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PMK > Navy FCPO 1,2 > Flashcards

Navy FCPO 1,2 Flashcards

1
Q

An element that enables a seadependent
nation to project its
political, economic, and military
strengths seaward is known as

A

sea control

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2
Q

The true strength of sea power can
only be measured in terms of a
nation’s ability to use the sea to
further its

A

national objectives

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3
Q

It is more feasible to send naval
forces, in comparison to other
military f o r c e s , into crisis areas
for which of the following reasons

A 
The cost is low
2 . N a v a l f o r c e s c a n s t a y o n
station indefinitely
3. Naval forces leave behind no
physical reminders of their
presence
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4
Q

To continue to exist as we know it
today, the United States must have
a policy that recognizes its

A

worldwide commitments

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5
Q

What are the three fundamental
pillars on which United States
military strategy rests?

A

Deterrence, forward defense,

and alliance solidarity

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6
Q

Which of the following responses
could the United States take in the
event of aggression by a potential
enemy?

A
  1. Meet force with force
  2. Control the duration of the
    fighting
  3. Increase the intensity of the
    c o n f l i c t
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7
Q

The Navy has the ability to outlast

any aggressor with

A

secure sea-lanes

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8
Q

time of emergency the Navy must be

able to venture into harm’s way

A

true

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9
Q

What is the most flexible element

of the TRIAD?

A

Intercontinental ballistic

m i s s i l e s

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10
Q

What is the sole mission and
fundamental reason for the
existence of the fleet ballistic
missile submarine?

A

To deter war

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11
Q

The TRIAD has been developed and
maintained for which of the
following purposes?

A

To deter nuclear attack

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12
Q 
Ships of the Second Fleet patrol
some of the world’s most important
trade routes. In what area of the
world does the Second Fleet
normally patrol?
A

Western Atlantic

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13
Q

Which of the following fleets would
you find in the Western Pacific and
Indian Ocean regions?

A

Seventh

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14
Q

Which of the following terms
describes an attack that is
intended to inflict damage to,
seize, or destroy an objective

A

strike

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15
Q

Which of the following
characteristics of a strike force
is one of its greatest assets?

A

mobility

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16
Q

Which of the following types of
task forces is/are organized
primarily for strike force
operations?

A
  1. Carrier
  2. Surface
  3. Submarine
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17
Q

The primary mission of our
submarine force is to destroy which
of the following types of enemy
ships?

A

Submarines

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18
Q

The first fleet ballistic missile
submarine was launched in what
year?

A

1959

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19
Q 
When the term
is understood
the following
“TRIDENT” is used, it
to include which of
elements?
A
  1. The base
  2. The missile
  3. The submarine
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20
Q

Trident I missiles have a multiple
warhead capability and a maximum
range of how many nautical miles?

A

4000

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21
Q

The destruction or neutralization
of enemy targets ashore through the
use of conventional or nuclear
weapons.

A

strike

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22
Q

The destruction or neutralization
of enemy surface combatants and
merchant ships.

A

anti surface ship

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23
Q

Naval operations generally accepted

as being nonconventional in nature.

A

special

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24
Q

This type of warfare prevents the
effective use of cargo-carrying
vessels by the enemy

A

anti surface ship

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25
Q 
Correctly interpreted, this type of
warfare permits military decisions
to be based on accurate knowledge
of the enemy’s and
c a p a b i l i t i e s .
A

Intelligence

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26
Q 
Which of the following types of
warfare assists in detecting and
targeting hostile forces and making
it more difficult for the enemy to
detect and target friendly forces?
A

Electronic

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27
Q 
Antiship missiles can be launched
several hundred miles from the
t a r g e t . From which of the
following platforms can they be
launched?
A
  1. A i r c r a f t
  2. Submarines
  3. Surface ships
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28
Q 
The Aegis
installed
weapons system is
on which of the following
platforms?
A

Cruisers

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29
Q

Capable of simultaneously tracking
24 hostile air targets and
launching 6 missiles against 6
d i f f e r e n t t a r g e t s .

A

phoneix

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30
Q

Has a very small cross section and
flies at low altitude; radar
detection is difficult.

A

phalanx

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31
Q

Fires 20-mm, high-density
penetrating projectiles at 3,000
rounds per minute.

A

harpoon

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32
Q

has a 500-lb high-explosive warhead and

contact fuse.

A

Harpoon

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33
Q

Provides defense against close-in,

sea-skimming cruise missiles.

A

phalanx

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34
Q

If your ship is assigned to the
Second Fleet, it would probably
conduct refresher training at which
of the following locations?

A

Guantanamo Bay, Cuba

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35
Q

Routine drills are based on ship’s
bills and stem from basic bills
outlined in which of the following
publications?

A

Standard Organization and

Regulations of the U.S. Navy

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36
Q

What inspection is conducted to
test the operational ability of the
crew and ship in wartime
conditions?

A

Operational Readiness

Inspection

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37
Q 
What inspection is scheduled by
higher authority, without the
knowledge of the commanding
officer, to determine if the ship
is fit for continued naval service?
A

INSURV

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38
Q

Through the various treaties with
other countries in the world, what
portion of the land area are we
committed to defend?

A

50%

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39
Q

Our naval forces conduct various
exercises with allied forces for
which of the following reasons?

A

To professionally operate as

one unit

40
Q 
To ensure your work center meets
the deadlines set for the
completion of tasks, which of the
following factors must you properly
manage?
A

Personnel, material, and time

41
Q

Which of the following resources
within your division are the most
important in accomplishing a task?

A

Personnel and materials

42
Q 
A little time should be spent in
your office in the morning and
afternoon, then the rest of your
time should be spent in the work
area.
A

true

43
Q

As a minimum, how often should you
assess your division’s personnel
and material readiness?

A

daily

44
Q

When you assess your workers’ job
performance, you should look at
which of the following areas?

A

Attitude, knowledge, and work

h a b i t s

45
Q

To keep abreast of the knowledge
and experience of your personnel,
you should randomly review each
member’s

A

training record

46
Q

At a minimum, how often should you
take inventory so that you will
know when to order additional
supplies?

A

Weekly

47
Q

Which of the following logs is used
by your division or department to
maintain its supply inventory?

A

OPTAR

48
Q

Each command should ensure all hand
and power tools are assigned serial
numbers.

A

true

49
Q

The equipment deficiency list
contains all of the following
information except

A

the PMS requirements

50
Q

What is the work center’s most

valuable resource?

A

personnel

51
Q 
The Enlisted Distribution
Verification Report can better
enable your division to fulfill
which of the following requirements
without an adverse effect?
A

Temporary additional duty

52
Q

Based on the ship’s overall
manpower, how are TAD requirements
usually allocated?

A

By department

53
Q

Which of the following schedules
allows for losses in manpower,
logistic problems, work stoppages,
and personnel training?

A

Work center schedule

54
Q

From the annual employment
schedule, all other schedules are
developed.

A

true

55
Q

Jobs on your work center schedule
are listed by what order of
precedence?

A

P r i o r i t y

56
Q

What writing instrument should be
used to fill out a work center
schedule and time line?

A

Pencil

57
Q

After your schedule is approved,
which of the following requirements
should be met?

A

Goals

58
Q

Including your junior petty
officers in the planning process
prevents which of the following
problems from occurring?

A

Misunderstandings

59
Q

How many goal setting elements
should you consider when setting
goals within the work center?

A

Six

60
Q

Keeping abreast of changes prevents

crisis management from occurring

A

true

61
Q

When you attend department
meetings, remember to check which
of the following factors before the
meeting?

A

Work progress

62
Q

As major job completion dates near,
you should never allow which of the
following situations to happen?

A

Neglect minor jobs

63
Q

Assigning your junior petty
officers challenging jobs will
increase which of the following
s k i l l s ?

A

Leadership

64
Q

The work center supervisor has the
complete responsibility for the
completion of a job.

A

true

65
Q

When delegating authority, you
should delegate to which of the
following competent levels
to develop your subordinates?

A

lower

66
Q

Who generates letters of
instruction and command counseling
sheets?

A
  1. D i v i s i o n o f f i c e r

3. Division chief

67
Q

Counseling sheets and letters of
instruction are entered in a
member’s service record.

A

false

68
Q

A page 13 entry reflects which of
the following types of job
performance?

A
  1. Good

3 . B a d

69
Q

If you use a facsimile stamp of
someone’s signature, what should
appear next to the signature to
authenticate the facsimile?

A

Your initials

70
Q

A naval message should be used
instead of a NAVGRAM under which of
the following circumstances?

A

The communication is urgent and

speed is of primary importance

71
Q 
If a command is the “information
addressee” on a message, which of
the following actions, if any,
should the command take concerning
the message?
A

Whatever action is required

within the command

72
Q

After a naval message has been
prepared and signed by the drafter,
which of the following persons
releases the message?

A

The delegated releasing officer

73
Q

Who is responsible for the
validation of the contents of a
message?

A

Releaser

74
Q

Who is responsible for the selection of a

message precedence?

A

Drafter

75
Q

Who is responsible for the proper

addressing of messages?

A

Drafter

76
Q

When assigning precedence to a message,
which of the following factors should you
consider?

A
  1. Importance of the subject

2. Desired delivery time

77
Q

What is the highest precedence normally

authorized for administrative messages?

A

Priority

78
Q

What precedence is identified by the

prosign 0?

A

Immediate

79
Q

A message is released at 1930 hours
Greenwich mean time on 2 January 1991.
What is the correctly stated date-time group
(DTG) assisgned to the message?

A

021930Z JAN 91

80
Q

Naval messages may have a total of (a)
how many originators and (b) how many
action and information addresses?

A

(a) One (b) unlimited

81
Q

Messages addressed to address indicating
groups (AIGs) would most likely contain
which of the following types of
information?

A

Destructive storm warnings

82
Q

When a message is unclassified, what word
or abbreviation should appear on the
classification line?

A

UNCLASS

83
Q

A message readdressal refers to what kind

of message?

A

One transmitted to an activity that is

not an addressee on the original draft

84
Q

Unless otherwise directed, all naval
message directives are automatically
canceled after what maximum period of
time?

A

90 days

85
Q

Minimize requires message drafters and
releasers to make which of the following
considerations?

A

Is electrical transmission essential

86
Q

A rough draft of naval correspondence to
be reviewed by a drafting officer should
contain which of the following types of
information?

A

One subject, clearly and concisely

written

87
Q

What should be your first concern in

drafting correspondence?

A

Format

88
Q

When organizing a naval letter, what
information should you include in the first
paragraph?

A

Purpose of the letter

89
Q

You are assigned the task of writing a piece
of naval correspondence. Which of the
following steps should be your first?

A

Determining the target date

90
Q

When preparing the rough draft of a naval
letter, you should concentrate on which of
the following aspects?

A

The necessary information

91
Q

When reviewing the rough draft of your
correspondence for the first time, which of
the following procedures should you
follow?

A

Make brief notes at points where the

text can be improved

92
Q

Before presenting smooth
correspondence for signature, you
should check for accuracy in which of
the following areas.

A

1.Standard subject identification codes
2. Properly labeled and attached
enclosures
3.Correct titles of all addressees

93
Q

The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by
which of the following factors?

A

The information contained in the

correspondence

94
Q

An endorsement may be placed on the
signature page of a naval letter under which
of the following circumstances?

A

The space on the signature page of the
basic letter is sufficient to
accommodate the entire endorsement

95
Q 
Correspondence that is used as informal
communication between subordinates
within the same activity can be
accomplished by using which of the
following methods?
A

“From-To” memorandum

96
Q

What is the purpose of a NAVGRAM?

A

Urgent communications between DOD

addressees

PMK (2 decks)

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