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Nav 2 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of DME

A

Accurate slant range indicator that requires dedicated equipment both on the ground and in the aircraft.

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2
Q

What frequency does DME work in and what equipment does it need

A

UHF

Transponder (receiver responder)
Interrogator (transmitter receiver)
Distance indicator (digital or analogue)

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3
Q

How many frequencies are used for DME and why?

A

2

To avoid a/c interrogating each other

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4
Q

Why does the pulse pair of DME vary?

A

To give it’s own unique code and distinguish it from other a/c

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5
Q

How accurate is DME

A

To within 1NM

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6
Q

How many a/c interrogations can DME accept?

A

Up to 100

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7
Q

What is slant error

A

The closer to the beacon you are the less accurate the reading is

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8
Q

What equipment does an a/c need to be fitted with to use DME

A

Interrogator

Distance indicator

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9
Q

Why do we use DME

A

Enhances accuracy of holding patterns

Military use for air to air refuelling

Can be collocated with VOR and precision approach aids

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10
Q

What do VORs do

A

Give bearings by phase comparison

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11
Q

How do VORs identify themselves

A

3 letter morse code or speech

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12
Q

VOR use line of sight true or false

A

True

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13
Q

What does VOR operating range depend on?

A

A/c height

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14
Q

What are the 2 signals VOR uses and how are they transmitted

A

Reference signal transmitted omni-directionally

Variable signal transmitted by a circular range of aerials around reference signal antenna simulating a revolving antenna

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15
Q

Are the 2 VOR signals transmitted simultaneously?

A

Yes but simulated rotation causes a phase difference which varies with change of bearing

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16
Q

Where does a VOR not transmit a useable signal?

A

Vertically

This is called cone of silence or cone of confusion

Increases with height

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17
Q

What extends outwards from VOR

A

Radials

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18
Q

Benefit of VOR and a downside

A

Can Install in difficult terrain

Expensive to equip and install

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19
Q

What is QDM

A

Magnetic heading to the beacon/station (aka homing)

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20
Q

What is QDR

A

Magnetic bearing from the beacon/station

I.e radial

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21
Q

What does OBS stand for and what does it do?

A

Omni bearing selector

Instrument on A/c which shows them general heading to or from beacon and VOR info.

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22
Q

Name 4 VOR errors

A

Site error

Propagation error

Equipment error

Interference error

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23
Q

What are the approx ranges obtainable for reliable VOR ops

A

50nm at 1000ft
90nm at 5000ft
150nm at 15000ft
200nm at 25000ft

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24
Q

What is the accuracy of VOR

A

+/- 1.25 degrees

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25
Q

How far apart are VORs spaced

A

50-100nm to ensure local coverage

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26
Q

What are VORs used for

A

Hoping to a station

Flying holding pattern

Maintaining track along airway centreline

Obtaining a position line

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27
Q

What is interference error in VOR

A

Narrow operating bands limits number of channels.

Huh flying a/c may receive signals from more than one VOR on same frequency

To rectify VOR on same frequency must be 500nm apart

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28
Q

What is RDF

A

Radio direction finding

The measurement of the direction from which a received signal was transmitted

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29
Q

What is a radio bearing

A

The angle between the apparent direction of a definite source of emission of radio waves and a reference direction as determined at DF station

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30
Q

What is a true radio bearing

A

Radio bearing who’s reference direction is true north

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31
Q

What is a magnetic radio bearing

A

A radio bearing for which the reference direction is magnetic north

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32
Q

What does DRDF stand for

A

Digital radio direction finding

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33
Q

what are the DF accuracy tolerance classes?

A

A +/- 2 degrees

B +/- 5 degrees

C +/- 10 degrees

D worse than class C

34
Q

What are the uses of DF for ATCOs

A

Can assist a pilot who is lost

35
Q

What is QTE

A

Time bearing of a/c in relation to DF station or other specified point

36
Q

What is triangulation

A

Pilots can establish their approx position by obtaining 2 or more bearings for separate DF stations and plotting the point the bearings intercept

37
Q

What is homing

A

Using the DF equipment and radio bearing to proceed continuously towards the station.

38
Q

When can you refuse to give DF bearing headings or position

A

Conditions unsatisfactory

Bearings don’t fall in stations calibration limits

Doing so would monopolise the frequency

39
Q

What is an ADF? What frequency does it use

A

Automatic direction finder.

Operates 300khz to 3mhz

Fitted in an a/c

40
Q

What is an NDB

A

Omni directional transmitter that operates MF 190-1750khz

Average radius of cover between 10&500nm

41
Q

When are high powered NDBs used

A

For long range navigation

42
Q

When are low powered NDBs used

A

Airfield approach aids - locator beacons

43
Q

What is RMI

A

Radio magnetic indicator - arrow superimposed onto compass rose used to read QD

Can have more than 1 arrow to show multiple beacons

44
Q

What is RBI

A

Relative bearing indicator

Shows relative bearing in relation to a/c heading
To obtain bearing to NDB - a/c heading must be added to RBI reading

45
Q

What are the 7 NDB errors

A 
1 static interference 
2 station interference 
3 mountain effect 
4 night effect 
5 coastal refraction 
6 quadrantal error 
7 system malfunction
46
Q

What is NDB static interference

A

Heavy precipitation and TS cause static. ADF needle points into TS

47
Q

What is NDB mountain effect

A

LF andMF surface waves reflected by high ground - overcome by flying high

48
Q

What is NDB coastal refraction

A

Radio waves travel faster over sea. Any angle except 90 degrees refracted

49
Q

What is quadrantal error (NDB)

A

A/c frame reflects, refracts and re radiates incoming radio waves.

50
Q

When are maximum and minimum NDB ranges experienced

A

Maximum from high power NDB at night over sea

Minimum from low powered NDB at airfields

51
Q

Advantages of NDB

A

Reception not limited to line of sight - follows curvature of earth

Max range dependent on power of NDB

52
Q

NDB disadvantages

A

Subject to atmospheric interference, coastal and night refraction which affects bearing accuracy

Is not as accurate at VOR

53
Q

ILS definition

A

A precision runway approach that provides accurate guidance both in azimuth and elevation

54
Q

What are runways served by an ILS called?

A

Precision approach instrument runway

55
Q

ILS uses and benefits

A

Pilot interpreted aid

Designed for low cloud base or poor vis

Assist in achieving orderly flow of landing traffic

Operate continuously without assistance from ATC

56
Q

What is a localiser transmitter

A

Defines extended centreline

Indicates deviation from optimum lateral approach path

Upwind end of rwy approx 300m from threshold

57
Q

What is a glide path transmitter

A

Defines safe descent slope (usually 3 degrees)

Situated 300m from landing threshold and offset between 100&200m from centreline

58
Q

What are the marker beacons and where are they located

A

Installed on approach to define ranges from the threshold

Outer 3-6nm from threshold

Middle 900-1200m from threshold

Inner 300-450m from threshold

59
Q

What is a DME transponder and what does it do

A

Provides range info - used instead of marker beacons

Frequently paired with localiser - DME autotunes when ILS selected

Accurate only with localiser Coverage up to 25000ft

Range 0 degrees at threshold

60
Q

What does a localiser do?

A

Transmits a signal in the 108-112 MHz VHF band

Radiates 2 lobes which overlap by 5 degrees

Flight receives signals of equal intensity from both lobes when on centreline

Coverage goes out to 35 degrees either side of centreline out to 17nm and thereafter at 10 degrees

61
Q

ILS localisers provide coverage from centre of localiser antenna to distances of…

A

25nm within 10 degrees of course line

17nm within 35 degrees (25 degrees plus the other 10 degrees)

62
Q

What does the glide path do?

A

Operates 329.3-335 MHz UHF band

Radiates 2 lobes which overlap by 1 degree out to a max of 10nm

Overlapping area subtends an angle of 3 degrees to give continuous descending approach to touch down point.
When on correct descent path will receive signals of equal intensity

63
Q

What is the glide path aerial also known as

A

ILS reference point

64
Q

What is the glide path protected range

A

Out to 10nm

Horizontally 8 degrees either side of centreline
Vertically 0.45 x GP below surface and 1.75 x GP above

65
Q

What do glidepath aerial locations and approach angles depend on

A

A/c likely to use

Terrain

Obstacles within approach or missed approach

Local met conditions

Rwy length

66
Q

ILS reference datum

A

Affects location of the glide path aerial

50ft across threshold

Rate of height loss depends on approach angle
2.5 degrees = 250ft per nm
3 degrees = 300ft per nm
3.5 degrees = 350ft per nm

67
Q

Why are localiser and glidepath transmissions frequency paired

A

Reduces cockpit workload

Guards against mismatching

Only localiser frequency needs to be published

68
Q

What does ILS automatic equipment monitor?

A

Radiation fields of
Localiser
Glidepath
Markers

69
Q

If an ILS is under maintenance or radiating due test purposes how would pilot know

A

Identifier removed or replaced by continuous tone

70
Q

How does a/c identify an ILS

A

3 letter morse code ID on localiser carrier wave

71
Q

What happens if ILS power drops below an acceptable level

A

Automatically ceases to transmit

ATC and pilot warned

72
Q

How is ILS displayed in cockpit

A

HSI (horizontal situation indicator) and OBS (omni directional bearing selector)

Each dot indicates out by 0.5 degrees horizontal 0.15 degrees vertical

73
Q

When will needle remain fixed on ILS cockpit display

A

When the RX is switched off

No signal received

A/c is on centreline of both loc and GP beams

74
Q

When can pilot use auto land

A

A/c equipment suitable

TX protected from external interference

ILS sensitive area

75
Q

What are the ILS categories and what are they based on

A 
Cat 1
Lower than cat 1 
Cat 2 
Lower than standard cat 2 
Cat 3 (a,b,c)

Based on rwy lights and protection from infringements

76
Q

What is ILS cat 1

A

DH not lower than 200ft

Vis not less than 800m OR RVR not less than 550m

77
Q

What is ILS lower than standard cat 1

A

DH 200ft

RVR lower than cat 1 (550m) but not lower than 400m

78
Q

What is ILS cat 2

A

DH lower than 200ft

RVR not less that 350m

79
Q

What is ILS other than standard cat 2

A

ILS or MLS

Some or all elements of cat 2 light system not available

DH below 200ft but not lower than 100ft

RVR not less than 350m

80
Q

What is ILS Cat 3 A

A

DH lower than 100ft

Or

No decision height and RVR not less than 200m

81
Q

What is ILS cat 3 B

A

DH Lower than 50ft

Or

No DH and RVR less than 200m but not less than 75m

82
Q

What is ILS cat 3 C

A

Blind landings

No DH no RVR limits

Nav 2 (1 decks)

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