compressor to work at as much as what percent of its rated capacity?
25
