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NASM CPT 7 Practice Q&A > NASM CPT 7 Practice Q&A > Flashcards

NASM CPT 7 Practice Q&A Flashcards

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1
Q

Within the muscle, which type of mechanoreceptors are sensitive to change in length?

A

Muscle Spindles

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2
Q

Which is the accurate list of the four sites at which skinfold measurements are taken?

A

Biceps, Triceps, Subscapular, illiac crest

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3
Q

What’s the definition for length tension relationship

A

Length tension relationships: The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can
produce at this resting length. There is an optimal muscle length that results in the potential
for maximal force production.

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4
Q

Describe and write down all three of the connective tissue layers within a muscle.

A

Epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

  1. Epimysium: The outermost layer surrounds the entire muscle.
  2. Perimysium: Surrounds groups of muscle fibers called fascicles.
  3. Endomysium: The deepest innermost layer; separates individual muscle fibers.
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5
Q

What are the three different parts of a neuron? List and discuss all three parts.

A

The cell body, axon, and dendrites

The cell body (soma): Contains a nucleus and other organelles, including lysosomes,
mitochondria, and a Golgi complex.

The axon: The cylindrical projection that is responsible for transmitting nervous
impulses to other neurons and effector sites such as organs and muscles. It’s the
communication provider for the brain and spinal cord to the body.

Dendrites: Dendrites gather information from structures and transmit it into the neuron.

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6
Q

Write down the three types of blood vessels that travel through the systemic circuit and the
order that the blood travels through.

A
  1. Arteries: Vessels that transport blood away from the heart.
  2. Veins: The vessels that transport the un-oxygenated blood from the capillaries to the
    heart.
  3. Capillaries: The smallest blood vessels. This is where the oxygen exchange occurs
    between blood and tissues.

Additionally, the arteries and veins branch into the following, respectively:

  • Arterioles: Small terminal artery branches.
  • Venules: Very small veins that connect the capillaries to the larger veins.
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7
Q

What are the different types of bones, and how are they characterized?

A

Long Bones - Long, cylindrical shafts and widened or irregular ends

Short Bones - Similar in width and length and appear to be cubical in their shape

Flat Bones - These are thin and protective

Irregular Bones - Uniquely shaped and their function is unique

Sesamoid Bones - Small, often rounded bones in joint capsules in locations where tendons pass over joints

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8
Q

Personal trainers have how long to make a great first impression?

A

20 seconds

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9
Q

What is a pull promotion?

A

A promotion that pulls a potential client toward a purchase by making them aware of the service.

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10
Q

As the load for an exercise increases, what happens to the rest between sets?

A

It increases

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11
Q

Which of the following might occur with an improperly functioning lateral subsystem?

A

Knee valgus during overhead squat

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12
Q

All of the following are barriers to establishing rapport except:

A

Asking probing questions

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13
Q

Which of the following is a cause of muscle imbalance?

A

Emotional stress

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14
Q

What is the typical window of time when delayed-onset muscle soreness occurs?

A

24 to 72 hours after intense exercise

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15
Q

What is the fat percentage recommended for female athletes?

A

12 - 22 %

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16
Q

How is active flexibility used in the OPT Model?

A

Active flexibility used in Phases 2, 3, 4 to improve soft tissue extensibility and neuromuscular efficiency

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17
Q

What should be included in a personal trainers resume?

A

Recent work experience and/or education

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18
Q

What type of goal should initial goal-setting sessions be focused on developing?

A

Long term goals

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19
Q

Which of the following best describes agility?

A

Short bursts of movement that involve a change of direction, speed or cadence.

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20
Q

After exercising for 90 mins what fuel are you likely to run out of?

A

Glycogen

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21
Q

Which of the following is the body’s most useable form of energy?

A

ATP

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22
Q

How core exercises should be included in each phase 3 training session?

A

0-4

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23
Q

For adolescents in a resistance training program, how many reps per set should be completed?

A

8-12

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24
Q

Which is the best SAQ drill for weight loss clients?

A

Circuits

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25
Q

What supplement is a potential effect of excessive intake of magnesium?

A

Nerve damage

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26
Q

What is the difference between process goals and product goals?

A

Process goal can be predictively achieved, and product goals may or may not be achieved.

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27
Q

What training system is good to use with clients with cardiovascular disease?

A

Peripheral heart action

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28
Q

why should training sessions be limited to 60 - 90 mins?

A

Longer training sessions increase risk of upper respiratory infections

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29
Q

Which of the following movements is not advised while performing a seated lat pull down?

A

Performing lat pull down behind the neck

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30
Q

Which training adaptation can be expected with high volume training?

A

Increased metabolic rate

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31
Q

Pregnant women should be training in what cardio stage?

A

Stage 1

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32
Q

What is the first step in the ten step plan to become a financially successful trainer?

A

Determine the desired annual income

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33
Q

Torque can best be described as:

A

A force that generate rotation

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34
Q

What is the minimum amount of time when doing SMR on a tender spot?

A

30 seconds

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35
Q

What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?

A

They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement

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36
Q

Association is best described as:

A

When the focus is on internal body feedback

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37
Q

What type of fatty acids are omega-3’s

A

Polyunsaturated fatty acids

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38
Q

Which type of exercise does caffeine supplementation not seem to have an ergogenic effect on?

A

Sprint type efforts lasting 90 seconds or less

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39
Q

For effective weight loss, how many calories should an obese client expend per session?

A

200 - 300 calories

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40
Q

Which of the following is an aspect of training at a local gym?

A

the trainer is expected to sell training services to existing gym members

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41
Q

Which of the following mechanism of action occurs when one is performing self-myofascial release (SMR)?

A

Autogenic inhibition

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42
Q

What is the principle of specificity?

A

The body will adapt to the level of stress placed on it, and then will require more/varied stress to increase adaptation

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43
Q

The two hormones responsible for the “fight or flight” response are:

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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44
Q

How are active-isolated stretches used in the OPT model?

A

They can be part of a warm up if no postural distortion patterns are present

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45
Q

What best describes an isometric muscle action?

A

Constant muscle length

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46
Q

Trunk rotation is the force-coupling of which two muscles?

A

Internal and external obliques

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47
Q

Which statement is included in the NASM Code of Professional Conduct?

A

Use appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions

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48
Q

What is the recommended way for a client to self-monitor?

A

Keeping a daily written record

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49
Q

What is flexibility?

A

The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion

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50
Q

An intrinsic approach to exercise is one that:

A

Emphasizes the enjoyment value of exercise, making it about more than just a means to goal accomplishment

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51
Q

How do the waist-to-hip ratio and BMI measurements compare when calculating a clients risk of disease?

A

Both waist-to-hip ratio and BMI are helpful indicators of chronic disease risk, but waist-to-hip ratio is a more reliable assessment

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52
Q

What percentage of the population actually engages in the recommended 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity on most days?

A

Less than 25%

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53
Q

How long does the YMCA step test last?

A

3 minutes

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54
Q

For older adults, what is the recommended intensity for resistance training?

A

40% - 80% of 1 RM

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55
Q

What are the three phases of plyometric training?

A

Loading, Transition, Power

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56
Q

For older adults, What is the recommended frequency for resistance training?

A

3 - 5 days for week

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57
Q

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates is known as a:

A

Motor unit

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58
Q

High velocity adaptations are best achieved at what percentage of an individual’s 1 RM?

A

30 % - 45% of 1 RM

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59
Q

Which of the following is an example of cardiorespiratory training for Stage 2 clients?

A

5 minute warm-up, 1 minute Zone 2, 1 minute Zone 3, 1 minute Zone 2, 1 minute Zone 3, 5-10 minutes cool down.

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60
Q

What types of SAQ exercises should be used in Phase 4?

A

6-8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia with limited unpredictability

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61
Q

How many calories are in a pound of body fat?

A

About 3,500

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62
Q

Weight bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?

A

Remodeling

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63
Q

How should the amortization phase of the stretch shortening cycle be described?

A

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

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64
Q

What is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize protein synthesis?

A

1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

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65
Q

What is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?

A

Free hydrogen ions

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66
Q

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

A

Inspiration with decrease in intrathoracic pressure

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67
Q

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary process of the body?

A

Autonomic nervous system

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the intervertebral disc?

A

They act as shock absorbers

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69
Q

Which best describes imagery in exercise?

A

Process of creating an internalized landscape that supports exercise participation

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70
Q

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

A

Capacity of the neuromuscular system to engage proper muscles in order to produce and reduce force and stabilize the body.

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71
Q

What kind of resistance exercise is in Phase 5?

A

85% - 100% intensity superset with 30% - 40% 1RM (power)

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72
Q

Which fatty acid has longest shelf life?

A

Trans fatty acids

73
Q

Which altered joint mechanic is present when a person demonstrates knock knees during an overhead squat?

A

Increase hip external rotation

74
Q

What is correct formula for calculating fat mass?

A

Body fat percentage times scale weight

75
Q

The Davies test assesses?

A

Upper extremity agility and stabilization

76
Q

Circuit training is best described as?

A

A serious of exercises with minimal rest

77
Q

What muscle paring is seen in a force-coupling relationship?

A

synergist pairing

78
Q

How many times should balance training be performed by a person in Phase 1?

A

1 to 4

79
Q

Inside the muscle, where does the exchanging of carbon dioxide and oxygen occur?

A

within the capillaries

80
Q

How many seconds of rest should we take in order to restore our ATP and phosphocreatine to at least 85%

A

60 seconds

81
Q

Which of the following muscles is overactive when someone demonstrates an excessive forward lean?

A

Gastrocnemius

82
Q

What is classified as an older adult?

A

Age 65

83
Q

What is an appropriate SAQ assessment or drill for youth?

A

Red light, Green light

84
Q

What phases of cardiac rehabilitation are typically safe for a CPT to train someone?

A

Phases 3 and 4

85
Q

Which body comp assessment estimates the amount of subcutaneous fat below the skin?

A

Skinfold measurement

86
Q

What is unique regarding size and the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Thoracic vertebrae increase in size from the top down

87
Q

What relationship is had with intensity and volume in a training program?

A

An inverse relationship

88
Q

Physical activity makes up how much of a persons energy expenditure?

A

about 20%

89
Q

Which SAQ drill is best for weight loss clients?

A

Circuits

90
Q

Which waist-to-hip ratio can be considered an indicator of increased risk of for disease?

A

.81

91
Q

What is the recommended frequency of exercise for older adults?

A

3 - 5 days per week of moderate intensity

92
Q

What are the two kind of fitness goals?

A

Process and Product

93
Q

Where is the Gastrocnemius in relation to the soleus, anatomically?

A

Superior

94
Q

What best describes the sliding filament theory?

A

Thick and Thin filaments within the sarcomere slide past one another

95
Q

During a vertical loading session, How long should the rest period be between each exercise?

A

Little to no rest.

96
Q

What should be the focus in core strength exercises?

A

Dynamic movements of the spine through full range of motion.

97
Q

Which movement compensation might occur during an overhead squat assessment?

A

Excessive forward lean.

98
Q

Which of the following subsystems creates a stabilizing X across the thoracolumbar fascia?

A

Posterior Oblique Subsystem.

99
Q

The rotator cuff is comprised of all the following muscles except:

A

The Teres Major

100
Q

Which of the following is not a potential effect of excess calcium intake?

A

Liver Damage

101
Q

In regard to anatomical position, where is the Gastrocnemius in relation to the soleus?

A

Superior

102
Q

Within the muscle, which type of mechanoreceptors are sensitive to change in length?

A

Muscle Spindles

103
Q

Which of the following is an example of emotional support?

A

Praising a client for showing up and working hard.

104
Q

Which of the following is a common form mistake during a push-up?

A

Stomach falling towards the ground.

105
Q

Which of the following best describes vertical loading?

A

Alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity

106
Q

In regard to exercise intensity, what should a fitness professional pay close attention to when working with new clients?

A

Whether the level of intensity is appropriate for the client’s physical and emotional state

107
Q

Which range of repetitions is ideal for power adaptations?

A

1 to 10 reps

108
Q

What is the Karvonen method?

A

The heart rate reserve (HRR) method

109
Q

In what stage of change is a client who is asking questions about training but has not begun exercising?

A

Contemplation

110
Q

After the initial contact, what is the appropriate amount of time to wait before calling to follow up with a member?

A

1 week

111
Q

During a stretch, which of the following is happening to sarcomeres within the muscle?

A

The sarcomeres lengthen

112
Q

How long will a client typically train in Phase 3 of the OPT model?

A

4 weeks

113
Q

Why are body weight exercises so supportive of kinesthetic awareness?

A

They require greater motor unit activation and synchronization

114
Q

How is an action plan developed?

A

Establish the nature of the goal and the target date, resources, and daily tasks required to reach the goal

115
Q

Which of the following foods is highest on the glycemic index (GI)?

A

Rice cakes

116
Q

When referring to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, all of the following phases make up the strength component except:

A

Power

117
Q

Overactivity and tightness in a muscle tend to have what type of relationship?

A

A direct relationship

118
Q

If a client is in Zone 2 during a cardiorespiratory workout, what RPE equivalent should they be at?

A

14-16

119
Q

What type of muscle pairing is seen in a force-couple relationship?

A

Synergist pairing

120
Q

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate for an obese individual?

A

Rockport walk test

121
Q

How might a trainer identify a client who has social physique anxiety?

A

The client wears baggy clothing

122
Q

How much of an individual’s total energy expenditure is a result of the thermic effect of food (TEF)?

A

6-10% of TEE

123
Q

All of the following are common self-myofascial release (SMR) mistakes except:

A

Holding static pressure on the tender spot

124
Q

The PAR-Q is an example of what kind of assessment?

A

Subjective

125
Q

Which of the following is a potentially contraindicated exercise for someone with hypertension?

A

Floor bridge

126
Q

What is the purpose of corrective flexibility?

A

It improves muscle imbalance, range of motion, and altered joint motion

127
Q

In which situation does a personal trainer have a percentage of their session fees taken?

A

When working as an independent contractor for a commercial fitness club

128
Q

Most fitness centers are designed for people in which stages of the Stages of Change model?

A

Action and maintenance

129
Q

During a push-up assessment, how low should an individual lower their body?

A

Until their body touches a partner’s closed fist placed under their chest

130
Q

If a client rests for three minutes between sets, how fully recovered should they be?

A

100%

131
Q

How does the body use the central nervous system to create movement?

A

Through integrative function, which is its capacity to evaluate sensory information and choose a suitable reaction

132
Q

In many cases, how long does it take for an employer to decide whether they will consider someone, based on their resume?

A

Less than 30 seconds

133
Q

Which piece of equipment is needed for a balance biceps curl?

A

BOSU balls

134
Q

In SMART goals, how is “realistic” defined?

A

The client is both willing and able to work toward the goal

135
Q

What is an initial reason for remaining within one’s scope of practice?

A

To avoid injury and liability

136
Q

During a static postural assessment, what should feet and ankles look like from an anterior view?

A

Straight and aligned, externally rotated ankles, arched feet

137
Q

Which movement assessment is not recommended for youth training?

A

One-repetition maximum strength assessment

138
Q

How is agility defined in the context of training?

A

Agility is the capacity to accelerate, decelerate/stabilize, and change direction

139
Q

What is a training plan?

A

A plan that organizes a program to reflect long-term and short-term goals

140
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate in approaching a potential client who is performing an exercise incorrectly?

A

Telling them about a potential benefit of the exercise

141
Q

Which group represents possible injuries/conditions caused by upper crossed syndrome?

A

Headaches, biceps tendinitis, rotator cuff impingement

142
Q

Why is it necessary to continue stabilization training during and after strength and power training?

A

Stabilization training maintains core and joint stability

143
Q

Overtraining is also referred to as:

A

Being under-recovered

144
Q

How many sets and repetitions should an initial resistance training program prescribe for individuals with high blood pressure?

A

1-3 sets of 10-20 repetitions

145
Q

What workout reflects the best strength training for muscular endurance?

A

2 minutes of exercise with minimal/body weight 30 seconds of rest Repeat 12 times with different exercises 15 minutes on the step machine

146
Q

Which range of the body mass index (BMI) scale is considered to have the lowest risk for disease?

A

22 - 24.99 BMI

147
Q

Why should supine exercises be avoided once a woman is in her second trimester of pregnancy?

A

Altered blood flow to the uterus

148
Q

For body fat reduction, which phases of the OPT model should an individual cycle between?

A

Phases 1 and 2

149
Q

How many Americans suffer from depression?

A

One in four

150
Q

During a gait assessment, a client’s knees move inward. Which muscles are likely overactive?

A

Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), TFL

151
Q

Depending on the exercises used, resistance training with supersets is especially beneficial for:

A

Muscular endurance, hypertrophy, or power

152
Q

How should a trainer assist someone in the maintenance stage?

A

Suggest reinforcement check-ins and discuss progress and potential changes

153
Q

When you’re making a SMART goal, how should the “S” be defined?

A

It should be specific enough that anyone can understand it

154
Q

What adjustments should be made for assessment of a pregnant person?

A

Refrain from power and speed assessments

155
Q

What is the recommended daily protein intake for endurance athletes?

A

1.2-1.4 grams per kilogram of body weight

156
Q

In regard to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, why is it important to begin a strength level workout with balance exercises?

A

To prime the body for the workout

157
Q

Which of the following actions is not HIPAA-compliant?

A

Receiving health information from a client via generic email

158
Q

How can a fitness professional prevent a client from experiencing overtraining syndrome?

A

By applying appropriate rest periods between training sessions

159
Q

What is an appropriate SAQ assessment/drill for youth populations?

A

Red Light, Green Light

160
Q

What is periodization?

A

Periodization is the modification of the program target at specific intervals to create maximum adaptation

161
Q

How should a personal trainer instruct a client in a pulling assessment?

A

The client should be asked to stand with an activated core, feet in a split stance and facing forward, with cable handles in each hand and arms in front of the body. The client should pull the cable toward the body and then return to the starting position.

162
Q

In which stage of change is a client who has been training for six months and is now pursuing their fitness goals without the assistance of a trainer?

A

Maintenance

163
Q

What does the A in the goal-setting acronym SMART stand for?

A

Attainable

164
Q

How should the trainer detect if the client needs to reduce from Zone 3 to Zone 2 during cardiorespiratory training?

A

Check heart rate during the one-minute break after 1 minute of Zone 3 training

165
Q

How many times per week should a client do resistance training in Phase 3 (hypertrophy)?

A

3-6 times per week

166
Q

If an individual is doing prolonged, intense exercise, about how long will it take for their glycogen stores to become depleted?

A

About 90 minutes

167
Q

What type of energy is contained in food?

A

Chemical energy

168
Q

Dynamic stretching can be best described as:

A

Stretching performed to simulate normal, functional movement

169
Q

What is the most important component of a fitness goal?

A

The trainer and client should agree that the goal is achievable

170
Q

NASM has developed a template that provides health and fitness professionals with specific guidelines for creating an individualized program. All of the following components should be listed on a client’s program except:

A

Client’s height and weight

171
Q

If an individual is planning on taking on a new behavior or action within the next month or so, which part of the Stages of Change model are they in?

A

Preparation stage

172
Q

The sliding filament theory can be best described as:

A

How thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere move past one another, resulting in shortened muscle and force production

173
Q

What best describes active listening?

A

A communication technique that emphasizes having genuine interest in seeking the client’s perspective

174
Q

What training type produces hypertrophy and fat loss?

A

High volume, low/moderate intensity training

175
Q

What best describes osteopenia?

A

Loss of bone density

176
Q

Reciprocal inhibition can best be described as:

A

When a muscle relaxes to allow another muscle to contract

177
Q

What population should avoid the Valsalva maneuver?

A

Individuals with hypertension

178
Q

Which body composition assessment estimates the amount of subcutaneous fat below the skin?

A

Skinfold measurement

179
Q

What makes “multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization” a balance-power exercise?

A

It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization

NASM CPT 7 Practice Q&A (1 decks)

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