Navle timed exam 1 week 2

Question 1

This is a _____ worm and as part of its life cycle, it will migrate through the liver and cause characteristic “milk spots” which appear as subcapsular white spots on the liver.

Answer 1

round; Ascaris Suum

Question 2

______ ______ is a whipworm and has a characteristic double-operculated egg appearance

Answer 2

Trichuris suis

Question 3

________:

is responsible for coccidiosis in young piglets

Answer 3

Isosporis suis

Question 4

_________:

is known as the thread worm in pigs and infects the pig by entering through the mucosa of the mouth. Lesions may be seen in the ____ but are typically more prominent in the ____.

Answer 4

Strongyloides ransomi

Question 5

A 15-year old Quarter Horse gelding is presented for a chronic history of right forelimb lameness. Upon examination of the radiograph (see image), what is the most distal diagnostic nerve block necessary to desensitize the source of lameness?

Palmar Metacarpal Nerve Block (low four point)

Palmar Digital Nerve Block

Subcarpal Nerve Block (high four point)

Abaxial Sesamoid Nerve Block

Answer 5

Abaxial Sesamoid Nerve Block

the abaxial block desensitizes the foot and proximal interphalangeal (pastern) joint;

Question 6

The palmar digital nerve block typically blocks which aspects?

Answer 6

the palmar part of the foot

Question 7

the low four point block desensitizes which aspects of the limb?

Answer 7

the foot pastern and fetlock joint;

Question 8

The _______ block desensitizes the metacarpal region and below.

Answer 8

subcarpal

Question 9

Rhodococcus equi causes pneumonia in foals, characterized by pulmonary abscesses. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in treating R. equi foal pneumonia?

Answer 9

Erythromycin

Erythromycin is often used in combination with rifampin. Others used are clarithromycin or azithromycin.

Question 10

A 4-year old doe presents after parturition with a firm udder and minimal milk flow. Mammary biopsies show an elevated number of lymphocytes and macrophages in the parenchyma and around ducts. What is your diagnosis?

Answer 10

Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus

CAEV is a contagious retrovirus.

Question 11

What clinical signs and biopsy findings are pathognomonic for CAEV; Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus AND HOW DO WE TREAT

Answer 11

firm udder and minimal milk flow. Mammary biopsies show an elevated number of lymphocytes and macrophages in the parenchyma and around ducts;

You need to cull this animal as there is no successful treatment.

Question 12

A 4-year old cat is not eating and has a 104.2F (40.1 C) temperature. The abdomen is mildly distended and abdominocentesis reveals a serosanguinous fluid. On examination you note a string anchored under the base of the tongue. Which of the following tests can help you confirm your clinical suspicion?

WHAT DOES THE SEROSAGUNOUS AND STRING TELL US??

Compare the glucose of peripheral blood to the glucose of the abdominal effusioN

Check for leukocytes in the ascites using a urine dipstick

Check a neutrophil count, and evaluate for signs of neutrophil toxicity

A temperature of 104.2F confirms your suspicion, given the physical exam finding

Answer 12

Compare the glucose of peripheral blood to the glucose of the abdominal effusioN

Based on the clinical exam you should be concerned that this patient may have an intestinal perforation and a septic abdomen secondary to a linear foreign body. If the glucose of the abdominal effusion is 20 mg/dl or more points lower than that of peripheral blood, this helps to confirm sepsis. This is due to the bacteria consuming the glucose in the abdominal fluid

An elevated neutrophil count/toxic neutrophils suggest an inflammatory or infectious cause but does not confirm a septic abdomen. An elevated temperature in this case could be due to inflammation or infection but does not confirm sepsis. A urine dipstick is not a reliable means of checking for leukocytes in any fluid (including urine in some species) and would be of no value in this case.

Question 13

Technicians often assist you with your procedures and would like to be more involved. You have several procedures planned for the following week. Which of these should not be performed by a licensed veterinary technician?

Joint taps

Anesthetic induction and intubation

Esophagostomy tube placement

Nasogastric tube placement

Lymph node aspiration

Answer 13

Esophagostomy tube placement

Veterinary technicians are prohibited from performing surgical procedures, prescribing medications, and making diagnoses.

Question 14

A cat should not be given acetaminophen because they lack this enzyme.

Answer 14

Glucoronyl transferase

Question 15

Left hip dysplasia. Perform femoral head and neck ostectomy or total hip replacement

Left hip septic arthritis. Perform joint culture and begin appropriate antibiotic therapy

Left patellar luxation. Perform trochlear wedge recession with tibial tuberosity transposition

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Perform femoral head and neck ostectomy or total hip replacement

Answer 15

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Perform femoral head and neck ostectomy or total hip replacement

Based on the breed and age of the patient, avascular necrosis of the femoral head should immediately be the top differential. This condition is also known as Legg-Calves-Perthes disease and results in a collapse or fragmentation of the femoral epiphysis (as seen on the radiographs) because of a disruption in blood flow. The cause of blood flow interruption is unknown. The condition occurs in young small-breed dogs prior to closure of the capital femoral physis. The condition can be seen bilaterally in 10-17% of patients. Dogs are usually 6-7 months of age when they first start showing clinical signs but the age may range from 3-13 months. Treatment with a femoral head and neck ostectomy (FHO) generally yields excellent results. Alternatively, if owners demand perfect biomechanics, a total hip replacement may be considered, but most veterinarians tend to recommend an FHO.

Radiographs will typically show a shortening of the femoral neck as well as osteochondrosis with chronicity, as appreciated in this patient. Note the significant muscle atrophy of the patient’s left limb as compared to the right. Patellar luxation should always be a differential in any small breed dog and this should be ruled out via palpation since the patient may not necessarily be luxated at the time the radiograph was taken. The patient’s patellas are in a normal position in this radiograph.

Question 16

_____ _____ of the femoral head is an uncommon condition which is more often seen in large-breed dogs with a history of degenerative joint disease of the hips. They present with acute lameness, severe hip pain, and are usually febrile. Radiographs usually show degenerative joint disease along with potentially lytic areas associated with the femoral head. Neoplasia should also be considered in these cases.

Answer 16

SEPTIC ARTHRITIS

Question 17

Parvo virus and aggressive supportive care

Bacterial pyoderma and broad spectrum antibiotics

Flea allergy and selemectin

Demodicosis and ivermectin

Puppy strangles (canine juvenile cellulitis) and prednisone

Answer 17

Puppy strangles (canine juvenile cellulitis) and prednisonE

The age of the patient, along with the generalized lymphadenopathy and fever, are classic for puppy strangles when combined with the pustular skin lesions observed. Typically, dogs will be affected around the muzzle, pinnae, and eyes. Important differentials include allergic drug reactions, demodex, and bacterial pyoderma. A skin scraping would be very useful to rule out demodex. However, the fact that the patient has generalized lymphadenopathy and a fever should help you deduce that this is more likely to be puppy strangles. Antibiotic therapy may be administered concurrently to eliminate any secondary bacterial pyoderma.

Question 18

A 7-month old female spayed Persian presents for multifocal non-pruritic patchy alopecia with scaling. Skin scrapes and cytology have no significant findings. You suspect ringworm and perform a fungal culture using a DTM (dermatophyte test medium) culture plate. The culture plate turns red in one week. What is the next appropriate step?

The DTM is positive and treatment with prednisone is necessary

Microscopic examination of culture material

The DTM is negative and the next step should be to biopsy the lesions to confirm the diagnosis of a fungal infection

The DTM is positive and treatment with Itraconazole and Lyme sulfur is necessary

The DTM is positive and the next step should be a skin biopsy to confirm the diagnosis of a fungal infection

Answer 18

Microscopic examination of culture material

DTM contains phenol red, which turns red under alkaline conditions. Dermatophytes use protein sources to grow first and produce alkaline metabolites hence turning the test medium red. Contaminants such as molds use carbohydrate sources first and will not produce a color change; however, after carbohydrate sources are depleted then protein sources are used and change the test medium to red. It is important to check the culture plate daily for this reason and understand that a color change may not indicate the presence of a pathogen.

Microsporum canis usually grows as a white fluffy colony. Under the microscope you will find multiple hyphae and macroconidia. Microsporum canis macroconidia are characterized by thick walls and more than six cells. The macroconidia are used to differentiate between species. This is also important since different species have different reservoirs or sources of infection, which is important to know when developing a treatment plan.

Question 19

A boa constrictor presents with a history of regurgitation over the past two weeks and now an inability to right itself. What is your top differential as to the causative agent of the clinical signs?

Ophionyssus natricus infection

Inclusion body disease

Ruptured urinary bladder

Dysecdysis

Answer 19

Inclusion body disease

The correct answer is inclusion body disease. The exact cause of inclusion body disease is not known, but a retrovirus is strongly suspected. Additionally, it seems as though the snake mite, Ophionyssus natricus is associated with the transmission. Dysecdysis is the term for abnormal shedding. A ruptured urinary bladder is impossible as snakes don’t have bladders.

Question 20

______ is the term for abnormal shedding IN SNAKES/REPTILES

Answer 20

Dysecdysis

Question 21

Do snakes have bladders and can suffer urinary bladder rupture

Answer 21

nope no bladders

Question 22

What is the snake mite?

Answer 22

Ophionyssus natricus is associated with the transmission

Question 23

Every time an owner shears his sheep, 10% develop large abscesses in their lymph nodes several weeks or even months after shearing. What should the owner do to control/prevent this problem the next time he shears his sheep?

Disinfect shears before shearing and between shearing sheep

Pretreat all animals with gentamicin

Cull any affected individuals before shearing

There is nothing the owner can do; the disease will run its course

Answer 23

Disinfect shears before shearing and between shearing sheep

The correct answer is to disinfect shears before beginning and between shearing sheep. The sheep are most likely being infected with caseous lymphadenitis (also commonly called boils) which is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. This organism is highly contagious and commonly transmitted at shearing when nicks and cuts occur. When you lance these abscesses, make sure to keep the area very clean and decontaminate everything to avoid spreading the disease.
The rancher should also consider vaccination against caseous lymphadenitis.

Question 24

An iguana presents to your clinic on an emergency basis because the owner noticed the iguana’s tongue is very dark red in color. What is your next step?

Answer 24

Tell the owner this is normal for iguanas

Question 25

Itraconazole

Prednisone

Carboplatin

Doxycycline

Milbemycin

Answer 25

Prednisone

This is a case of lymphoma. The cytology depicts the classic finding of a population of lymphoid cells that are predominantly lymphoblasts based on their size and characteristics. If you were unsure about their size due to magnification, there is a neutrophil in the lower left corner for comparison. The lymphoblasts are considerably larger than the neutrophil. Mature lymphocytes would be smaller than a neutrophil. Note that there is a mitotic figure in the middle of the slide.

There are many treatments and protocols for lymphoma and some of the main agents known to have efficacy are prednisone, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, L-asparaginase, and lomustine. There are many other efficacious chemotherapeutics for lymphoma but carboplatin is not considered a first line treatment for lymphoma in dogs.

The other drugs listed are antifungal (itraconazole), antibiotic (doxycycline) and anti-parasitic (milbemycin).

Question 26

A cat presents to your clinic with phthisis bulbi, and corneal edema and scarring. About a year ago, the cat had a history of having a cat fight and was scratched in the eye. The eye is not visual as it has no menace, and there is no pupillary response in either eye when light is shined in the affected eye. The eye does not seem to be painful at this time. What should you recommend?

Use lubricating ointments to protect the eye

Suture the eyelids to protect the eye

Monitor the eye and plan enucleation if further clinical signs develop

Enucleation

Answer 26

The correct answer is enucleation. In a cat with a history of penetrating ocular trauma and subsequent blind eyes, this is very suspicious for feline traumatic sarcoma. This is a unique tumor of cats and is a very malignant intraocular neoplasm. Eyes almost always develop phthisis prior to showing neoplasia. This can occur years after the inciting trauma. The treatment is early enucleation because if you wait for signs to develop, the tumor has frequently already metastasized

Question 27

A 10 year old female spayed Labrador Retriever has presented for difficulty getting up in the hind and apparent back pain for the last 3-4 weeks. Upon questioning the owner, you are told that her appetite is diminished but she is still eating. An orthopedic exam finds no pain or discomfort elicited on manipulation of the hips or stifles. A neurologic exam identifies substantial pain in the lumbosacral region; however, conscious proprioception is intact, and patellar reflexes are normal.

Radiographs of the lumbosacral region identify a lytic lesion at the L7-S1 endplates as well as surrounding bony proliferation. Which of the following diagnostic tests is likely to provide the most helpful additional information given your findings?

Stifle arthrocentesis

Urine culture

Abdominal ultrasound

Blood draw for creatine kinase levels

Chest radiographs

Answer 27

Urine culture

The diagnosis you should have in mind is discospondylitis. Be sure not to confuse this with spondylosis, which is typically not clinically significant and can be expected in most older dogs. The radiographic description is relatively specific for this condition. Neoplasia in the spine should be lower on your differential list because it typically does not cross joints. Disc herniation cannot be ruled out, and advanced imaging would be necessary to know for certain, but given the exam and radiographic findings, discospondylitis should be your top differential.

Discospondylitis is usually bacterial in origin, with Staphylococcus being the most common organism involved. Other organisms identified include Brucella canis, E. coli, Pasteurella, Aspergillus, and Streptococcus.

In an attempt to identify the causative agent, urine and blood cultures should be considered. The other answer choices are not as high yield in identifying the specific bacterial cause or underlying etiology.

Question 28

What is the physiologic abnormality in animals with tracheal collapse?

Underlying bronchopneumonia

Narrow tracheal lumen

Decreased number of tracheal rings

Weakness of the tracheal rings

Answer 28

The correct answer is weakness of the tracheal rings. Tracheal collapse occurs because of hypocellularity and deficient glycoproteins and glycosaminoglycans in the tracheal rings. This leads to decreasing strength and loss of ability to remain firm and eventually collapse.

Question 29

A falconer presents his peregrine hybrid to you with the complaint of lethargy and weakness. You run a blood chemistry panel and CBC and these are the abnormalities: elevated AST, elevated CPK, low total protein and a low hematocrit at 22%. Some of the RBCs have a small, round to oval structure with a large vacuole forcing the nucleus to be displaced to one pole, resulting in a ‘signet-ring’ appearance. Your diagnosis is avian malaria and it is caused by which of following organisms?

Dirofilaria

Plasmodium

Bartonella

Hemoproteus

Answer 29

The plasmodium trophozoite is a stage of the parasite that is seen as a large vacuole displacing the nucleus on microscopic examination of red blood cells in infected birds.

Question 30

What is the causative agent of Johne’s disease?

Answer 30

Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

The correct answer is Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis. This disease is known to affect cattle, goats, and sheep, as well as many exotic hoofstock. Infection usually occurs when the animals are young but clinical signs do not show up until they are stressed, often at 2 to 3 years of age. Clinical signs are essentially chronic intermittent diarrhea and weight loss.

Question 31

Answer 31

Ruptured urethra

In the bovine, urolithiasis often results in rupture of the urethra. Urine then leaks into all the ventral tissues and causes this massive ventral edema, which progresses to necrosis and sometimes to gangrene.

Question 32

Which of these factors do cats require in their diet?

Glutamic acid

Glycine

Arachidonic acid

Aspartic acid

Alanine

Answer 32

The correct answer is arachidonic acid. Cats, unlike dogs, require intact arachidonic acid in their diets.

Question 33

There is an appointment today for a work-up on a lame cow. “Playing the odds”, what digits are most likely to be involved, because these are the digits most often affected in dairy cattle?

Lateral front digits

Medial front digits

Medial rear digits

Lateral rear digits

Answer 33

Lateral rear digits

The correct answer is lateral rear digits. Over 80% of foot disease involving the digits involves the rear digits. Additionally, approximately 85% of these involve the lateral aspect. This is because they bear the majority of their rear limb weight on the lateral claw in the hind. In the front, cattle put most of their weight on their medial claw.

Question 34

Where is the most common location that a horse develops an impaction resulting in colic?

Answer 34

Pelvic flexure

The most common site for impaction in the horse is the pelvic flexure. At this region of the large colon, the colon narrows resulting in impaction of feed material/ingesta in some horses. Poor feed quality, poor dentition or reduced water intake may predispose a horse to impaction of the pelvic flexure. The colic is usually mild to moderate and is often successfully treated medically.

Question 35

A Cockatiel hen, one of the owner’s prize egg layers, was found on the bottom of its cage and brought to your clinic on emergency. You check your records and see that the bird has had one previous reproductive problem with metabolic exhaustion but has always laid the egg successfully. On physical exam, you note the cloaca to be pink and dilated and abdominal palpation reveals a firm, round mass in the caudal abdomen. Your tentative diagnosis is that the bird is egg bound. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

Female Cockatiels are prone to adrenal tumors which prevents the normal release of prostaglandin during egg laying so immediate surgical removal of the egg should also include adrenalectomy

Medical treatment including analgesics, subcutaneous fluids, calcium administration, placing the bird in a warm, moist environment and reassess in 24 hours

Prepare the bird for immediate surgery to remove the egg and perform an ovariohysterectomy

Provide the owner with a poor prognosis since unfortunately there is no viable treatment option for birds with this condition.

Answer 35

Medical treatment including analgesics, subcutaneous fluids, calcium administration, placing the bird in a warm, moist environment and reassess in 24 hours

This is the best answer because taking a debilitated bird to immediate surgery will be extremely risky. Since the bird is a proven layer, it is best to stabilize this dystocia patient for its metabolic needs during the first 24 hours while monitoring its response. In many cases, the egg will be produced with medical treatment alone - especially since she has laid eggs successfully in the past. If the bird does not produce the egg within 24 hours, then surgical and non-surgical options for removal can be discussed. Cockatiels are not prone to anti-prostaglandin producing adrenal tumors.

Question 36

A dairy has experienced an increase in abortions from midterm to term, as well as the birth of weak calves with neurologic signs. Based upon histopathologic lesions and herd serology, you have diagnosed Neospora caninum. Which of the following steps to help control the disease is most correct?

Keep raccoons away from cows and cow feed

Keep dogs and coyotes away from cows and cow feed

Depopulate and bring in clean seronegative cows

Keep cats away from cows and cow feed

Treat all cows in the herd with long acting tetracycline

Answer 36

Keep dogs and coyotes away from cows and cow feed

The canine is the definitive host and sheds oocysts in the feces, which cause the disease when consumed by cattle. Like cattle, deer may also be infected as intermediate hosts. The dogs are initially infected by eating infected tissues from the cattle, most commonly an aborted fetus.

Question 37

A fractious diabetic cat is very stressed when it presents for a blood glucose curve, and the owner does not want to leave the cat in the hospital for the day. The cat is receiving 4 units of PZI insulin SID at home, and was fed and received insulin this morning before coming in to see you. For this cat, what would be a viable alternative to a glucose curve if the cat has been well regulated in the past?

Single serum fructosamine level

Serial urine dipsticks by the owner at home to quantify glucosuria

Stress has no effect on the glucose curve, and the curve is still the best option

Check blood glucose once mid-way between insulin injections; this would be equivalent to the nadir

Answer 37

Single serum fructosamine level

A fructosamine level measures the number of blood glucose molecules linked to protein molecules in the blood. This value is considered to provide an average of the blood glucose concentration over the past 2 to 3 weeks.

Urine dipsticks are not a reliable means of monitoring diabetes. Stress can greatly affect the glucose curves. In some instances the curve is still the best means of monitoring, especially for unregulated patients.

The nadir or low point of the glucose curve can occur anytime during the curve, and with PZI is typically 5-7 hours after insulin administration. However, one blood sugar level does not provide a good means of evaluating regulation.

Question 38

Quittor defines a chronic infection of what part of a horse?

Answer 38

Cartilage of P3

Question 39

What is the differences between dermatophilosis and dermatophytosis

Answer 39

Dermatophytosis(RING WORM) in Horses. Trichophyton equinum and T mentagrophytes are the primary causes of ringworm in horses

Dermatophilosis (RAIN ROT)

They occur usually due to a repeated wetting of the stratum corneum or skin trauma which makes the skin more vulnerable to parasitism by the causal agent Dermatophilus congolensis. It is more commonly seen in the winter. Typically hair becomes matted and focal lesions develop into crusts and thick scabs covered by layers of yellow-green pus. When scabs are removed the hair is taken with them and alopecia results.

Question 40

What are sarcoids

Answer 40

Equine sarcoids are the most commonly diagnosed tumor of equids, representing 20% of all equine neoplasms and 36% of all skin tumors in horses. Studies suggest there is no significant gender or age predisposition.

Equine sarcoids are rarely life threatening but can compromise function and be a major economic concern. Sarcoids may also cause significant welfare dilemmas, particularly in developing countries where equids, principally donkeys, are widely used as work animals (eg, brick-carrying donkeys in India).

Bovine papillomavirus (BPV), primarily types 1 and 2, is now considered the main etiologic agent of equine sarcoids. There may also be a genetic predisposition associated with equine leukocyte antigens; particular breeds and bloodlines appear to be more susceptible to the disease.

The mode of transmission has not been confirmed. BPV-1 has recently been detected in several common fly species (eg, house fly and stable fly), and because there is an apparent predilection for sarcoid development at wound sites, it has been proposed that flies may act as vectors as they move between wound sites on different horses. Alternatively, BPV infection may be transmitted via stable management practices, such as the sharing of contaminated tack, or be passed into existing wounds from contaminated pasture.

Question 41

Two mares are presented for crusting dermal lesions on their dorsum and pasterns. The lesions are “paintbrush” like lesions and have purulent material exudating from them. A direct smear of the lesion shows branching, filamentous, gram positive bacteria. What is your most likely diagnosis?

Sarcoid

Onchocerciasis

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Dermatophytosis

Dermatophilosis

Answer 41

The answer is dermatophilosis. Dermatophilus congolensis is a gram positive, non-acid fast, facultative anaerobic actinomycete. It causes a crusting dermatitis in large animals when there is high moisture on the skin as well as mechanical irritation. Horses with long, wet haircoats are often affected. Lesions are commonly on the dorsum and pasterns of horses and are classically described as paintbrush lesions. It can be diagnosed with a direct smear preparation. Treatment includes keeping the haircoat clean and dry and penicillins if the lesions are severe. Lesions typically heal rapidly.

Question 42

On necropsy of an adult horse which died acutely, it is noted that there is thrombosis of the cranial mesenteric artery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 42

Strongylus vulgaris

The correct answer is Strongylus vulgaris. Remember, S. vulgaris will migrate to the cranial mesenteric artery and cause thrombosis which may result in acute death. A ruptured stomach will also cause acute death but you would expect to see stomach contents in the peritoneal space. Salmonella and a mesenteric rent are highly unlikely to result in thrombosis of the cranial mesenteric artery.

Question 43

A 9 year old German Shepherd Dog presents to you for a geriatric exam. The dog is difficult to handle and you need to sedate the dog with a combination of acepromazine and midazolam prior to completing your exam which is unremarkable. Due to the dog’s age and breed, you recommend a complete minimum database including a CBC, chemistry panel, urinalysis, thoracic radiographs, and abdominal ultrasound, and the owner agrees. Which of the following findings could be expected in this patient and should not be considered abnormal?

Hepatomegaly and increased hepatic echogenicity

Splenic enlargement and decreased hemoglobin concentration

Proteinuria and low urine specific gravity

Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Cardiomegaly and an enlarged vena cava

Answer 43

Splenic enlargement and decreased hemoglobin concentration

Acepromazine causes marked splenic dilation with blood and a corresponding decrease in hematocrit concentration. If you were to notice those findings, it is most likely iatrogenic and not due to underlying disease.

Question 44

Cytauxzoon felis is transmitted by ________.

Answer 44

Ticks

The correct answer is ticks. Dermacentor variabilis or Amblyomma americanum are the most likely vectors. The disease in cats is rapidly progressive and almost 100% fatal. A recent study shows 32 of 34 cats dying or being euthanized as a result of infection. Clinical signs include anorexia, lethargy, dyspnea, dark urine, dehydration, icterus, fever, prolonged capillary refill time, and death (essentially disseminated intravascular coagulation). Ring-shaped organisms can be seen in erythrocytes or schizonts in spleen, liver, blood, bone marrow aspirates, or lymph nodes.

Question 45

in a cow

Thelazia

Histophilus somni

E. coli

Moraxella bovis

Answer 45

The correct answer is Moraxella bovis. Thelazia is the eye worm. Histophilus somni is a cause of many syndromes, but is rarely found in the eye. E. coli is not an ocular pathogen.

Question 46

Which eye worm is found commonly in cattle

Answer 46

thelazia

Question 47

In diabetes mellitus in cats, insulin resistance can be secondary to all of the following except _______.

Excess glucagon secretion

Hypoadrenocorticism

Obesity

Acromegaly

Answer 47

The correct answer is hypoadrenocorticism. Hypoadrenocorticism does not cause insulin resistance leading to diabetes mellitus. Obesity, excess secretion of growth hormone (acromegaly) and glucagon can cause insulin resistance in diabetes mellitus. Other hormones that can cause insulin resistance include cortisol, catecholamines, and thyroid hormone.

Question 48

What is acromegaly

Answer 48

Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder that results from too much growth hormone (GH) in the body

Question 49

Obesity

Acromegaly

Excess glucagon secretion

these 3 can all lead to resistance of what hormone

Answer 49

insulin

Question 50

Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for tremors in pigs?

Pseudorabies

Organophosphate toxicity

Streptococcus suis

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

Hog cholera

Answer 50

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

The correct answer is porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome. The other answer choices listed all have the potential to cause tremors in pigs. Tremors can also be seen in pigs with Japanese B encephalitis and in male Landrace pigs affected with a sex-linked genetic defect.

Question 51

A 10-year old female spayed domestic short hair named Gypsy presents with a history of increased drinking and urinating for 2 weeks and weight loss. She has not eaten in 2 days. Bloodwork shows blood glucose 457 mg/dL and her urine shows 3+ glucose, 2+ ketones. Which type of insulin would be recommended for this patient at this time?

PZI insulin

Glargine (Lantus) insulin

Humulin-N (NPH)

Humulin-R (regular insulin)

Vetsulin

Answer 51

Humulin-R (regular insulin)

This cat is in a state of diabetic ketoacidosis. Due to this status, the recommended insulin type is Humulin-R, or regular insulin. This is a shorter acting insulin which will help to get the ketonuria to resolve more efficiently. After the ketosis has resolved and the cat is hydrated, eating, drinking, and electrolytes are stable, the cat can be switched to a longer acting insulin. Glargine or PZI are the insulin types of choice for long term control in felines after the ketoacidosis has been corrected, but other insulin types can also be used.

Question 52

Approximately, how long does pregnancy last in the dog (starting from the day of ovulation)?

Answer 52

63 days

Question 53

Mycoplasma felis- enrofloxacin and prednisolone

Bartonella- doxycycline and prednisolone

Bartonella- enrofloxacin

Mycoplasma haemofelis- doxycyline and prednisolone

Mycoplasma haemofelis- enrofloxacin

Answer 53

Mycoplasma haemofelis- doxycyline and prednisolone Correct Answer

This organism is called Mycoplasma haemofelis (formerly called Hemobartonella).

Bartonella is a different bacterium that is spread via fleas. It is implicated in Cat Scratch Disease.

Mycoplasma felis is a bacterium involved in respiratory infections and is usually considered a co-infection or opportunist in pulmonary disease.

Both doxycyline and enrofloxacin (Baytril) can be effective at treating Mycoplasma haemofelis; however, in severe cases such as this where there is rampant red blood cell destruction via the immune system (as evidenced by positive slide agglutination test), the addition of immunosuppressive doses of steroids can be life-saving.

Question 54

Voiding of the bladder involves ________.

Parasympathetic inhibition and sympathetic stimulation

Sympathetic inhibition and parasympathetic inhibition

Parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic inhibition

Somatic stimulation

Answer 54

Parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic inhibition Correct Answer

The correct answer is parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic inhibition.

The hypogastric nerve is a part of the sympathetic nervous system. This nerve provides innervation primarily to beta receptors in the detrusor muscle and alpha receptors in the internal urethral sphincter.

The pelvic nerve is a part of the parasympathetic nervous system. The nerve primarily innervates the detrusor muscle of the bladder wall.

The pudendal nerve is a somatic nerve. It provides innervation to the external urethral sphincter.

During the voiding phase of micturition, the parasympathetic nervous system is active. The pelvic nerve stimulates cholinergic receptors in the detrusor muscle that result in contraction of the bladder and expulsion of urine.

During the storage phase, the sympathetic and somatic nervous systems are active. The hypogastric nerve stimulates beta receptors in the detrusor muscle which causes the muscle to relax. It also stimulates alpha receptors in the internal urethral sphincter, which causes the sphincter to contract. While this is going on, the external urethral sphincter is contracting as a result of stimulation from the pudendal nerve.

Question 55

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

Truncus arteriosus

Answer 55

Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Correct Answer

The image demonstrates a VSD or a hole in the intraventricular septum (identified by two markers). This is one of the more common congenital defects of the heart in horses.

The murmur occurs as blood is shunted from the left side of the heart to the right during systole. Some horses can perform normally with a VSD while others, with large defects, can demonstrate heart failure. In this case, it was an incidental finding, as the horse was bright and alert at the time of exam. The remainder of the answers (ASD, PDA, and truncus arteriosus) can occur but are less common and would appear differently on echocardiography.

It is unlikely but possible that you will be asked to interpret an echocardiogram on your board exam. If you are, this is likely to be one of the diseases you could be shown.

Question 56

An 8-year old, retired, racetrack Greyhound presented for lameness of the right forelimb. Radiographs showed a mixed proliferative and lytic lesion in the region of the proximal humerus.
Blood work showed:
HCT=54 (35-57 %)
TP=5.9 (5.4-7.5 mg/dl)
ALP=568 (1-114 U/L)
ALT=42 (10-109 U/L)
T. Bili= 0.5 (0-0.3 mg/dl)
creatinine=0.9 (0.5-1.7 mg/dl)
BUN=49 (8-28 mg/dl)
Three view chest radiographs show no lung or heart pathology.
What recommendations will you make to the owners?

Definitive radiation therapy will need to be instituted at biweekly intervals for the next 6 weeks

Right forelimb amputation followed by chemotherapy

Coccidiodomycosis was likely acquired at the racetrack and this dog should be started on anti-fungal therapy immediately

No treatment is recommended since the blood work is suggestive of metastasis making the prognosis grave

Answer 56

Right forelimb amputation followed by chemotherapy Correct Answer

Greyhounds are one of the most predisposed breeds to osteosarcoma. Any geriatric greyhound with a lameness should be evaluated promptly for this reason. Unless the patient has a highly suspicious history of living in, or being exposed to, areas with high levels of fungal organisms, the radiographic findings are almost confirmatory for osteosarcoma. Regardless of a strong suspicion, core biopsies or a needle aspirate of the lesion should be obtained prior to a definitive treatment.

The appropriate treatment in dogs without radiographic evidence of metastasis is amputation followed by chemotherapy. Amputation alone will provide a 2-3 month survival period. While amputation with chemotherapy yields a 9-12 month survival period. Definitive radiation therapy is not possible for these tumors. However, radiation therapy is great when using it as a palliative mode of therapy.

The only feature of the blood work which is of note is the ALP. Studies have shown that an elevated ALP is associated with a more aggressive tumor. Aside from informing the owners of this potential, it is still recommended to proceed with amputation and chemotherapy. In these situations, some surgeons and oncologists may recommend performing a CT of the chest to evaluate the chest for metastasis more thoroughly prior to proceeding with surgery and chemotherapy.

Question 57

What enzyme do you test for to diagnose selenium deficiency?

Alcohol dehydrogenase

Carbonic anhydrase

Glutathione peroxidase

Glucoronyl transferase

Answer 57

Glutathione peroxidase Correct Answer

The correct answer is glutathione peroxidase. Activity of this enzyme is very low in selenium deficient animals resulting in free radical damage.

(think free radicals associated with selniem def from the Perox)

Question 58

Which of the following diseases does NOT cause fetal loss in pigs?

Parvovirus

Toxoplasma

Brucella spp

Pseudorabies

Chronic erysipelas infection

Answer 58

Chronic erysipelas infection

The correct answer is chronic erysipelas infection. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is the causative agent of diamond skin disease of pigs. In the acute stage it causes fever and red or purple cutaneous skin lesions in the shape of diamonds. The acute septicemia and fever can cause abortion in pregnant females. The chronic form of the disease is known for causing vegetative valvular endocarditis and lameness (arthritis). The chronic form is not known for causing fetal loss in pigs. Other differentials for fetal loss in pigs other than those listed as answer choices include PRRS, Mycoplasma suis (formerly known as eperythrozoonosis), acute erysipelas infection, leptospirosis, and any other severe systemic disease.

Question 59

A 9 year old female spayed Vizsla presents for a lump on her carpus. Excisional biopsy of the mass shows a low grade peripheral nerve sheath tumor. What do you tell the owner?

The tumor will likely metastasize to the brachial plexus

The tumor was likely cured with the excisional biopsy

The tumor will likely recur locally in the future

The tumor will likely metastasize to the associated prescapular lymph node

The tumor will likely metastasize to the lungs

Answer 59

The tumor will likely recur locally in the future

Low grade peripheral nerve sheath tumors (and most soft tissue sarcomas in general) on the trunk or extremities of a dog are locally aggressive tumors. They often recur after surgical excision if further therapy such as radiation therapy is not instituted adjunctively. The “low grade” designation means the tumor has a low likelihood of metastasis. If they do metastasize, the most common site of metastasis is the lungs.

Question 60

The most common lesion associated with in utero infection with feline panleukopenia virus is _______.

Answer 60

The correct answer is cerebellar hypoplasia. Cerebellar hypoplasia is the most common lesion seen in cats infected in utero. Nonsuppurative myocarditis is seen in dogs infected in utero.

Question 61

A 5 year old male castrated German Shepherd Dog presents for a right thoracic limb monoplegia after jumping out of the back of a moving pickup truck. On physical exam, you observe superficial abrasions over his body, a right sided Horner’s syndrome, and dragging of his right thoracic limb. He has no conscious proprioception, motor function, or deep pain anywhere in the right thoracic limb. What should you tell the owner?

Physical therapy will greatly improve the chances that the dog will regain function of the limb.

The dog suffered a brachial plexus avulsion and will most likely need to have the leg amputated.

The dog has a brachial plexus avulsion but will likely regain function in the limb in several months.

The dog has damage to the radial nerve. Electrodiagnostic procedures should be run to determine how much nerve function remains in the limb.

Answer 61

The dog suffered a brachial plexus avulsion and will most likely need to have the leg amputated.

The correct answer is the dog suffered a brachial plexus avulsion and will most likely need to have the leg amputated. Dogs that are hit by cars or who jump out of moving cars often suffer brachial plexus avulsions. Complete nerve root avulsions are not treatable and usually require amputation of affected limbs. Partial avulsions carry a better prognosis but require large amounts of time and physical therapy before seeing any improvement. The lack of deep pain and motor function in the limb is a negative prognostic indicator supporting the diagnosis of a complete brachial plexus avulsion.