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NASM Flash Cards

1
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

A general term that refersto hardening (and loss of

elasticity) of arteries.

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2
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Buildup of fatty plaques in arteries that leads to narrowing and reduced
blood flow

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3
Q

Peripheral vascular

Awesome

A

A group of diseases in which blood vessels become restricted or blocked, typically as a result of
atherosclerosis

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4
Q

Nutrition

A

The process by which a living organism assimilates food and uses it for growth and repair
of tissues.

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5
Q

macronutrients

A

protein, carbohydrate, and fat)

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6
Q

calorie

A

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1°C.

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7
Q

Calorie

A

A unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories. The amount of heat energy required to raise the
temperature of 1 kilogram or liter of water 1°C.

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8
Q

Kilocalorie

A

A unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories.
The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram or liter of
water 1°C.

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9
Q

Protein

A

Amino acids linked by peptide bonds.

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10
Q

complete protein

A

If a food supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios

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11
Q

Incomplete Protein

A

If a food source is low or lacking in one or more essential amino acids

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12
Q

limiting factor

A

Th e essential amino acid that is missing or present in the smallest amount

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13
Q

biologic value (BV)

A

BV is a measure frequently used when discussing protein sources in popular media and by supplement manufacturers. Essentially, BV is a measure of protein quality, or how well it satisfies the body’s essential amino acid needs

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14
Q

Complete protein

A

Whole egg Yogurt and granola
Milk and milk products Oatmeal with milk
Meat and poultry Lentils and bread
Fish Tortillas with beans or bean burritos
Rice and beans Macaroni and cheese
Peanut butter on whole-wheat bread Hummus (chickpeas and sesame
paste) with bread
Sunflower seeds and peanuts Bean soup with whole-grain crackers

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15
Q

Carbohydrates

A

Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

(such as sugars, starches, and celluloses), which \make up a large portion of animal foods.

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16
Q

monosaccharide

A

is a single sugar unit, many of which are connected to make starches (the storage form of carbohydrates in plants) and glycogen (the storage form
of carbohydrates in humans). Monosaccharides include glucose (commonly referred to
as blood sugar), fructose (or fruit sugar), and galactose

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17
Q

Disaccharides

A

(two sugar units) include sucrose (or common sugar), lactose (or milk sugar), and maltose.

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18
Q

Polysaccharides

A

are long chains of monosaccharide units linked together and found in foods that contain starch and fiber. These foods are oft en called complex carbohydrates and include starch found in plants, seed, and roots

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19
Q

glycemic index

A 
The rate at which ingested carbohydrate raises blood sugar and its accompanying
effect on insulin release 
High 70+
Moderate 56–69
Low -55
pg.478
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20
Q

dietary supplements

A

A substance that completes or makes an addition to

daily dietary intake.

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21
Q

Dietary reference intake

A

values for nutrients provide good guidelines for

what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient

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22
Q

Vitamin A

A

If a dietary supplement contains 100% of the Daily Value, it contains an amount of vitamin A
that is more than twice the RDA for a woman, only half of the UL and equal to the Guidance
Level.

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23
Q

Vitamin D

A

If a dietary supplement contains 100% of the Daily Value, it contains an amount of vitamin D
that is twice the AI value.

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24
Q

Iron

A

If a dietary supplement contains 100% of the Daily Value, it contains an amount of iron that is
equal to the RDA for women, more than twice the RDA for men.

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25
Zinc
If a dietary supplement contains 100% of the Daily Value, it contains an amount of zinc that is almost twice the RDA for women
26
ergogenic
literally means work generating
27
PROHORMONES
A variety of dietary supplements with hormone precursors have been used to promote building of strength and muscle mass
28
ANDROGENIC ANABOLIC STEROIDS
Androgenic anabolic steroids are drugs designed to mimic the effects of testosterone
29
Precontemplation
The best strategy with precontemplators is education. Even though personal trainers cannot make anyone form the intention to become more active, they can suggest where they might get information to do so.
30
Contemplation
Because contemplators are thinking about becoming more active, personal trainers can have a great deal of influence on what contemplators choose to do, whether or not they choose to exercise The best strategy to use with contemplators is (still) education. Contemplators need information.
31
questions to help guide you in assessing what stage a client may be in
1. What experiences with physical activity have they had in the past? 2. What worked best to help them stick to an exercise program? 3. What worked the least? What contributed to their quitting an exercise program? 4. During the last 6 months, what kept them from exercising? 5. How did they keep up their exercise program when disruptions got in the way? Lack of time? Travel? Holidays?
32
If a client is in maintenance, questions 1 through 5 will give more information to help guide a personal trainer’s work with that client.
If a personal trainer thinks a client is in the action stage, they might want to use questions 1, 2, 3, and 5; remember, in this stage clients struggle to find ways of dealing with exercise barriers. If a personal trainer thinks a client is in the preparation stage, the discussion should be around questions 1, 2, and 3. Beyond the questions, suggest the client set realistic expectations and help him or her fi nd social support. If a personal trainer thinks a client is in the contemplation stage, then the job is to help him or her get ready for exercise. Questions 1, 2, 3, and 5 will help guide clients in that direction. If a personal trainer believes a client is in the precontemplation stage, questions 1, 2, 3, and 5 may provide some useful information, but be prepared to ask other questions. For example, what keeps them from becoming active, or do they know that moderate-intensity exercise can be comfortable and still provide health benefi ts (
33
Instrumental support
is the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals. Some examples include transportation to a fitness facility, a babysitter, or a spotter for weight lifting at the gym. Components of instrumental support that are unsupported actually turn into barriers
34
Specific
A specific goal is one that is clearly defined in such a way that anyone could understand what the intended outcome is. Goals should contain a detailed description of what is to be accomplished; when a client wants to accomplish it by; and the action(s) that will be taken to accomplish it
35
Measurable
Goals need to be quantifi able. Establish a way to assess the progress toward each goal. If a goal cannot be measured, a client cannot manage it. For example, “I want to look better” is not measurable, but “to reduce body fat by 5% in 12 weeks” is measurable
36
Attainable
Attainable goals are the right mix of goals that are challenging, but not extreme. Goals that are too easily accomplished do not stretch a client or make him or her grow as a person because they are not challenging enough.
37
Realistic
To be realistic, a goal must represent an objective toward which an individual is both willing and able to work. A goal is probably realistic if the individual truly believes that it can be accomplished. Additional ways to know whether a goal is realistic is to determine whether a client has accomplished anything similar in the past or to ask what conditions would have to exist to accomplish this goal.
38
Timely
A goal should always have a specifi c date of completion. Th e date should be realistic, but not too distant in the future. For example, set goals that can be achieved tomorrow and in 3 months.
39
Exercise imagery
The process created to produce internalized experiences to supportor enhance exercise participation.
40
A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein?
30%
41
Which term represents the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work synergistically?
Neuromuscular efficiency
42
Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
43
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
44
What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group?
Tolerable Upper Intake Level
45
Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?
Hydrostatic weighing
46
Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
47
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Pushing test
48
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Bicycles
49
What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart?
They decrease the heart rate
50
During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?
Ball cobra
51
What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment?
Shark skill test
52
A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?
Vertical loading
53
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Balance-strength
54
In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, from which of the following is muscular endurance and stabilization best developed?
Slow repetition tempo
55
Which of the following represents how much effort a client puts into performing an exercise?
Intensity
56
When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Alternating arm
57
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
Psoas
58
For a pregnant client in her third trimester, which of the following exercises is appropriate?
Ball squat
59
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Leg-stabilization exercise
60
What is the proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception?
Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable
61
An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual?
Action
62
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
"What are your top three fitness goals?"
63
When performing CPR, how should the compressions be administered?
Firm and deep
64
How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?
4 years
65
Which of the following is a cognitive strategy to help change a client's thoughts and attitudes toward exercise?
Imagery
66
Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?
Loss of water
67
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
quickness
68
Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?
Medical physician
69
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base
12 to 13
70
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?
A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
71
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
3 to 5 repetition
72
What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?
Check the scene for hazards.
73
A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression?
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
74
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?
Knee over second toe Correct
75
In which of the following situations should a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?
When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.

NASM Exam Question (1 decks)

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