Nature of Business Topic 1 Flashcards

Everything learnt during topic 1 Nature of Business

1
Q

What is a business?

A

The organised effort of individuals to produce and sell, for a profit, the products (goods and services) that satisfy individuals’ needs and wants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why are businesses important?

A
  • Exports products, which generates income for Australians and helps reduce our trade deficit
  • Assists in the development and use of new technology
  • Provides employment and income for employees
  • Pays taxes to governments (company tax and payroll tax)
  • Undertakes investment, which leads to economic growth
  • Produces a wide range of products giving consumers greater choice
  • Improves our quality of life
  • Provides a training ground for future businesspeople (entrepreneurs)
  • Creates value, which encourages economic growth
  • Encourages competition, which results in cheaper products
  • Provides income for business owners
  • Encourages research and development into new products (invention) and improved products (innovation)
  • Helps provide owners with challenges and rewards

E.g Small to medium enterprises (SMEs) make up over 98% of all businesses in Australia.
SMEs provide employment for about 64% of all employees within the private sector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List three examples of products.

A
  • Foods
  • Clothing
  • Electronics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List three examples of services.

A
  • Haircuts
  • Car repairs
  • Cleaning services
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary role of a business?

A

To satisfy needs and wants by providing goods and services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is production?

A

Creating products that are demanded by customers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the main activities a business undertakes?

A
  • Production
  • Management
  • Organizing resources
  • Distributing goods and services
  • Planning finances
  • Forecasting sales
  • Controlling production
  • Marketing products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is one role of businesses in the economy?

A

Providing employment for millions of people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is meant by ‘small to medium enterprises’ (SMEs)?

A

Businesses that are classified as small or medium-sized and play an important role in the economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can businesses be classified?

A
  • Size
  • Industry sector
  • Geographical spread
  • Legal structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three sizes of businesses?

A
  • Small
  • Medium
  • Large
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a micro business?

A

A very small business, often with no more than a few employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: A micro business sells only miniature products.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False: SMEs do not play an especially important role within the Australian economy.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

According to the ABS, a business with fewer than ___ employees is classified as a medium-sized business.

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is one characteristic of small businesses?

A

They are independently owned and operated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the importance of goods and services provided by businesses?

A

They provide consumers with a vast amount of choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the purpose of marketing in a business?

A

To promote products and attract customers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fill in the blank: The total output of all businesses adds considerably to the economic ______ of Australia.

A

wealth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the advantages of leasing equipment for a business?

A
  • Lower initial costs
  • Flexibility
  • Up-to-date technology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the disadvantages of buying equipment for a business?

A
  • Higher initial costs
  • Maintenance responsibility
  • Depreciation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What factors can contribute to business decline?

A
  • Poor management
  • Changes in consumer preferences
  • Economic downturns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is classified as a medium-sized business in terms of employee count?

A

A business with fewer than 200/300 employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a common feature of all small businesses?

A

They are independently/interdependently owned and operated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is the management structure of small businesses typically characterized?

A

Small businesses have a complex/simple management structure with few/many rules and regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The number of employees in a business is what type of measure?

A

Quantitative/qualitative measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of market share does a small business usually have?

A

A small market share.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What market does a small business usually serve?

A

The local market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give an example of a small business.

A

Blue Hills Convenience Store.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most small businesses are classified as what type of entity?

A

Sole traders/public companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does geographical spread mean when classifying businesses?

A

The classification of businesses based on their geographical reach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three main classifications of geographical spread?

A
  • Local
  • National
  • Global
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Summarize the classification of businesses by geographical spread.

A

Local businesses operate in a specific area, national businesses operate across the country, and global businesses operate internationally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the four main reasons for businesses expanding, particularly overseas?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the rapid growth in the tertiary industry over the last three decades resulted in?

A

The subdivision into quaternary and quinary sectors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List the three main types of industry sectors.

A
  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Tertiary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define the primary industry sector.

A

Involves the extraction of natural resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Provide an example of the primary industry sector.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define the secondary industry sector.

A

Involves manufacturing and construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Provide an example of the secondary industry sector.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define the tertiary industry sector.

A

Involves services rather than goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Provide an example of the tertiary industry sector.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define the quaternary industry sector.

A

Involves knowledge-based services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Provide an example of the quaternary industry sector.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define the quinary industry sector.

A

Involves high-level decision making and services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Provide an example of the quinary industry sector.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the legal structure of a business refer to?

A

How the ownership of the business is registered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Distinguish between unincorporated and incorporated businesses.

A
  • Unincorporated: Sole trader or partnership
  • Incorporated: Privately and publicly owned companies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a sole trader?

A

An individual who owns and operates a business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a partnership?

A

A business structure where two or more individuals manage and operate a business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why is it better to have a written partnership agreement?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

List three key components a partnership must contain.

A
  • Terms of the partnership
  • Responsibilities of partners
  • Profit-sharing arrangements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a limited partnership?

A

A partnership where some partners have limited liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the concept of a separate legal entity referred to as?

A

The ‘veil of incorporation’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does limited liability mean?

A

Owners are not personally responsible for the business’s debts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most common type of company structure in Australia?

A

Private company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the typical range of private shareholders in a private company?

A

Between 1 and 50 private shareholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the key features of public companies?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are government enterprises?

A

Businesses owned and operated by the government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Give examples of government enterprises.

A
  • AUSSAT
  • Qantas
  • Commonwealth Bank
  • Telstra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the rationale behind the privatisation of government enterprises?

A

Economic efficiency is increased by transferring enterprises to the private sector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a franchise agreement allow a person to do?

A

Buy the right to use the business name and distribute goods or services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Distinguish between a franchisor and franchisee.

A
  • Franchisor: Provides the franchise, has established the brand
  • Franchisee: Purchases the right to operate under the brand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is franchising often more successful than starting an independent business?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Summarize the advantages of franchising for a franchisor.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Summarize the advantages of franchising for a franchisee.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Summarize the disadvantages of franchising for a franchisor.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Summarize the disadvantages of franchising for a franchisee.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is venture capital?

A

Funds provided to startups and small businesses with perceived long-term growth potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a mnemonic?

A

A pattern of letters, ideas or associations that assists in remembering something.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Provide an example of a mnemonic.

A

Never Eat Soggy Weetbix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are acronyms?

A

The first letter of each word creates another word.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are acrostics?

A

The first letter of each word in a sentence provides a clue to recall information.

74
Q

What does RIPS stand for?

A

Roles, Influences, Processes, Strategies

75
Q

What is an acrostic?

A

The first letter of each word in a sentence provides the clue that helps students recall information.

76
Q

Give an example of an acrostic.

A

My Very Elderly Mother Just Served Us Nachos = The Order of the Planets in the Milky Way (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars…)

77
Q

What is one use of rhyming in mnemonics?

A

Some mnemonics employ a rhyme to help them be recalled easily.

78
Q

Provide an example of a rhyme used in mnemonics.

A

‘i’ before ‘e’ except after ‘c’

79
Q

What is the connection method in mnemonics?

A

Students connect the information they want to memorize to something they already know.

80
Q

What is a tip for creating mnemonics?

A

Use images as well as text.

81
Q

Why are funny mnemonics easier to remember?

A

Funny mnemonics are easier to remember than normal ones.

82
Q

What are everyday symbols that can be used in mnemonics?

A

Red traffic lights, road signs, pointing fingers, etc.

83
Q

Why is knowing the syllabus important in Business Studies?

A

Knowing the syllabus is the key to success.

84
Q

What must businesses do in response to external influences?

A

Businesses must keep ‘in tune’ with the changes and adapt its operations accordingly.

85
Q

What is the external business environment?

A

The factors that can impact a business that managers cannot control.

86
Q

What can political changes lead to in the business environment?

A

Business uncertainty or business confidence.

87
Q

What are the three main institutional influences on business?

A
  • Government regulatory bodies such as the ACCC and Fair Trading
  • Trade unions
  • Employer associations
88
Q

What does deregulation mean?

A

The removal of government regulation from industry.

89
Q

What does privatisation involve?

A

The transfer of ownership from the public sector to the private sector.

90
Q

What is the role of regulatory bodies?

A

To ensure that businesses conduct themselves fairly in relation to the consumer, the community and other businesses.

91
Q

Name a major factor that impacts business activity in Australia.

A

Australia’s geographic location within the Asia–Pacific region.

92
Q

What is globalisation?

A

The buying and selling of goods and services between nations.

93
Q

What has significantly impacted globalisation in recent years?

A

The technological revolution in communications and computers.

94
Q

What legal responsibilities do businesses have?

A

Businesses must abide by the laws of a country.

95
Q

What is the business cycle?

A

The periods of growth and recession that occur due to fluctuations in the general level of economic activity.

96
Q

What are boom and bust periods in economic terms?

A
  • Boom: Period of economic growth
  • Bust: Period of economic decline
97
Q

What happens during a recession?

A

Business activity gradually slows down.

98
Q

What can technological advancements lead to in businesses?

A

Increased efficiency and productivity.

99
Q

What can happen if a business doesn’t adapt to changing technologies?

A

It may fall behind competitors.

100
Q

What is the potential influence of social changes on businesses?

A

Failure to respond to social changes can threaten business stability and viability.

101
Q

What is financial deregulation?

A

The removal of government regulation from the financial industry.

102
Q

What is deregulation?

A

The removal of government regulation from industry to increase efficiency and improve competition.

103
Q

When did the deregulation of Australia’s financial system begin?

104
Q

What approach does the deregulation of the financial sector lead to?

A

A more flexible, market-oriented approach.

105
Q

What has enabled global financial transactions?

A

Developments in communications technology.

106
Q

What is the financial influence concerned with?

A

The market in which to acquire finance, not how much money a business has.

107
Q

What are the three markets identified that influence businesses?

A
  • Financial/Capital Markets
  • Labour Market
  • Consumer Market
108
Q

How do changes in financial/capital markets influence businesses?

A

They affect the availability and cost of finance.

109
Q

How do changes in labour markets influence businesses?

A

They affect the availability and cost of workers.

110
Q

How do changes in consumer markets influence businesses?

A

They affect demand for products and services.

111
Q

What is competition between firms aimed at?

A

Being the market leader or winning customer loyalty.

112
Q

What benefits does competition provide to consumers?

A
  • More choices
  • A range of qualities
  • A variety of prices
113
Q

What is a sustainable competitive advantage?

A

An advantage that allows a business to outperform its competitors consistently.

114
Q

What does the number of competitors refer to?

A

The size and number of firms that exist within an industry (market concentration).

115
Q

What are the four main types of market concentration?

A
  • Perfect competition
  • Monopolistic competition
  • Oligopoly
  • Monopoly
116
Q

What does ‘ease of entry’ mean?

A

The difficulty or simplicity with which new competitors can enter a market.

117
Q

Which types of market concentration are easiest to enter?

A

Perfect competition.

118
Q

Which types of market concentration are most difficult to enter?

119
Q

What are local competitors?

A

Businesses that operate in the same geographic area.

120
Q

What are foreign competitors?

A

Businesses that operate in different countries but compete in the same market.

121
Q

What type of advertising may provide greater market exposure?

A

Television advertising.

122
Q

What influences the type and extent of marketing for a business?

A
  • Size of the market
  • Size of the business
  • Number of competitors
  • Nature of the product
123
Q

What are internal influences on a business?

A

Factors within the business that affect its operations and decisions.

124
Q

What type of product influences affect a business?

A

The type of goods and services produced.

125
Q

What are the four types of resources in a business?

A
  • Human Resources
  • Information Resources
  • Physical Resources
  • Financial Resources
126
Q

Why is proper resource management important for a business?

A

It ensures resources are used efficiently and effectively.

127
Q

What are the two types of management structures?

A
  • Traditional Pyramid Approach
  • New, Flatter Approach
128
Q

What is business culture?

A

The shared values, beliefs, and practices within a business.

129
Q

What are the four elements of business culture?

A
  • Values
  • Symbols
  • Rituals, Rites, Celebrations
  • Heroes
130
Q

How can business culture be shown formally?

A

Through official policies and procedures.

131
Q

How can business culture be shown informally?

A

Through everyday interactions and behaviors.

132
Q

What are the four elements of business culture?

A
  • Values
  • Symbols
  • Rituals, Rites, Celebrations
  • Heroes

Each element contributes to the overall culture within an organization.

133
Q

How can organisational structure influence business culture?

A

Organisational structure can dictate communication patterns, decision-making processes, and employee engagement, thereby shaping the business culture.

A strong structure can promote a positive culture, while a poor one can lead to misunderstandings and low morale.

134
Q

What is the business culture like at Google?

A

Google’s business culture is known for its innovation, openness, and employee empowerment.

The company encourages creativity and collaboration among its employees.

135
Q

What effect would a good business culture have on employees and their performance?

A

A good business culture can lead to higher employee satisfaction, increased productivity, and lower turnover rates.

Employees are more likely to feel valued and engaged in a positive culture.

136
Q

True or False: A poor teacher/class can negatively impact student productivity.

A

True

Poor classroom culture often results in disengaged and unproductive students.

137
Q

What is a stakeholder?

A

A stakeholder is any individual or group that has an interest in the success or performance of a business.

This includes employees, customers, shareholders, and the community.

138
Q

List the primary stakeholders in businesses.

A
  • Shareholders
  • Managers
  • Employees
  • Consumers
  • Society
  • The Environment

Each stakeholder group has unique interests and responsibilities towards the business.

139
Q

What are two main responsibilities a business has towards its employees?

A
  • Providing fair compensation
  • Ensuring a safe work environment

Responsibilities can vary depending on the stakeholder group.

140
Q

What is the business life cycle?

A

The business life cycle refers to the stages a business goes through from establishment to decline.

Stages include establishment, growth, maturity, and post-maturity.

141
Q

What are the stages of the Business Life Cycle?

A
  • Establishment
  • Growth
  • Maturity
  • Post-Maturity

Each stage presents unique challenges and characteristics.

142
Q

What is the difference between a merger and an acquisition?

A
  • Merger: Two companies combine to form a new entity
  • Acquisition: One company purchases another company

Mergers often involve mutual agreement, while acquisitions may be hostile.

143
Q

What is vertical integration?

A

Vertical integration is a business strategy where a company acquires control over its suppliers or distributors.

This can lead to greater efficiency and reduced costs.

144
Q

Fill in the blank: The final stage of the business life cycle is called _______.

A

Post-Maturity

In this stage, businesses face challenges such as decline or renewal.

145
Q

What are the three possible outcomes a business can face in the post-maturity stage?

A
  • Steady State
  • Decline
  • Renewal

Each outcome requires different strategies to manage.

146
Q

What can contribute to business decline?

A
  • Lack of Management Expertise
  • Lack of Sufficient Money

These factors can severely impact a business’s ability to operate effectively.

147
Q

What is the definition of cessation?

A

Cessation is the process of a business stopping its operations.

It can be voluntary or involuntary.

148
Q

What is voluntary cessation?

A

Voluntary cessation occurs when the owners of a business decide to close it down on their own terms.

This can happen for various reasons, including retirement or pursuing other opportunities.

149
Q

What is involuntary cessation?

A

Involuntary cessation happens when a business is forced to close, often due to bankruptcy or legal issues.

This type of cessation is typically not within the control of the business owners.

150
Q

What is ‘receivership’?

A

Receivership is a legal process where a receiver is appointed to manage a company’s assets due to insolvency.

It is different from liquidation, as the goal may be to restructure rather than dissolve the company.

151
Q

What are the main features of liquidation?

A
  • Equivalent to bankruptcy for a corporation
  • Results in the company’s end
  • Occurs due to inability to pay debts

Liquidation can be initiated voluntarily or through court orders.

152
Q

How do liquidation problems affect stakeholders?

A
  • Company Directors
  • Creditors
  • Employees
  • Shareholders
  • Society/Economy

Liquidation impacts various stakeholders, leading to financial and emotional consequences.

153
Q

What is the definition of a creditor?

A

A creditor is an individual or institution to whom money is owed.

Creditors can include banks, suppliers, and other businesses.

154
Q

What is the average number of people personally affected by one company insolvency?

A

30 to 40 people

155
Q

List the groups that are affected by company insolvency.

A
  • Company Directors
  • Creditors
  • Employees
  • Shareholders
  • Society/Economy
156
Q

What is a business?

A

The organised effort of individuals to produce and sell, for a profit, goods and services

157
Q

Who is referred to as an entrepreneur?

A

The person who risks his or her time, energy, and money to start a business

158
Q

Give an example of a secondary industry.

A

Plastics Manufacturing Ltd

159
Q

What is the most common type of business entity in Australia?

A

Sole trader

160
Q

National Foods Limited would most likely be categorized as a:

A

Public company

161
Q

In which phase does complacency among management normally occur?

A

Maturity phase

162
Q

What does a business’s operating environment refer to?

A

The specific external stakeholders with whom the business conducts its business

163
Q

Why are businesses important to the Australian economy?

A
  • Provide goods and services to satisfy consumers’ wants
  • Provide employment for millions of people
  • Contribute to Australia’s Gross Domestic Product
164
Q

Which legislation is designed to protect the interests of both consumers and businesses?

A

The Trade Practices Act

165
Q

What does social and ethical responsibility of a business refer to?

A

A business’s responsibility to both its internal and external stakeholders

166
Q

What is the main function of business?

A

To produce and sell goods and services for a profit

167
Q

Define the term ‘entrepreneur’.

A

A person who risks time, energy, and money to start a business

168
Q

Identify two quantitative measures used to determine the size of a business.

A
  • Revenue
  • Number of employees
169
Q

Distinguish between a small and a large business.

A

A small business typically has fewer employees and lower revenue than a large business

170
Q

What are two advantages of a sole trader?

A
  • Full control
  • Simplicity in setup
171
Q

What are two disadvantages of a partnership?

A
  • Shared profits
  • Potential for disputes
172
Q

Define the term ‘business environment’.

A

The combination of internal and external factors that influence a business

173
Q

Identify four external influences that can affect a business.

A
  • Economic conditions
  • Competition
  • Regulations
  • Technology
174
Q

What is the term for the main problems that arise for stakeholders when companies go into liquidation?

A

Loss of investments and jobs

175
Q

Define the term ‘profit’.

A

The financial gain after all expenses have been subtracted from revenue

176
Q

Explain the relationship between sales revenue and profit.

A

Profit is derived from sales revenue after deducting costs

177
Q

What are the four main stages of the business life cycle?

A
  • Establishment
  • Growth
  • Maturity
  • Renewal/Decline
178
Q

What is undercapitalisation?

A

A situation where a business does not have enough capital to sustain its operations

179
Q

What is the difference between voluntary administration and liquidation?

A

Voluntary administration is a process to help a company restructure its debts, while liquidation is the process of winding up the company and selling its assets

180
Q

Assess the impact of technological influences on retail businesses.

A

Technological influences can enhance efficiency, improve customer experience, and expand market reach