NASM CPT 7 Practice Q&A Flashcards
1
Q
Within the muscle, which type of mechanoreceptors are sensitive to change in length?
A
Muscle Spindles
2
Q
Which is the accurate list of the four sites at which skinfold measurements are taken?
A
Biceps, Triceps, Subscapular, illiac crest
3
Q
What’s the definition for length tension relationship
A
Length tension relationships: The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can
produce at this resting length. There is an optimal muscle length that results in the potential
for maximal force production.
4
Q
Describe and write down all three of the connective tissue layers within a muscle.
A
Epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium
- Epimysium: The outermost layer surrounds the entire muscle.
- Perimysium: Surrounds groups of muscle fibers called fascicles.
- Endomysium: The deepest innermost layer; separates individual muscle fibers.
5
Q
What are the three different parts of a neuron? List and discuss all three parts.
A
The cell body, axon, and dendrites
The cell body (soma): Contains a nucleus and other organelles, including lysosomes,
mitochondria, and a Golgi complex.
The axon: The cylindrical projection that is responsible for transmitting nervous
impulses to other neurons and effector sites such as organs and muscles. It’s the
communication provider for the brain and spinal cord to the body.
Dendrites: Dendrites gather information from structures and transmit it into the neuron.
6
Q
Write down the three types of blood vessels that travel through the systemic circuit and the
order that the blood travels through.
A
- Arteries: Vessels that transport blood away from the heart.
- Veins: The vessels that transport the un-oxygenated blood from the capillaries to the
heart. - Capillaries: The smallest blood vessels. This is where the oxygen exchange occurs
between blood and tissues.
Additionally, the arteries and veins branch into the following, respectively:
- Arterioles: Small terminal artery branches.
- Venules: Very small veins that connect the capillaries to the larger veins.
7
Q
What are the different types of bones, and how are they characterized?
A
Long Bones - Long, cylindrical shafts and widened or irregular ends
Short Bones - Similar in width and length and appear to be cubical in their shape
Flat Bones - These are thin and protective
Irregular Bones - Uniquely shaped and their function is unique
Sesamoid Bones - Small, often rounded bones in joint capsules in locations where tendons pass over joints
8
Q
Personal trainers have how long to make a great first impression?
A
20 seconds
9
Q
What is a pull promotion?
A
A promotion that pulls a potential client toward a purchase by making them aware of the service.
10
Q
As the load for an exercise increases, what happens to the rest between sets?
A
It increases
11
Q
Which of the following might occur with an improperly functioning lateral subsystem?
A
Knee valgus during overhead squat
12
Q
All of the following are barriers to establishing rapport except:
A
Asking probing questions
13
Q
Which of the following is a cause of muscle imbalance?
A
Emotional stress
14
Q
What is the typical window of time when delayed-onset muscle soreness occurs?
A
24 to 72 hours after intense exercise
15
Q
What is the fat percentage recommended for female athletes?
A
12 - 22 %
16
Q
How is active flexibility used in the OPT Model?
A
Active flexibility used in Phases 2, 3, 4 to improve soft tissue extensibility and neuromuscular efficiency
17
Q
What should be included in a personal trainers resume?
A
Recent work experience and/or education
18
Q
What type of goal should initial goal-setting sessions be focused on developing?
A
Long term goals
19
Q
Which of the following best describes agility?
A
Short bursts of movement that involve a change of direction, speed or cadence.
20
Q
After exercising for 90 mins what fuel are you likely to run out of?
A
Glycogen
21
Q
Which of the following is the body’s most useable form of energy?
A
ATP
22
Q
How core exercises should be included in each phase 3 training session?
A
0-4
23
Q
For adolescents in a resistance training program, how many reps per set should be completed?
A
8-12
24
Q
Which is the best SAQ drill for weight loss clients?
A
Circuits
25
What supplement is a potential effect of excessive intake of magnesium?
Nerve damage
26
What is the difference between process goals and product goals?
Process goal can be predictively achieved, and product goals may or may not be achieved.
27
What training system is good to use with clients with cardiovascular disease?
Peripheral heart action
28
why should training sessions be limited to 60 - 90 mins?
Longer training sessions increase risk of upper respiratory infections
29
Which of the following movements is not advised while performing a seated lat pull down?
Performing lat pull down behind the neck
30
Which training adaptation can be expected with high volume training?
Increased metabolic rate
31
Pregnant women should be training in what cardio stage?
Stage 1
32
What is the first step in the ten step plan to become a financially successful trainer?
Determine the desired annual income
33
Torque can best be described as:
A force that generate rotation
34
What is the minimum amount of time when doing SMR on a tender spot?
30 seconds
35
What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?
They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement
36
Association is best described as:
When the focus is on internal body feedback
37
What type of fatty acids are omega-3's
Polyunsaturated fatty acids
38
Which type of exercise does caffeine supplementation not seem to have an ergogenic effect on?
Sprint type efforts lasting 90 seconds or less
39
For effective weight loss, how many calories should an obese client expend per session?
200 - 300 calories
40
Which of the following is an aspect of training at a local gym?
the trainer is expected to sell training services to existing gym members
41
Which of the following mechanism of action occurs when one is performing self-myofascial release (SMR)?
Autogenic inhibition
42
What is the principle of specificity?
The body will adapt to the level of stress placed on it, and then will require more/varied stress to increase adaptation
43
The two hormones responsible for the "fight or flight" response are:
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
44
How are active-isolated stretches used in the OPT model?
They can be part of a warm up if no postural distortion patterns are present
45
What best describes an isometric muscle action?
Constant muscle length
46
Trunk rotation is the force-coupling of which two muscles?
Internal and external obliques
47
Which statement is included in the NASM Code of Professional Conduct?
Use appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions
48
What is the recommended way for a client to self-monitor?
Keeping a daily written record
49
What is flexibility?
The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion
50
An intrinsic approach to exercise is one that:
Emphasizes the enjoyment value of exercise, making it about more than just a means to goal accomplishment
51
How do the waist-to-hip ratio and BMI measurements compare when calculating a clients risk of disease?
Both waist-to-hip ratio and BMI are helpful indicators of chronic disease risk, but waist-to-hip ratio is a more reliable assessment
52
What percentage of the population actually engages in the recommended 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity on most days?
Less than 25%
53
How long does the YMCA step test last?
3 minutes
54
For older adults, what is the recommended intensity for resistance training?
40% - 80% of 1 RM
55
What are the three phases of plyometric training?
Loading, Transition, Power
56
For older adults, What is the recommended frequency for resistance training?
3 - 5 days for week
57
A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates is known as a:
Motor unit
58
High velocity adaptations are best achieved at what percentage of an individual's 1 RM?
30 % - 45% of 1 RM
59
Which of the following is an example of cardiorespiratory training for Stage 2 clients?
5 minute warm-up, 1 minute Zone 2, 1 minute Zone 3, 1 minute Zone 2, 1 minute Zone 3, 5-10 minutes cool down.
60
What types of SAQ exercises should be used in Phase 4?
6-8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia with limited unpredictability
61
How many calories are in a pound of body fat?
About 3,500
62
Weight bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?
Remodeling
63
How should the amortization phase of the stretch shortening cycle be described?
The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
64
What is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize protein synthesis?
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
65
What is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Free hydrogen ions
66
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Inspiration with decrease in intrathoracic pressure
67
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary process of the body?
Autonomic nervous system
68
What is the purpose of the intervertebral disc?
They act as shock absorbers
69
Which best describes imagery in exercise?
Process of creating an internalized landscape that supports exercise participation
70
What is neuromuscular efficiency?
Capacity of the neuromuscular system to engage proper muscles in order to produce and reduce force and stabilize the body.
71
What kind of resistance exercise is in Phase 5?
85% - 100% intensity superset with 30% - 40% 1RM (power)
72
Which fatty acid has longest shelf life?
Trans fatty acids
73
Which altered joint mechanic is present when a person demonstrates knock knees during an overhead squat?
Increase hip external rotation
74
What is correct formula for calculating fat mass?
Body fat percentage times scale weight
75
The Davies test assesses?
Upper extremity agility and stabilization
76
Circuit training is best described as?
A serious of exercises with minimal rest
77
What muscle paring is seen in a force-coupling relationship?
synergist pairing
78
How many times should balance training be performed by a person in Phase 1?
1 to 4
79
Inside the muscle, where does the exchanging of carbon dioxide and oxygen occur?
within the capillaries
80
How many seconds of rest should we take in order to restore our ATP and phosphocreatine to at least 85%
60 seconds
81
Which of the following muscles is overactive when someone demonstrates an excessive forward lean?
Gastrocnemius
82
What is classified as an older adult?
Age 65
83
What is an appropriate SAQ assessment or drill for youth?
Red light, Green light
84
What phases of cardiac rehabilitation are typically safe for a CPT to train someone?
Phases 3 and 4
85
Which body comp assessment estimates the amount of subcutaneous fat below the skin?
Skinfold measurement
86
What is unique regarding size and the thoracic vertebrae?
Thoracic vertebrae increase in size from the top down
87
What relationship is had with intensity and volume in a training program?
An inverse relationship
88
Physical activity makes up how much of a persons energy expenditure?
about 20%
89
Which SAQ drill is best for weight loss clients?
Circuits
90
Which waist-to-hip ratio can be considered an indicator of increased risk of for disease?
.81
91
What is the recommended frequency of exercise for older adults?
3 - 5 days per week of moderate intensity
92
What are the two kind of fitness goals?
Process and Product
93
Where is the Gastrocnemius in relation to the soleus, anatomically?
Superior
94
What best describes the sliding filament theory?
Thick and Thin filaments within the sarcomere slide past one another
95
During a vertical loading session, How long should the rest period be between each exercise?
Little to no rest.
96
What should be the focus in core strength exercises?
Dynamic movements of the spine through full range of motion.
97
Which movement compensation might occur during an overhead squat assessment?
Excessive forward lean.
98
Which of the following subsystems creates a stabilizing X across the thoracolumbar fascia?
Posterior Oblique Subsystem.
99
The rotator cuff is comprised of all the following muscles except:
The Teres Major
100
Which of the following is not a potential effect of excess calcium intake?
Liver Damage
101
In regard to anatomical position, where is the Gastrocnemius in relation to the soleus?
Superior
102
Within the muscle, which type of mechanoreceptors are sensitive to change in length?
Muscle Spindles
103
Which of the following is an example of emotional support?
Praising a client for showing up and working hard.
104
Which of the following is a common form mistake during a push-up?
Stomach falling towards the ground.
105
Which of the following best describes vertical loading?
Alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity
106
In regard to exercise intensity, what should a fitness professional pay close attention to when working with new clients?
Whether the level of intensity is appropriate for the client's physical and emotional state
107
Which range of repetitions is ideal for power adaptations?
1 to 10 reps
108
What is the Karvonen method?
The heart rate reserve (HRR) method
109
In what stage of change is a client who is asking questions about training but has not begun exercising?
Contemplation
110
After the initial contact, what is the appropriate amount of time to wait before calling to follow up with a member?
1 week
111
During a stretch, which of the following is happening to sarcomeres within the muscle?
The sarcomeres lengthen
112
How long will a client typically train in Phase 3 of the OPT model?
4 weeks
113
Why are body weight exercises so supportive of kinesthetic awareness?
They require greater motor unit activation and synchronization
114
How is an action plan developed?
Establish the nature of the goal and the target date, resources, and daily tasks required to reach the goal
115
Which of the following foods is highest on the glycemic index (GI)?
Rice cakes
116
When referring to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, all of the following phases make up the strength component except:
Power
117
Overactivity and tightness in a muscle tend to have what type of relationship?
A direct relationship
118
If a client is in Zone 2 during a cardiorespiratory workout, what RPE equivalent should they be at?
14-16
119
What type of muscle pairing is seen in a force-couple relationship?
Synergist pairing
120
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate for an obese individual?
Rockport walk test
121
How might a trainer identify a client who has social physique anxiety?
The client wears baggy clothing
122
How much of an individual's total energy expenditure is a result of the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
6-10% of TEE
123
All of the following are common self-myofascial release (SMR) mistakes except:
Holding static pressure on the tender spot
124
The PAR-Q is an example of what kind of assessment?
Subjective
125
Which of the following is a potentially contraindicated exercise for someone with hypertension?
Floor bridge
126
What is the purpose of corrective flexibility?
It improves muscle imbalance, range of motion, and altered joint motion
127
In which situation does a personal trainer have a percentage of their session fees taken?
When working as an independent contractor for a commercial fitness club
128
Most fitness centers are designed for people in which stages of the Stages of Change model?
Action and maintenance
129
During a push-up assessment, how low should an individual lower their body?
Until their body touches a partner's closed fist placed under their chest
130
If a client rests for three minutes between sets, how fully recovered should they be?
100%
131
How does the body use the central nervous system to create movement?
Through integrative function, which is its capacity to evaluate sensory information and choose a suitable reaction
132
In many cases, how long does it take for an employer to decide whether they will consider someone, based on their resume?
Less than 30 seconds
133
Which piece of equipment is needed for a balance biceps curl?
BOSU balls
134
In SMART goals, how is "realistic" defined?
The client is both willing and able to work toward the goal
135
What is an initial reason for remaining within one's scope of practice?
To avoid injury and liability
136
During a static postural assessment, what should feet and ankles look like from an anterior view?
Straight and aligned, externally rotated ankles, arched feet
137
Which movement assessment is not recommended for youth training?
One-repetition maximum strength assessment
138
How is agility defined in the context of training?
Agility is the capacity to accelerate, decelerate/stabilize, and change direction
139
What is a training plan?
A plan that organizes a program to reflect long-term and short-term goals
140
Which of the following would be appropriate in approaching a potential client who is performing an exercise incorrectly?
Telling them about a potential benefit of the exercise
141
Which group represents possible injuries/conditions caused by upper crossed syndrome?
Headaches, biceps tendinitis, rotator cuff impingement
142
Why is it necessary to continue stabilization training during and after strength and power training?
Stabilization training maintains core and joint stability
143
Overtraining is also referred to as:
Being under-recovered
144
How many sets and repetitions should an initial resistance training program prescribe for individuals with high blood pressure?
1-3 sets of 10-20 repetitions
145
What workout reflects the best strength training for muscular endurance?
2 minutes of exercise with minimal/body weight 30 seconds of rest Repeat 12 times with different exercises 15 minutes on the step machine
146
Which range of the body mass index (BMI) scale is considered to have the lowest risk for disease?
22 - 24.99 BMI
147
Why should supine exercises be avoided once a woman is in her second trimester of pregnancy?
Altered blood flow to the uterus
148
For body fat reduction, which phases of the OPT model should an individual cycle between?
Phases 1 and 2
149
How many Americans suffer from depression?
One in four
150
During a gait assessment, a client's knees move inward. Which muscles are likely overactive?
Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), TFL
151
Depending on the exercises used, resistance training with supersets is especially beneficial for:
Muscular endurance, hypertrophy, or power
152
How should a trainer assist someone in the maintenance stage?
Suggest reinforcement check-ins and discuss progress and potential changes
153
When you're making a SMART goal, how should the "S" be defined?
It should be specific enough that anyone can understand it
154
What adjustments should be made for assessment of a pregnant person?
Refrain from power and speed assessments
155
What is the recommended daily protein intake for endurance athletes?
1.2-1.4 grams per kilogram of body weight
156
In regard to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, why is it important to begin a strength level workout with balance exercises?
To prime the body for the workout
157
Which of the following actions is not HIPAA-compliant?
Receiving health information from a client via generic email
158
How can a fitness professional prevent a client from experiencing overtraining syndrome?
By applying appropriate rest periods between training sessions
159
What is an appropriate SAQ assessment/drill for youth populations?
Red Light, Green Light
160
What is periodization?
Periodization is the modification of the program target at specific intervals to create maximum adaptation
161
How should a personal trainer instruct a client in a pulling assessment?
The client should be asked to stand with an activated core, feet in a split stance and facing forward, with cable handles in each hand and arms in front of the body. The client should pull the cable toward the body and then return to the starting position.
162
In which stage of change is a client who has been training for six months and is now pursuing their fitness goals without the assistance of a trainer?
Maintenance
163
What does the A in the goal-setting acronym SMART stand for?
Attainable
164
How should the trainer detect if the client needs to reduce from Zone 3 to Zone 2 during cardiorespiratory training?
Check heart rate during the one-minute break after 1 minute of Zone 3 training
165
How many times per week should a client do resistance training in Phase 3 (hypertrophy)?
3-6 times per week
166
If an individual is doing prolonged, intense exercise, about how long will it take for their glycogen stores to become depleted?
About 90 minutes
167
What type of energy is contained in food?
Chemical energy
168
Dynamic stretching can be best described as:
Stretching performed to simulate normal, functional movement
169
What is the most important component of a fitness goal?
The trainer and client should agree that the goal is achievable
170
NASM has developed a template that provides health and fitness professionals with specific guidelines for creating an individualized program. All of the following components should be listed on a client's program except:
Client's height and weight
171
If an individual is planning on taking on a new behavior or action within the next month or so, which part of the Stages of Change model are they in?
Preparation stage
172
The sliding filament theory can be best described as:
How thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere move past one another, resulting in shortened muscle and force production
173
What best describes active listening?
A communication technique that emphasizes having genuine interest in seeking the client's perspective
174
What training type produces hypertrophy and fat loss?
High volume, low/moderate intensity training
175
What best describes osteopenia?
Loss of bone density
176
Reciprocal inhibition can best be described as:
When a muscle relaxes to allow another muscle to contract
177
What population should avoid the Valsalva maneuver?
Individuals with hypertension
178
Which body composition assessment estimates the amount of subcutaneous fat below the skin?
Skinfold measurement
179
What makes "multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization" a balance-power exercise?
It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization
