Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NASM CPT 4 - Exercise Technique > NASM CPT 4 - Exercise Technique 100 Question & Answers > Flashcards

NASM CPT 4 - Exercise Technique 100 Question & Answers Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

Give examples of total-body power exercises.

A

Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the structures that make up the core.

A

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name five balance-stabilization exercises.

A

Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance.

A

Knowledge of results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations?

A

Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name two different leg-stabilization exercises.

A

Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.

A

SAID Principle or Principle of Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing self-myofascial release?

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the proper backside mechanics during sprinting?

A

Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is dynamic balance?

A

Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three phases of a plyometric exercise?

A

Eccentric phase, amortization phase, concentric phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give four examples of core-strength exercises

A

Ball Crunches, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunches, Cable Rotations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training

A

Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the four muscles of the movement system of the core.

A

Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

A

Relative flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization?

A

Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the drawing-in Maneuver?

A

A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum?

A

SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order.

A

Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo-pelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model.

A

Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name four plyometric-strength exercises.

A

Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity?

A

Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the proper frontside mechanics during sprinting?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises?

A

Squat Jump with Stabilization, Box Jump-up with Stabilization, Box Jump-down with Stabilization, Multiplanar Jump with Stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

A

Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held?

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training.

A

Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics.

A

They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name two power level exercises for the legs.

A

Squat Jump and Tuck Jump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia.

A

Self-myofascial release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model.

A

Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pull-down; Straight-arm Pull-down; Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The state where there is an elevation of the body’s metabolism after exercise

A

Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body.

A

Pattern overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).

A

Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the proper progression for balance training when utilizing the proprioceptive continuum?

A

Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises

A

Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome do stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain and emotional fatigue occur?.

A

Exhaustion phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements.

A

Proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

A

Rate of force production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.

A

Plyometric training

42
Q

Name three balance-power exercises.

A

Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization

43
Q

Example of a Zone 2 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.

A

Group exercise classes or spinning at 76-85% of maximal heart rate

44
Q

What are the three phases of the integrated flexibility continuum?

A

Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility

45
Q

Exercises that use quick powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.

A

Plyometric training

46
Q

The stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fascial system of the body by applying gentle force to an adhesion

A

Self-myofascial release

47
Q

Name four core-power exercises

A

Rotation Chest Pass, Ball Medicine Pullover Throw, Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Soccer Throw

48
Q

What happens during the eccentric phase of a plyometric exercise?

A

Increase in muscle spindle activity by pre stretching the muscle before activation

49
Q

What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises?

A

Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific

50
Q

Example of a Zone 1 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.

A

Walking or jogging at 65-75% of maximal heart rate

51
Q

Referred to as a co-contraction of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum.

A

Bracing

52
Q

Name five balance-strength exercises

A

Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance

53
Q

What are the benefits of a warm-up?

A

Increased heart rate and respiratory rate, increased tissue temperature, and increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise.

54
Q

Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include.

A

Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball

55
Q

The position of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during running movements.

A

A slight forward lean with neutral spine

56
Q

Name two strength level exercises for the legs.

A

Leg Press and Barbell Squat

57
Q

Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production.

A

Integrated performance paradigm

58
Q

Give four examples of core-stabilization exercises.

A

Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs

59
Q

The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture.

A

Agility

60
Q

What kinetic chain deviations must a certified personal trainer watch for in the cardiorespiratory portion of the workout for clients who possess rounded shoulders?

A

On steppers and treadmills watch for the grasping of the handles; on stationary bikes, treadmills and elliptical trainers watch for rounding of the shoulders.

61
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.

A

Strength

62
Q

What is delayed-onset muscle soreness?

A

Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

63
Q

Law stating that soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

A

Davis’s law

64
Q

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.

A

Speed

65
Q

Type of training that has been found to be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training.

A

Circuit training

66
Q

Body position progressions used for balance training

A
  1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable
67
Q

How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last?

A

5-10 minutes

68
Q

What is a component of core-power exercises that make them easy to identify?

A

Explosive movements with medicine balls

69
Q

Research has demonstrated increased electromyogram activity and pelvic stabilization when this maneuver is performed.

A

Drawing-in maneuver

70
Q

Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model.

A

Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row

71
Q

The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist.

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

72
Q

Three types of core systems.

A

Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system

73
Q

What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury?

A

Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue

74
Q

The type of flexibility designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition.

A

Active flexibility

75
Q

The ability of the body to produce high levels of force for prolonged periods of time

A

Muscular endurance

76
Q

Give eight reasons for the incorporation of flexibility training

A

Correct muscle imbalances, increase joint range of motion, decrease excess tension of muscles, relieve joint stress, improve extensibility of musculotendinous junction, maintain normal functional length of muscles, improve neuromuscular efficiency, improve function

77
Q

Benefits of a cool-down include the following:

A

Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline

78
Q

What is the proper way to progress an exercise in the stabilization level of training?

A

Increase proprioceptive demand

79
Q

What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for?

A

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment

80
Q

Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise.

A

Knowledge of performance

81
Q

The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate for force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities

A

Quickness

82
Q

Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process.

A

Cumulative injury cycle

83
Q

What are the acute variables for static stretching?

A

1-2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

84
Q

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint.

A

Flexibility

85
Q

Give three examples of shoulder-power exercises

A

Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press

86
Q

Name four core-strength exercises.

A

Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations

87
Q

Name three plyometric-power exercises.

A

Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics

88
Q

What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program?

A

Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities

89
Q

Example of a Zone 3 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level.

A

Sprinting at 86-95% of maximal heart rate

90
Q

The type of specificity that refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.

A

Mechanical specificity

91
Q

The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome

A

Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion

92
Q

Name four core-stabilization exercises

A

Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs

93
Q

Give examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model

A

Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press

94
Q

Name the five muscles of the Local Stabilization System of the core

A

Transverse abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm

95
Q

The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client’s awareness of their limit of stability by creating______________.

A

controlled instability

96
Q

When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching?

A

After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5

97
Q

Body position progressions in balance training

A

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-legs unstable, single-leg unstable

98
Q

Give examples of total-body strength exercises

A

Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise

99
Q

What does the acronym SAID in SAID Principle stand for?

A

Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands

100
Q

Give examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model

A

Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up

NASM CPT 4 - Exercise Technique (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions