Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NASM > NASM CPT > Flashcards

NASM CPT Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

What would be the immediate progression of a “Single-Leg Dumbbell Curl”? a. single-leg, alternating arm, stable b. single-leg, single-arm, stable c. two-leg, alternating arm, unstable d. two-leg, single-arm, unstable

A

a. single-leg, alternating arm, stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

GAS + definition

A

General Adaptation Syndrome - describes how the body responds and adapts to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 Stages of Response to Stress

A

Alarm Reaction Resistance Development Exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

OPT Model

A

Stabilization -Stabilization Endurance Strength -Strength Endurance -Hypertrophy -Maximal Strength Power -Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SAID Principal

A

Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands - body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it. i.e.- if someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. -if a person repeatedly lifts lighter weights for many repetitions, that person will develop higher levels of muscular endurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vertical Loading

A

Performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Horizontal Loading

A

Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the planes of motion?

A

Frontal, Sagittal, Transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some examples of exercises that occur in the saggital plane?

A

Bicep Curl Triceps pushdown Front lunge Calf raise Walking Running Vertical jumping Climbing stairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of motion can be done in the frontal plane?

A

Adduction/abduction Lateral flexion Eversion/inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some examples of exercises that occur in the frontal plane?

A

Side lateral raise Side lunge Side shuffle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some examples of exercises that occur in the transverse plane?

A

Trunk rotation Throwing Golfing Swinging a bat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FITTE

A

Frequency Intensity Type Time Enjoyment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called? a. Multiple set b. Pyramid system c. Peripheral heart action d. Super set

A

Peripheral heart action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A squat, curl, to two-arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model? a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Power d. Reactive

A

Strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The dividing of a training program into smaller, progressive stages is termed? a. Annual plan b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle d. Periodization

A

Periodization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a goal of Phase Five: Power Training? a. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency b. Increase lean body mass c. Improve muscular endurance d. Enhance control of posture

A

Improve muscular endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the best definition of neuromuscular efficiency? a. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion. b. The cumulative neural input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement. c. Ability of the body’s stabilizing muscles to provide support for joints as well as maintain posture and balance during movement. d. A muscle’s ability to contract for an extended period of time.

A

Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment? a. Machine chest press b. Leg press exercise c. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball d. Seated military press

A

Dumbbell chest press on stability ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise? a. Step-up to curl to press b. One-arm ball squat, curl to press c. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press d. Squat, curl to press exercise

A

Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase? a. Volume b. Load c. Speed d. Proprioception

A

Proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise? a. Seated cable row exercise b. Single-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise c. Two-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise d. Single-leg, alternating-arm cable row exercise

A

Seated cable row exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which term refers to the energy demand placed on the body? a. Mechanical specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Metabolic specificity d. Cognitive specificity

A

Metabolic specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During a pushing assessment your client’s shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive? a. Mid and lower trapezius b. Upper trapezius c. Levator scapulae d. Latissimus dorsi

A

Mid and lower trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

During a single-leg squat assessment your client’s knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive? a. Gluteus medius b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) c. TFL d. Medial hamstrings

A

TFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support? a. Posture b. Structural efficiency c. Postural equilibrium d. Neuromuscular efficiency

A

Structural efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client? a. Circumference measurements b. Body mass index c. Skin fold measurements d. Waist to hip ratio

A

Circumference measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating? a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar flexion c. Foot inversion d. Foot eversion

A

Plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation? a. Gluteus medius b. Gluteus minimus c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus

A

Gluteus maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate? a. Before their workout b. Just after their workout c. Upon waking in the morning d. Just before bed at night

A

Upon waking in the morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on? a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex b. Feet, ankles, and knees c. Shoulders and cervical complex d. Low back and arms

A

Feet, ankles, and knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is considered objective information? a. Body composition testing b. Asking client if they wear shoe’s with elevated heels c. Inquiring about client’s current injuries d. Asking client about past surgeries

A

Body composition testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? a. Davies test b. Overhead squat assessment c. Shark skill test d. Lower extremity strength assessment: squat

A

Shark skill test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called? a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Override mechanism c. Autogenic inhibition d. Neural inhibition

A

Autogenic inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout? a. Walking at a medium pace b. Taking a group exercise class c. Sprinting d. Jogging at a slow pace

A

Taking a group exercise class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the low-end percentage of maximum heart rate used in zone three? a. 65%-75% b. 76%-79% c. 91%-94% d. 86%-90%

A

86%-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint? a. Extensibility b. Dynamic range of motion c. Flexibility d. Neuromuscular efficiency

A

Flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns? a. Postural distortion patterns b. Relative flexibility c. Muscle imbalance d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction

A

Relative flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What muscle is part of the local stabilization system? a. External oblique b. Internal oblique c. Psoas major d. Rectus abdominis

A

Internal oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; this is an example of? a. Neuromuscular inefficiency b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Arthokinetic dysfunction

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds? a. Core-Stabilization b. Core Strength c. Core-Power d. Core-Reactive

A

Core-Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise? a. Ball crunch b. Back extensions c. Two-leg floor bridge d. Rotation chest pass

A

Two-leg floor bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rhomboids c. Lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius

A

Latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Rate of Force Production

A

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

SAQ Training

A

Speed Agility Quickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Neuromusular Efficiency

A

The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, and stablilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Internal Obliques

Concentrically accelerates spinal flexion, lateral flexion, and ipsilateral rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

External Obliques

Concentrically accelerates spinal flexion, lateral flexion, and contralateral rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Psoas

Concentrically accelerates hip flexion and external roation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Tensor Fascia Latae (TFL)

Concentrically accelerates hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Latissimus Dorsi

Concentrically accelerates shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Gluteus Maximus

Concentrically accelerates hip extension and external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Gastrocnemius

Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is this muscle?

What is its’ isolated function?

A

Soleus

Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define Obesity

A

The condition
of being considerably
overweight, and refers
to a person with a body
mass index of 30 or
greater, or who is at
least 30 pounds over the
recommended weight for
their height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Define Overweight

A

Refers to
a person with a body
mass index of 25 to 29.9,
or who is between 25
to 30 pounds over the
recommended weight for
their height.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DOMS

A

Delayed Onset Mucscle Soreness

Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Type I Muscle Fibers

A

Slow twitch, smaller in diameter, slower to produce maximal tension, & more resistant to fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Type II Muscle Fibers

A

Fast twitch, larger in size, quick to produce maximal tension, & fatigue more quickly than type 8 muscle fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mechanical Specificity

A

Weight & movements placed on the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Neuromuscular Specificity

A

Speed of contraction and exercise selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Metabolic Specificity

A

Energy demand placed on the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Order of Vertical Loading

A
  1. Total body exercise
  2. Chest
  3. Back
  4. Shoulders
  5. Biceps
  6. Triceps
  7. Legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

HMS

A

Human Movement System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Superior

A

A position above a reference point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Inferior

A

A position below a reference point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Proximal

A

A position nearest the center of the body or point of reference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Distal

A

A position away from the center of the body or point of reference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Anterior

A

A position on or toward the front of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Posterior

A

A position on or toward the back of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Medial

A

A position relatively closer to the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Lateral

A

A position relatively farther away from the midline or toward the outside
of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Contralateral

A

A position on the opposite side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Ipsilateral

A

A position on the same side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Flexion

A

A bending
movement in which the
relative angle between
two adjacent segments
decreases.

76
Q

Extension

A

A
straightening movement
in which the relative angle
between two adjacent
segments increases.

77
Q

Hyperextension

A

Extension of a joint
beyond the normal limit
or range of motion.

78
Q

Abduction

A

A movement
in the frontal plane away
from the midline of
the body. (similar to extension)

79
Q

Adduction

A

Movement
in the frontal plane back
toward the midline of
the body. (similar to flexion)

80
Q

Scapular retraction

A

Adduction of scapula;
shoulder blades move
toward the midline.

81
Q

Scapular protraction

A

Abduction of scapula;
shoulder blades move
away from the midline

82
Q

Scapular depression

A

Downward (inferior)
motion of the scapula.

83
Q

Scapular elevation

A

Upward (superior) motion
of the scapula.

84
Q

Isotonic

A

Constant muscle tension.

85
Q

Eccentric muscle action

A

An eccentric muscle
action occurs when a
muscle develops tension
while lengthening.

Moving in the same direction as the resistance
Decelerates or reduces force

86
Q

Concentric muscle
action

A

When a muscle
is exerting force greater
than the resistive force,
resulting in shortening
of the muscle.

Moving in opposite direction of force
Accelerates or produces force

87
Q

Isometric muscle action

A

When a muscle is exerting
force equal to the force
being placed on it leading
to no visible change in the
muscle length (i.e.- pausing during workout).

88
Q

Isokinetic muscle action

A

When a muscle shortens
at a constant speed over
the full range of motion.

89
Q

Subjective Information

A

Information provided by the client.

i.e.- work, medical history

90
Q

Objective Information

A

Info based on assessments performed by the trainer.

i.e.- performance assessment

91
Q

PAR-Q

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire

92
Q

What is the formula for estimated maximal heart rate?

A

220-age

93
Q

What is the zone ONE percentage of maximal heart rate?

A

65% - 75%

94
Q

What is the zone TWO percentage of maximal heart rate?

A

76% - 85%

95
Q

What is the zone THREE percentage of maximal heart rate?

A

86% - 95%

96
Q

Formula for fat mass

A

Body fat % x scale weight = fat mass

97
Q

Formula for lean body mass

A

scale weight - fat mass = lean body mass

98
Q

Formula for calculating BMI

A

Body Mass Index = [Weight (lbs)/Height (inch^2)] x 703

99
Q

What is the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test?

A

Have client perform 96 steps per
minute on a 12-inch step for a total of 3 minutes.
Step two: Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, the client’s resting heart rate
is measured for a period of 60 seconds and recorded as the recovery pulse.
Step three: Locate the recovery pulse number.

100
Q

ROM

A

Range of motion

101
Q

Autogenic inhibition

A

The
process by which neural
impulses that sense
tension are greater than
the impulses that cause
muscles to contract,
providing an inhibitory
effect to the muscle
spindles.

102
Q

Davis’s law

A

soft tissue models along
the lines of stress

103
Q

A client’s shoulder elevates when perfoming a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Upper trapezius
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Levator scapulae

A

Lower trapezius

104
Q

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

a. Leg-power
b. Leg-stabilization
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-power

A

Balance-power

105
Q

A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?

a. Overworking
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Resistance development

A

Exhaustion

106
Q

A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?

a. Stabilization
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Reactive

A

Strength

107
Q

Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?

a. The top number in the blood pressure reading
b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts
c. The larger of the two numbers
d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

A

Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

108
Q

During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?

a. Chin tuck
b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise
c. Ball wall squats
d. Ball cobra

A

Ball cobra

109
Q

For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?

a. Treadmills
b. Bicycles
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Group exercise classes

A

Bicycles

110
Q

How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

a. 0-3 minutes
b. 3-5 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
d. 10-15 minutes

A

5-10 minutes

111
Q

How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?

a. 15 seconds minimum
b. 20 seconds minimum
c. 25 seconds minimum
d. 30 seconds minimum

A

30 seconds

112
Q

If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?

a. Soleus
b. Biceps femoris (short head)
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. TFL

A

Medial gastrocnemius

113
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?

A

Internal oblique

114
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

a. Scalenes
b. Rhomboids
c. Teres minor
d. Deep cervical flexors

A

Scalenes

115
Q

Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?

a. Multiple Set
b. Pyramid
c. Circuit Training
d. Vertical Loading

A

Pyramid

116
Q

The gluteus maximus is responsible for which of the following?

a. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation
b. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and external rotation
c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and internal rotation
d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

A

Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

117
Q

The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?

a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

A

Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

118
Q

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as:

a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Dynamic flexibility
d. Active flexibility

A

Relatve Flexibility

119
Q

What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?

a. Shark skill
b. Upper extremity strength
c. Davies
d. Overhead squat

A

Davies

120
Q

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?

a. No effect
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Outside scope of practice for personal trainer

A

Decrease

121
Q

What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?

a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
b. Two- arm push press
c. Barbell clean
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press

A

Squat, curl, to two-arm press

122
Q

What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?

a. Useful for hypertrophy phase only
b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
c. Less effective when compared to vertical loading
d. Not possible to use a full body workout with horizontal loading

A

The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout

123
Q

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?

a. 1%-2%
b. 5%-10%
c. 10%-15%
d. 15%-20%

A

5%-10%

124
Q

What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

a. Right before bed
b. Right before workout
c. Just after workout
d. Upon waking in the morning

A

Upon waking in the morning

125
Q

What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?

a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Barbell bench press
c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

A

Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

126
Q

What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?

a. 75-79%
b. 80-85%
c. 86-90%
d. 91-94%

A

86-90%

127
Q

What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench
b. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

A

Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press

128
Q

What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?

a. Plyometric-strength
b. Leg-strength
c. Plyometric-power
d. SAQ

A

Plyometric-power

129
Q

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?

a. Feet and knees
b. Lumbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees
c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
d. Feet, knees, and shoulder complex

A

Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex

130
Q

When determining a client’s heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?

a. (200 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)
b. (200 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
d. (220 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)

A

(220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)

131
Q

When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?

a. Circuit training
b. Single set
c. Split set
d. Multiple set

A

Single Set

132
Q

When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?

a. Romanian deadlift
b. Squat Jump
c. Seated row
d. Single-leg cable row

A

Seated row

133
Q

When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?

a. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor complex
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)

A

Adductor complex

134
Q

When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client’s arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?

a. Rhomboids
b. Supraspinatus
c. Teres major
d. Teres minor

A

Teres major

135
Q

When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?

a. Single-leg, alternating arm
b. Single-leg, single-arm
c. Two legs
d. Seated

A

Two legs

136
Q

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

a. Balance-power
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-plyometric

A

Balance-strength

137
Q

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
c. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and planar flexed

A

Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

138
Q

When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?

a. Increasing speed of movement
b. Increasing proprioception
c. Increasing volume
d. Increasing load

A

Increasing proprioception

139
Q

Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?

a. Semitendinosis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Bicep femoris

A

Gastrocnemius

140
Q

Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?

a. Seated cable row
b. Standing cable row
c. Medicine ball pull over throw
d. Seated lat pull down

A

Seated cable row

141
Q

Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise?

a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
c. Barbell squat
d. Squat jumps to stabilization

A

Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press

142
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?

a. Tuck jump
b. One-ins
c. Ice skaters
d. Power step-ups

A

One-ins

143
Q

Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?

a. Pronation distortion syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Lower extremity movement syndrome

A

Pronation distortion syndrome

144
Q

Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?

a. Cable rotation
b. Back extension
c. Rotation chest pass
d. Marching

A

Rotation chest pass

145
Q

Which of the following is considered subjective information?

a. Taking radial pulse
b. Lifestyle questions
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Circumference measurements

A

Lifestyle questions

146
Q

Which of the following is the best example of zone 3 cardio?

a. 3 rep bench press max
b. Sprinting
c. Fast walking
d. Group exercise class

A

Sprinting

147
Q

Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system?

a. Internal oblique
b. External oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Hip flexors

A

External oblique

148
Q

Which of the following training systems can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training?

a. Pyramid
b. Supersets
c. Circuit training
d. Vertical loading

A

Circuit training

149
Q

You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?

a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching
b. Self-myofascial release only
c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching
d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching

A

Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching

150
Q

You observe that your client’s knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?

a. TFL
b. Glute medius
c. VMO
d. Medial hamstring

A

TFL

151
Q

What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?

a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4

A

Zone 2

152
Q

Feet TURN OUT - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Soleus

Lateral gastrocnemius

Biceps femoris (shorthead)

153
Q

Feet TURN OUT - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Medial gastrocnemious

Medial hamstring complex

Gracilis

Sartorius

Popliteus

154
Q

Feet TURN OUT - what muscle should you foam roll?

A

Gastrocnemius/soleus

Biceps femoris (short head)

155
Q

Feet TURN OUT - what muscle should you static stretch?

A

Gastrocnemius stretch

Static supine biceps femoris stretch

156
Q

Feet TURN OUT - what is a strengthening exercise?

A

Single-leg balance reach

157
Q

Knees MOVE INWARD - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Adductor complex

Biceps femoris (short head)

Tensor fasia latae (TFL)

Vastus lateralis

158
Q

Knees MOVE INWARD - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Gluteus medius/maximus

Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)

159
Q

Knees MOVE INWARD - what muscles should be foam rolled?

A

Adductors

TFL/IT band

160
Q

Knees MOVE INWARD - what muscles you static stretch?

A

Supine biceps femoris stretch

Standing TFL stretch

161
Q

Knees MOVE INWARD - what strengthening exercise should you do?

A

Tube walking, side to side

162
Q

Excessive forward lean - probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Soleus

Gastrocnemius

Hip flexor complex

Abdominal complex

163
Q

Excessive forward lean - probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Anterior tibialis

Gluteus maximus

Erector spinae

164
Q

Excessive forward lean - what muscles should you foam roll?

A

Gastrocnemius/soleus

Quads

165
Q

Excessive forward lean - what muscles should you static stretch?

A

Gastrocnemius stretch

Kneeling hip flexor stretch

166
Q

Excessive forward lean - what strengthening exercise should you do?

A

Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise

Ball wall squats

167
Q

Low back arches - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Hip flexor complex

Erector spinae

Latissimus dorsi

168
Q

Low back arches - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Gluteus maximus

Hamstring complex

Core stabilizers

169
Q

Low back arches - what muscles should you foam roll?

A

Quads

Latissimus dorsi

170
Q

Low back arches - what muscles should you static stretch?

A

Kneeling hip flexor stretch

Latissimus dorsi ball stretch

171
Q

Low back arches - what strengthening exercise should you do?

A

Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise

Ball wall squats

172
Q

Arms fall forward - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Latissimus dorsi

Teres major

Pectoralis major/minor

173
Q

Arms fall forward - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Mid/lower trapezius

Rhomboids

Rotator cuff

174
Q

Arms fall forward - what muscles should you foam roll?

A

Thoracic spine

Latissimus dorsi

175
Q

Arms fall forward - what muscles should you static stretch?

A

Latissimus dorsi ball stretch

Static pectoral wall stretch

176
Q

Arms fall forward - what strengthening exercise should you use?

A

Squat to row

177
Q

Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Upper trapezius

Sternocleidomastoid

Levator scapulae

178
Q

Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Mid/lower trapezius

179
Q

Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you foam roll?

A

Upper trapezius

180
Q

Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you static stretch?

A

Upper trapezius/scalene stretch

181
Q

Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what strengthening exercise should you do?

A

Ball cobra

182
Q

Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?

A

Upper trapezius

Sternocleidomastoid

Levator scapulae

183
Q

Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?

A

Deep cervical flexors

184
Q

Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you foam roll?

A

Upper trapezius

185
Q

Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you static stretch?

A

Upper trapezius/scalene stretch

186
Q

Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what strengthening exercise should you do?

A

Chin tuck

NASM (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions