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NATOPS Closed Flashcards

1
Q 
77. With a 100 percent fuel load, do not takeoff between \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ pounds (at 6.8 pounds per gallon) fuel quantity remaining. The aft CG limit could be exceeded when the aircraft enters climb mode.
 A. 8899, 11,560
 B. 11,560, 13,090
 C. 2500, 9000
 D. 8799, 13,900
A

B. 11,560, 13,090

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2
Q 
99. What button commands immediate brake application?
 A. The "A" command
 B. 12
 C. Brakes
 D. Override
A

D. Override

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3
Q 
67. Nose wheel steering starts at 60 knots navigation system groundspeed as ruddervators start to lose effectiveness slower than about \_\_\_\_ KCAS.
 A. 60
 B. 80
 C. 90
 D. 100
A

B. 80

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4
Q 
64. CAUTION: Select 12 feet per second squared only when required for a(n) \_\_\_\_ condition and notify maintenance to complete main landing gear inspection.
 A. Short runway
 B. Tailwind
 C. Wet runway
 D. Emergency
A

D. Emergency

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5
Q 
70. The term "Land as Soon as Possible" means an emergency shall be declared. A landing should be accomplished at the nearest adequate \_\_\_\_, considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, gross weight, and command guidance.
 A. Allied or Coalition airfield
 B. Mission Planned airfield
 C. Hard-surfaced runway
 D. U.S. controlled airfield
A

B. Mission Planned airfield

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6
Q 
65. Note: Between 3 and 7 minutes after each even hour UTC, if OmniSTAR is unavailable for landing the navigation quality might decrease below \_\_\_\_.
 A. 18
 B. 17
 C. 15
 D. 5
A

A. 18

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7
Q 
41. CAUTION: During a contingency 3, using CGS commands to modify the aircraft route of flight is \_\_\_\_.
 A. Usually necessary
 B. Prohibited
 C. Not recommended
 D. Encouraged
A

C. Not recommended

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8
Q
  1. WARNING: During a contingency 3, if an approach waypoint inside the ____ is selected as a go to waypoint, IMMC altitude management is not guaranteed to ensure recovery. If the engine is operating, the IMMC does not complete engine shutdown and the aircraft could remain well above the contingency 3 glideslope. The aircraft might not stop on the prepared surface or could land beyond the runway.
    A. IAF
    B. FAF
    C. TD
    D. Statement is false. Engine always shuts down prior to landing
A

A. IAF

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9
Q 
75. Ground station equipment failures could cause an apparent loss of communication with the aircraft. If aircraft command and control is lost without contigency 1 indications, how can a CGS force a contingency 1 timer?
 A. Cancel the mission plan
 B. Turn off the GCI
 C. Change Mode 3 code to 7600
 D. Turn off the CAMA
A

B. Turn off the GCI

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10
Q 
51. Note: When using INMARSAT, configure \_\_\_\_ on LCP2.
 A. UHF SATCOM
 B. UHF LOS
 C. Ku-Band SATCOM
 D. CDL
A

A. UHF SATCOM

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11
Q 
63. When descending into hot and humid conditions (landing site dew point above \_\_\_\_ *F), open bleed air Shutoff Valve (SV8) to extend fuel heating to warm the avionics compartments. Adding heat to the compartments helps prevent excessive condensation in the compartments after landing.
 A. 75
 B. 80
 C. 85
 D. 90
A

A. 75

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12
Q
  1. What should the in-control data link setup for takeoff be?
    A. A primary link from each available ground station
    B. All available links
    C. One wideband link
    D. Two or three limks
A

A. A primary link from each available ground station

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13
Q 
90. Normally \_\_\_\_ mode provides the most stable flight conditions.
 A. Climb
 B. Cruise
 C. Descent
 D. Glideslope
A

A. Climb

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14
Q 
30. What happens if the ground safety pin is removed after engine start before the IMMC is ready?
 A. Aircraft shuts down
 B. Ready label appears
 C. VTC errors appear
 D. Nothing
A

A. Aircraft shuts down

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15
Q
  1. WARNING: Ensure all personnel are clear of the aircraft before the ground safety pin is removed. Inadvertent operation could cause the aircraft to do what?
    A. Aircraft to start taxi
    B. Aircraft to start the flight termination test
    C. Either A or B
    D. Wideband link radiation
A

C. Either A or B

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16
Q 
29. If an aircraft system fault is set before a data link is first established or when a data link is reestablished after a contingency 1, will the subsystem status panel system button update to show the fault level?
 A. Yes
 B. No
 C. Only for a red fault
 D. Only if within 5 minutes
A

A. Yes

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17
Q 
86. Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing is \_\_\_\_ knots.
 A. 10
 B. 15
 C. 25
 D. 30
A

B. 15

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18
Q 
15. CAUTION: When the landing gear is extended with the total air temperature colder than \_\_\_\_ *F, the landing gear is cold soaked and the nitrogen in the strut can escape.
 A. -68
 B. -40
 C. -50
 D. -65
A

D. -65 *F

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19
Q 
92. WARNING: Do not continue a landing below \_\_\_\_ feet AGL in moderate to severe turbulence. Moderate to severe turbulence could result in exceeding aircraft landing limitations.
 A. 4000
 B. 2000
 C. 500
 D. 200
A

D. 200

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20
Q
  1. The hydraulic system provides insufficient pressure to simultaneously do what?
    A. Apply brakes and extend the landing gear
    B. Extend the landing gear and power the AC generator motor
    C. Power the AC generator and operate the ISS
    D. Power the AC generator descending through FL600
A

B. Extend the landing gear and power the AC generator motor

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21
Q 
59. Note: For takeoff, both KN4072 navigation systems navigation quality must be \_\_\_\_ and both LN100 navigation systems navigation quality must be at least \_\_\_\_.
 A. 17, 17
 B. 18, 18
 C. 18, 16
 D. 18, 17
A

C. 18, 16

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22
Q 
7. The wing tank fuel is coldest 6 to 12 hours after takeoff or when the fuel quantity remaining is about \_\_\_\_.
 A. 11,560 to 13,090 pounds
 B. 10,000 to 7500 pounds
 C. Less than 8799 pounds
 D. 9000 to 2500 pounds
A

B. 10000 to 7500 pounds

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23
Q
  1. What does the IMMC do if, during a contingency 3, CGS commands are used to modify the aircraft route of flight and the aircraft enters a contingency 1?
    A. The IMMC maintains the last valid override commands and does not transition back to the C3 route
    B. The IMMC sets squawk to 7600 and transitions back to a contingency 3 route
    C. The IMMC transitions to a contingency 2
    D. The IMMC transitions to a contingency 1 route
A

A. The IMMC maintains the last valid override commands and does not transition back to the C3 route

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24
Q 
19. After takeoff, the landing gear retracts when passing \_\_\_\_ feet navigation system altitude AGL.
 A. 2000
 B. 2500
 C. 4000
 D. 4500
A

C. 4000 feet

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25
Q 
80. Maximum continuous Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT) is \_\_\_\_ *F.
 A. 1630
 B. 1077
 C. 1639
 D. 1739
A

C. 1639

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26
Q 
54. If taxi is delayed and the ground crew must approach the aircraft, complete the \_\_\_\_ Checklist.
 A. Stop Taxi
 B. Operational Stop
 C. Common Ground Station Setup
 D. Hold Taxi
A

B. Operational Stop

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27
Q 
39. During ground operations, the contingency 1 timer is \_\_\_\_ seconds. During flight the contingency 1 timer default is \_\_\_\_ seconds and can be changed by the CGS. The contingency 2 timer is \_\_\_\_ minutes.
 A. 6, 30, 3
 B. 30, 60, 3
 C. 6, 60, 2
 D. 10, 30, 2
A

A. 6, 30, 3

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28
Q
  1. (T/F) Note: A data link not set as in control will not be available to establish an in-control link during a contingency 1.
A

False

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29
Q 
98. The brake controller can set different braking rates commanded through the IMMC. The rates are set automatically by the IMMC or commanded from the CGS flight control display at \_\_\_\_ feet per second squared.
 A. 4, 8, or 12
 B. 4 or 8
 C. 4, 8, or 14
 D. 0, 4, or 8
A

A. 4, 8, or 12

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30
Q 
46. The \_\_\_\_ button border indicates the command was transmitted to the aircraft or is in the transmission process. The button border remains this color until the aircraft acknowledges receipt of the command in the CGS.
 A. Gold
 B. Gray
 C. Beige
 D. Purple
A

A. Gold

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31
Q 
60. CAUTION: Above \_\_\_\_ feet when the ISS AC power is on, turn off ISS AC power and ensure yellow caution SAR08 appears to indicate ISS shutdown is complete before starting a descent. If ISS AC electrical power is on when the PLA is reduced to flight idle, engine surge margin is reduced and engine flameout is possible.
 A. 70,000
 B. 65,000
 C. 57,000
 D. 60,000
A

D. 60,000

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32
Q 
58. What does maintenance need to inspect if a stop taxi is required during a turn?
 A. All landing gear
 B. Brakes
 C. Tires
 D. Nose landing gear
A

D. Nose landing gear

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33
Q 
45. The Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) provides minimum electrical power for LRE operations if primary electrical power fails. If primary power is interrupted, the UPS can provide up to \_\_\_\_ minutes of alternate power to continue limited operations.
 A. 60
 B. 30
 C. 15
 D. 5
A

C. 15 minutes

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34
Q 
95. A go to command to a Contingency 3 or Contingency 4A waypoint with altitude locked more than \_\_\_\_ feet above the IAF waypoint mission planned altitude can result in loss of aircraft. If a go to command with altitude unlocked is not used to return the aircraft to autonomous navigation prior to the \_\_\_\_ waypoint, the aircraft descends to the FAF waypoint mission planned altitude, holds the altitude, and continues on the last commanded course.
 A. 2000, FAF
 B. 1000, IAF
 C. 2000, IAF
 D. 1000, FAF
A

A. 2000, FAF

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35
Q
  1. How will you know if the IFF mode 4 fails to reply to an interrogation?
    A. The mode 4 reply caution appears on the ATC window in the CGS
    B. There is no way to tell
    C. A yellow IFF10 lfault appears
    D. ATC will inform you
A

A. The mode 4 reply caution appears on the ATC window in the CGS

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36
Q
  1. (T/F) The IMMCs send power control commands through the associated PDC to provide power on or off control to aircraft electrical equipment.
A

True

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37
Q 
87. Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is \_\_\_\_ knots.
 A. 10
 B. 15
 C. 25
 D. 30
A

C. 25

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38
Q 
55. Check aircraft gross weight is not between \_\_\_\_ for takeoff.
 A. 24,800 and 23,500
 B. 13,090 and 11,560
 C. 22,500 and 20,800
 D. None of the above
A

A. 24,800 and 23,500

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39
Q 
21. If the ice detector senses ice, the text ICE appears in red right of the air temperature indication on the flight monitor and rescinds \_\_\_\_ after the last ice detection.
 A. 10 seconds
 B. 1 minute
 C. 45 seconds
 D. 2 minutes
A

B. 1 minute

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40
Q
  1. (T/F) Note: If a red warning is set and the IMMC initiates stop taxi or if a red warning is set when the aircraft is stopped, the IMMC accepts subsequent CGS taxi and takeoff commands.
A

True

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41
Q 
81. The recommended minimum fuel quantity for landing is \_\_\_\_ pounds. The landing minimum fuel quantity is based on \_\_\_\_ pounds for fuel reserve (45 minutes flight time at 10,000 feet), \_\_\_\_ pounds unusable fuel, and approximately \_\_\_\_ pounds for fuel flow meter error.
 A. 1200, 450, 450, 300
 B. 1000, 450, 350, 200
 C. 800, 350, 250, 200
 D. 1000, 450, 320, 230
A

B. 1000, 450, 350, 200

42
Q
  1. How long should selection of the machine gun confirmation box Stop button be delayed?
    A. Before the first acknowledgement advisory appears in the advisory window
    B. Five seconds has elapsed
    C. Confirmation for other sources of the command has been implemented
    D. All of the above
A

C. Confirmation for other sources of the command has been implemented

43
Q 
34. At \_\_\_\_ feet AGL, the IMMC commits to a landing.
 A. 130
 B. 200
 C. 250
 D. 750
A

A. 130 feet

44
Q 
26. Between 3 and 7 minutes after each even hour UTC, the IMMC changes the DGPS source selection to \_\_\_\_ for both integrated INS.
 A. OmniSTAR
 B. SCAT-1
 C. Both Auto
 D. Both Non-DGPS
A

A. OmniSTAR

45
Q
  1. When is a taxi command rejected by the IMMC?
    A. At the last taxi waypoint before takeoff
    B. At the mission end waypoint
    C. When a flashing red warning is set
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

46
Q 
88. Do not taxi, takeoff, or land when the taxiway or runway RCR is reported less than \_\_\_\_. When the RCR is less than this, the brakes might not achieve 4 feet per second squared brake rate.
 A. 7
 B. 10
 C. 12
 D. 5
A

A. 7

47
Q
  1. WARNING: Failure of both KN4072 IMU causes loss of rate and acceleration data for flight control and could cause what?
    A. Mission abort
    B. Automatic activation of the FTS
    C. Aircraft departure from controlled flight
    D. Inaccurate position and velocity data
A

C. Aircraft departure from controlled flight

48
Q 
85. Avoid flight through and over areas of cumulus clouds with reported tops above \_\_\_\_ feet.
 A. 45,000
 B. 50,000
 C. 55,000
 D. 60,000
A

B. 50,000

49
Q
  1. (T/F) When override heading or track is selected, the wind value continues to update.
A

False

50
Q 
6. Below about \_\_\_\_ feet pressure altitude, fuel tank pressurization maintains adequate fuel pressure to the engine fuel pump for continued engine operation.
 A. 46,000
 B. 50,000
 C. 52,000
 D. 57,000
A

B. 52,000’

51
Q
  1. To prevent possible loss of control, the IMMC removes power from the first failed ruddervator actuator. When power is removed from the failed ruddervator actuator, ____.
    A. the associated actuator brake maintains the ruddervator position when the failure occurred
    B. airflow forces the failed ruddervator to a more neutral position
    C. the ruddervator moves to approximately 7 degrees trailing edge down
    D. none of the above
A

B. airflow forces the failed ruddervator to a more neutral position

52
Q 
16. CAUTION: When the landing gear is extended with the total air temperature colder than \_\_\_\_ *F, the strut seals can become rigid. If the landing gear is retracted, the nitrogen in the strut can escape.
 A. -68
 B. -40
 C. -50
 D. -65
A

C. -50*F

53
Q 
93. If icing is indicated and the advisory window text Ice Detected value is more than \_\_\_\_, climb, descend, or change the route of flight immediately to exit the icing conditions.
 A. 0.01
 B. 0.10
 C. 0.04
 D. 0.25
A

C. 0.04

54
Q 
72. What is the first and only step for an Aircraft Fire on the Ground?
 A. Fire Extinguish - Execute
 B. Vehicle Shutdown - Execute
 C. Notify ATC
 D. Emergency Fuel Shutoff - Execute
A

D. Emergency Fuel Shutoff - Execute

55
Q 
82. What is the minimum root tank fuel temperature without the low fuel freeze point set? 
 A. 0
 B. -35
 C. -40
 D. -55
A

C. -40

56
Q
  1. (T/F) The term “Land as Soon as Practical” means emergency conditions are less urgent and although the mission should be discontinued, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing at the nearest adequate airfield is recommended.
A

False

57
Q
  1. WARNING: Ensure the workstation is clear of extra equipment. Inadvertent actuation of mouse buttons or the keyboard spacebar could accidentally do what?
    A. Send commands to activate aircraft equipment
    B. Change aircraft modes
    C. Cause other aircraft actions
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

58
Q
  1. (T/F) WARNING: To prevent a possible engine flameout, do not takeoff or conduct planned go around maneuvers when the airfield temperature is colder than 5F (-15C). If an emergency requires landing at an airfield with a temperature colder than 5F (-15C), IMMC commanded go around or other unplanned go around for safe aircraft operation is permitted.
A

True

59
Q 
94. During hot weather, monitor the ECS detailed status window, \_\_\_\_. Expect yellow caution ECS15 if this is hotter than 95*F.
 A. TT1
 B. TT5
 C. TT4
 D. TT3
A

C. TT4

60
Q 
53. Note: If the navigation system quality for both KN4072A and KN4072B changes to \_\_\_\_ or the IMMC transitions to prelaunch, selecting flight termination shuts down the aircraft.
 A. 15 to 16
 B. 18 or less
 C. 0 to 15
 D. 17 or less
A

D. 17 or less

61
Q 
2. At maximum continuous thrust, the PLA is normally set to \_\_\_\_ degrees.
 A. 50
 B. 75
 C. 95
 D. 100
A

B. 75 degrees

62
Q 
13 If both the AC and DC generators fail, the three batteries provide about \_\_\_\_ minutes of power to flight critical equipment during an emergency glide.
 A. 30
 B. 45
 C. 60 
 D. 90 to 120
A

B. 45 minutes

63
Q 
1. The FADEC reduces PLA when ITT  reaches \_\_\_\_ *F.
 A. 1539
 B. 1630
 C. 1639
 D. 1739
A

B. 1630 *F

64
Q
  1. (T/F) Turning the GCI off does not interrupt all data links and will not cause the IMMC to start the C1 timer.
A

False

65
Q 
68. Note: The altitude to command a go around is impacted by data link latencies. The go around command should be executed above \_\_\_\_ feet AGL. At \_\_\_\_ feet AGL, the IMMC commits to a landing.
 A. 130, 70
 B. 500, 200
 C. 250, 150
 D. 200, 130
A

D. 200, 130

66
Q
  1. CAUTION: During a contingency 3, using CGS commands to modify the aircraft route of flight is ____.
A

Not recommended

67
Q
  1. (T/F) You can taxi over runway arresting gear but cannot takeoff or land on them.
A

False

68
Q 
57. WARNING: To ensure the aircraft stops taxi if command links are lost, wait a minimum of \_\_\_\_ seconds or until stop taxi confirmation before selecting the machine gun confirmation box button Stop. If the command link is lost, at 6 knots the aircraft could travel up to 75 feet before stopping.
 A. 5
 B. 6
 C. 3
 D. 8
A

B. 6

69
Q 
4 The total fuel quantity includes approximately \_\_\_\_ pounds of unusable fuel.
 A. 51.4 ponds
 B. 200 pounds
 C. 350 pounds
 D. 450 pounds
A

C. 350 lbs

70
Q
  1. CAUTION: An open circuit breaker in the LRE or MCE may be reset ____.
    A. Once
    B. Two times
    C. As many times as necessary for safety of flight
    D. Never
A

A. Once

71
Q 
20. CAUTION: Except when called for in emergency procedures, overriding the IMMC commanded \_\_\_\_ position is prohibited.
 A. Airspeed
 B. PLA
 C. Spoiler
 D. Inflight guidance
A

C. Spoiler

72
Q
  1. Why must the chocks be installed prior to a normal engine shutdown?
    A. The aircraft will roll backwards after shutdown
    B. To comply with the LOA
    C. The aircraft brakes are released when the engine stops
    D. All of the above
A

C. The aircraft brakes are released when the engine stops

73
Q 
11. Redundant \_\_\_\_ buses provide electrical system operation if a single bus fails. Relays isolate the failed bus to allow these redundant buses to continue operations.
 A. Flight Critical and Payload
 B. Payload AC and DC
 C. Start and Flight Critical
 D. Both B and C
A

C. Start and Flight Critical

74
Q 
27. A failed navigation system will initiate what warning?
 A. Flashing red
 B. Steady red
 C. Yellow
 D. Machine gun pop up box
A

A. Flashing red

75
Q 
36. If the aircraft is more than \_\_\_\_ feet above the IAF altitude at the IAF waypoint, the IMMC uses suspend steering at the IAF waypoint to continue descent to the IAF waypoint altitude.
 A. 1000
 B. 1500
 C. 2000
 D. 2500
A

C. 2000 feet

76
Q
  1. (T/F) Both boost pumps must be operational to support normal fuel system operation.
A

False

77
Q 
50. When a spoiler, altitude, or velocity lock is checked in the Waypoint Identifier Dialog box, the IMMC locks those commands after a go to steering command is executed. The IMMC maintains those locks unless the IMMC transitions to what?
 A. Contingency 1
 B. Contingency 3
 C. Contingency 4
 D. Any of the above
A

D. Any of the above

78
Q 
66. Note: The IMMC uses \_\_\_\_ data for decrab and flare when below 750 feet AGL.
 A. Navigation
 B. Barometric
 C. Radio Altimeter
 D. None of the above
A

C. Radio Altimeter

79
Q 
89. What is the Override rate of climb/descent from FL300 to Sea Level?
 A. 1800
 B. 1500
 C. 500
 D. 200
A

B. 1500

80
Q 
38. Contingencies are prioritized from lowest to highest. What is the priority?
 A. C4, C1, C2, C3
 B. C1, C4, C2, C3
 C. C1, C2, C4, C3
 D. C4, C2, C1, C3
A

C. C1, C2, C4, C3

81
Q 
9. During landing gear extension, high demand on the hydraulic system shuts down what equipment?
 A. AC Generator
 B. Payload AC Bus
 C. Both A and B
 D. All SATCOM links
A

C. Both A and B

82
Q 
25. For operation outside the local operation area, a navigation quality greater than \_\_\_\_ indicates a satisfactory navigation solution.
 A. 8
 B. 12
 C. 16
 D. 17
A

A. 8

83
Q
  1. With a 65 percent fuel load, do not takeoff with less than ____ pounds (at 6.8 pounds per gallon) fuel quantity remaining to prevent a possible lateral fuell imbalance during the takeoff roll.
    B. 8899
    C. 11,090
    D. 9600
A

A. 8799

84
Q
  1. All of the following are true except:
    A. Slower than 20kts grndspd, the brake rate is 4f/s^2
    B. Faster than 20kts grndspd, the brake rate is 8f/s^2
    C. The T/O abort default brake rate is 12f/s^2
    D. For a C1, the default brake rate is 12f/s^2
A

C. The T/O abort default brake rate is 12f/s^2.

85
Q 
91. How can turbulence be indicated?
 A. Rapid changes in PLA
 B. Abrupt changes in airspeed
 C. Abrupt changes in verticle velocity
 D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

86
Q 
73. If prepared surface departure is unavoidable, select and execute emergency fuel shutoff to decrease the possibility of \_\_\_\_.
 A. Fuel spillage
 B. Fire
 C. Property damage
 D. None of the above
A

B. Fire

87
Q 
18. If \_\_\_\_ feet per second squared brake rate is selected, any difference in braking between the left and right landing gear brake can cause excessive cross track error on landing.
 A. 4
 B. 8
 C. 12
 D. Override
A

C. 12

88
Q 
61. CAUTION: If descending through \_\_\_\_ feet in override steering, level off and stabilize at that altitude before continuing descent. This prevents prolonged pitch oscillations when the spoilers are commanded to 20 degrees to control the sink rate.
 A. 60,000
 B. 57,000
 C. 45,000
 D. 26,000
A

C. 45,000

89
Q 
62. CAUTION: Above \_\_\_\_ feet, a failed engine oil auxiliary scavenge pump increases the possibility of engine surge when the PLA is reduced to flight idle.
 A. 60,000
 B. 57,000
 C. 45,000
 D. 26,000
A

B. 57,000

90
Q 
74. After a takeoff with a known tire failure, select and execute gear down before passing \_\_\_\_ feet navigation system altitude AGL to disable the IMMC retraction command.
 A. 300
 B. 1000
 C. 3500
 D. 4000
A

C. 3500

91
Q 
83. The minimum Direct Current (DC) voltage for flight termination is \_\_\_\_ Volts Direct Current (VDC).
 A. 10
 B. 25
 C. 23
 D. 30
A

C. 23

92
Q 
84. Flight in known icing conditions is \_\_\_\_.
 A. Usually necessary
 B. Prohibited
 C. Not recommended
 D. Encouraged
A

B. Prohibited

93
Q 
52. Note: Executing the FTS in any guidance mode other than \_\_\_\_ causes the aircraft to shutdown.
 A. Taxi
 B. Ready
 C. Prelaunch
 D. Terminate
A

B. Ready

94
Q 
12. The \_\_\_\_ converts AC power to 28 VDC and provides 200-ampere DC power for flight critical equipment operation.
 A. TRU
 B. Inverter
 C. Battery
 D. PMA
A

A. TRU

95
Q 
96. To reduce a possible electrical surge in the sensor power distribution unit AC circuits, a \_\_\_\_ delay is required between ISS DC power off and ISS AC power on during ISS restarts.
 A. 6 minute
 B. 1 to 3 minute
 C. 2 to 10 second
 D. 30 second
A

C. 2 to 10 second

96
Q 
8. Expect potential fuel freezing if the \_\_\_\_ on the fuel system detailed status window indicates colder than -40*F or -55*F (AFDB low fuel freeze point selected).
 A. TT3
 B. TT1
 C. TT4
 D. TT5
A

C. TT4

97
Q 
37. If one IMMC has failed and the mission navigation plan in the other IMMC is corrupt, the flashing red message Msn Load 00 appears and the IMMC commands suspend steering to the right. The aircraft climbs or descends in the right suspend orbit to \_\_\_\_ feet MSL and enters altitude/airspeed hold mode.
 A. 10,000
 B. 25,000
 C. 40,000
 D. 45,000
A

D. 45,000 feet

98
Q 
35. For a suspend steering command, the groundspeed is used to calculate the inbound leg time for \_\_\_\_ minute(s) above 14,100 feet MSL or \_\_\_\_ minute(s) at or below 14,100 feet MSL.
 A. 1, 1.5
 B. 2, 1
 C. 3, 2
 D. 1.5, 1
A

D. 1.5, 1

99
Q
  1. (T/F) For an emergency shutdown, the IMMC closes the engine fuel shutoff valve (SV3) and the FADEC closes the pressure raising valve through the FPMU latching shutoff valve.
A

True

100
Q
  1. What is/are the option(s) if the aircraft has rolled beyond the first taxi waypoint after landing?
    A. Taxi to next waypoint
    B. Tow aircraft
    C. Reverse taxi to the first taxi waypoint after landing
    D. Either A or B
A

B. Tow aircraft

BAMS (6 decks)

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