NASM CPT Flashcards
(186 cards)
1
Q
What would be the immediate progression of a “Single-Leg Dumbbell Curl”? a. single-leg, alternating arm, stable b. single-leg, single-arm, stable c. two-leg, alternating arm, unstable d. two-leg, single-arm, unstable
A
a. single-leg, alternating arm, stable
2
Q
GAS + definition
A
General Adaptation Syndrome - describes how the body responds and adapts to stress
3
Q
3 Stages of Response to Stress
A
Alarm Reaction Resistance Development Exhaustion
4
Q
OPT Model
A
Stabilization -Stabilization Endurance Strength -Strength Endurance -Hypertrophy -Maximal Strength Power -Power
5
Q
SAID Principal
A
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands - body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it. i.e.- if someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. -if a person repeatedly lifts lighter weights for many repetitions, that person will develop higher levels of muscular endurance.
6
Q
Vertical Loading
A
Performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template.
7
Q
Horizontal Loading
A
Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part).
8
Q
What are the planes of motion?
A
Frontal, Sagittal, Transverse
9
Q
What are some examples of exercises that occur in the saggital plane?
A
Bicep Curl Triceps pushdown Front lunge Calf raise Walking Running Vertical jumping Climbing stairs
10
Q
What type of motion can be done in the frontal plane?
A
Adduction/abduction Lateral flexion Eversion/inversion
11
Q
What are some examples of exercises that occur in the frontal plane?
A
Side lateral raise Side lunge Side shuffle
12
Q
What are some examples of exercises that occur in the transverse plane?
A
Trunk rotation Throwing Golfing Swinging a bat
13
Q
FITTE
A
Frequency Intensity Type Time Enjoyment
14
Q
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called? a. Multiple set b. Pyramid system c. Peripheral heart action d. Super set
A
Peripheral heart action
15
Q
A squat, curl, to two-arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model? a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Power d. Reactive
A
Strength
16
Q
The dividing of a training program into smaller, progressive stages is termed? a. Annual plan b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle d. Periodization
A
Periodization
17
Q
What is a goal of Phase Five: Power Training? a. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency b. Increase lean body mass c. Improve muscular endurance d. Enhance control of posture
A
Improve muscular endurance
18
Q
What is the best definition of neuromuscular efficiency? a. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion. b. The cumulative neural input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement. c. Ability of the body’s stabilizing muscles to provide support for joints as well as maintain posture and balance during movement. d. A muscle’s ability to contract for an extended period of time.
A
Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
19
Q
What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment? a. Machine chest press b. Leg press exercise c. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball d. Seated military press
A
Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
20
Q
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise? a. Step-up to curl to press b. One-arm ball squat, curl to press c. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press d. Squat, curl to press exercise
A
Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
21
Q
What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase? a. Volume b. Load c. Speed d. Proprioception
A
Proprioception
22
Q
Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise? a. Seated cable row exercise b. Single-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise c. Two-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise d. Single-leg, alternating-arm cable row exercise
A
Seated cable row exercise
23
Q
Which term refers to the energy demand placed on the body? a. Mechanical specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Metabolic specificity d. Cognitive specificity
A
Metabolic specificity
24
Q
During a pushing assessment your client’s shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive? a. Mid and lower trapezius b. Upper trapezius c. Levator scapulae d. Latissimus dorsi
A
Mid and lower trapezius
25
During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive? a. Gluteus medius b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) c. TFL d. Medial hamstrings
TFL
26
What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support? a. Posture b. Structural efficiency c. Postural equilibrium d. Neuromuscular efficiency
Structural efficiency
27
Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client? a. Circumference measurements b. Body mass index c. Skin fold measurements d. Waist to hip ratio
Circumference measurements
28
What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating? a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar flexion c. Foot inversion d. Foot eversion
Plantar flexion
29
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation? a. Gluteus medius b. Gluteus minimus c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus
Gluteus maximus
30
What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate? a. Before their workout b. Just after their workout c. Upon waking in the morning d. Just before bed at night
Upon waking in the morning
31
When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on? a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex b. Feet, ankles, and knees c. Shoulders and cervical complex d. Low back and arms
Feet, ankles, and knees
32
Which of the following is considered objective information? a. Body composition testing b. Asking client if they wear shoe’s with elevated heels c. Inquiring about client’s current injuries d. Asking client about past surgeries
Body composition testing
33
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? a. Davies test b. Overhead squat assessment c. Shark skill test d. Lower extremity strength assessment: squat
Shark skill test
34
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called? a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Override mechanism c. Autogenic inhibition d. Neural inhibition
Autogenic inhibition
35
What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout? a. Walking at a medium pace b. Taking a group exercise class c. Sprinting d. Jogging at a slow pace
Taking a group exercise class
36
What is the low-end percentage of maximum heart rate used in zone three? a. 65%-75% b. 76%-79% c. 91%-94% d. 86%-90%
86%-90%
37
What is the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint? a. Extensibility b. Dynamic range of motion c. Flexibility d. Neuromuscular efficiency
Flexibility
38
What is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns? a. Postural distortion patterns b. Relative flexibility c. Muscle imbalance d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
Relative flexibility
39
What muscle is part of the local stabilization system? a. External oblique b. Internal oblique c. Psoas major d. Rectus abdominis
Internal oblique
40
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; this is an example of? a. Neuromuscular inefficiency b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Arthokinetic dysfunction
Altered reciprocal inhibition
41
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds? a. Core-Stabilization b. Core Strength c. Core-Power d. Core-Reactive
Core-Power
42
Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise? a. Ball crunch b. Back extensions c. Two-leg floor bridge d. Rotation chest pass
Two-leg floor bridge
43
With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rhomboids c. Lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
44
Rate of Force Production
Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
45
SAQ Training
Speed Agility Quickness
46
Neuromusular Efficiency
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, and stablilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion
47
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Internal Obliques
Concentrically accelerates spinal flexion, lateral flexion, and ipsilateral rotation
48
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
External Obliques
Concentrically accelerates spinal flexion, lateral flexion, and contralateral rotation
49
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Psoas
Concentrically accelerates hip flexion and external roation
50
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Tensor Fascia Latae (TFL)
Concentrically accelerates hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotations
51
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Latissimus Dorsi
Concentrically accelerates shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
52
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Gluteus Maximus
Concentrically accelerates hip extension and external rotation
53
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Gastrocnemius
Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion
54
What is this muscle?
What is its' isolated function?
Soleus
Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion
55
Define Obesity
The condition
of being considerably
overweight, and refers
to a person with a body
mass index of 30 or
greater, or who is at
least 30 pounds over the
recommended weight for
their height
56
Define Overweight
Refers to
a person with a body
mass index of 25 to 29.9,
or who is between 25
to 30 pounds over the
recommended weight for
their height.
57
DOMS
Delayed Onset Mucscle Soreness
Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.
58
Type I Muscle Fibers
Slow twitch, smaller in diameter, slower to produce maximal tension, & more resistant to fatigue.
59
Type II Muscle Fibers
Fast twitch, larger in size, quick to produce maximal tension, & fatigue more quickly than type 8 muscle fibers.
60
Mechanical Specificity
Weight & movements placed on the body.
61
Neuromuscular Specificity
Speed of contraction and exercise selection.
62
Metabolic Specificity
Energy demand placed on the body.
63
Order of Vertical Loading
1. Total body exercise
2. Chest
3. Back
4. Shoulders
5. Biceps
6. Triceps
7. Legs
64
HMS
Human Movement System
65
Superior
A position above a reference point.
66
Inferior
A position below a reference point.
67
Proximal
A position nearest the center of the body or point of reference.
68
Distal
A position away from the center of the body or point of reference.
69
Anterior
A position on or toward the front of the body.
70
Posterior
A position on or toward the back of the body.
71
Medial
A position relatively closer to the midline of the body
72
Lateral
A position relatively farther away from the midline or toward the outside
of the body.
73
Contralateral
A position on the opposite side of the body.
74
Ipsilateral
A position on the same side of the body.
75
Flexion
A bending
movement in which the
relative angle between
two adjacent segments
decreases.
76
Extension
A
straightening movement
in which the relative angle
between two adjacent
segments increases.
77
Hyperextension
Extension of a joint
beyond the normal limit
or range of motion.
78
Abduction
A movement
in the frontal plane away
from the midline of
the body. (similar to extension)
79
Adduction
Movement
in the frontal plane back
toward the midline of
the body. (similar to flexion)
80
Scapular retraction
Adduction of scapula;
shoulder blades move
toward the midline.
81
Scapular protraction
Abduction of scapula;
shoulder blades move
away from the midline
82
Scapular depression
Downward (inferior)
motion of the scapula.
83
Scapular elevation
Upward (superior) motion
of the scapula.
84
Isotonic
Constant muscle tension.
85
Eccentric muscle action
An eccentric muscle
action occurs when a
muscle develops tension
while lengthening.
Moving in the same direction as the resistance
Decelerates or reduces force
86
Concentric muscle
action
When a muscle
is exerting force greater
than the resistive force,
resulting in shortening
of the muscle.
Moving in opposite direction of force
Accelerates or produces force
87
Isometric muscle action
When a muscle is exerting
force equal to the force
being placed on it leading
to no visible change in the
muscle length (i.e.- pausing during workout).
88
Isokinetic muscle action
When a muscle shortens
at a constant speed over
the full range of motion.
89
Subjective Information
Information provided by the client.
i.e.- work, medical history
90
Objective Information
Info based on assessments performed by the trainer.
i.e.- performance assessment
91
PAR-Q
Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire
92
What is the formula for estimated maximal heart rate?
220-age
93
What is the zone ONE percentage of maximal heart rate?
65% - 75%
94
What is the zone TWO percentage of maximal heart rate?
76% - 85%
95
What is the zone THREE percentage of maximal heart rate?
86% - 95%
96
Formula for fat mass
Body fat % x scale weight = fat mass
97
Formula for lean body mass
scale weight - fat mass = lean body mass
98
Formula for calculating BMI
Body Mass Index = [Weight (lbs)/Height (inch^2)] x 703
99
What is the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test?
Have client perform 96 steps per
minute on a 12-inch step for a total of 3 minutes.
Step two: Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, the client’s resting heart rate
is measured for a period of 60 seconds and recorded as the recovery pulse.
Step three: Locate the recovery pulse number.
100
ROM
Range of motion
101
Autogenic inhibition
The
process by which neural
impulses that sense
tension are greater than
the impulses that cause
muscles to contract,
providing an inhibitory
effect to the muscle
spindles.
102
Davis’s law
soft tissue models along
the lines of stress
103
A client's shoulder elevates when perfoming a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
a. Lower trapezius
b. Upper trapezius
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Levator scapulae
Lower trapezius
104
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
## Footnote
a. Leg-power
b. Leg-stabilization
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-power
Balance-power
105
A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?
a. Overworking
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Resistance development
Exhaustion
106
A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?
a. Stabilization
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Reactive
Strength
107
Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?
a. The top number in the blood pressure reading
b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts
c. The larger of the two numbers
d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
108
During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?
a. Chin tuck
b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise
c. Ball wall squats
d. Ball cobra
Ball cobra
109
For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?
a. Treadmills
b. Bicycles
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Group exercise classes
Bicycles
110
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?
a. 0-3 minutes
b. 3-5 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
d. 10-15 minutes
5-10 minutes
111
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
a. 15 seconds minimum
b. 20 seconds minimum
c. 25 seconds minimum
d. 30 seconds minimum
30 seconds
112
If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
a. Soleus
b. Biceps femoris (short head)
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. TFL
Medial gastrocnemius
113
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?
Internal oblique
114
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?
a. Scalenes
b. Rhomboids
c. Teres minor
d. Deep cervical flexors
Scalenes
115
Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?
a. Multiple Set
b. Pyramid
c. Circuit Training
d. Vertical Loading
Pyramid
116
The gluteus maximus is responsible for which of the following?
a. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation
b. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and external rotation
c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and internal rotation
d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
117
The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?
a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
118
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as:
a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Dynamic flexibility
d. Active flexibility
Relatve Flexibility
119
What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?
a. Shark skill
b. Upper extremity strength
c. Davies
d. Overhead squat
Davies
120
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?
a. No effect
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Outside scope of practice for personal trainer
Decrease
121
What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?
a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
b. Two- arm push press
c. Barbell clean
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
Squat, curl, to two-arm press
## Footnote
122
What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?
a. Useful for hypertrophy phase only
b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
c. Less effective when compared to vertical loading
d. Not possible to use a full body workout with horizontal loading
The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
123
What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?
a. 1%-2%
b. 5%-10%
c. 10%-15%
d. 15%-20%
5%-10%
124
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?
a. Right before bed
b. Right before workout
c. Just after workout
d. Upon waking in the morning
Upon waking in the morning
125
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Barbell bench press
c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
126
What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?
a. 75-79%
b. 80-85%
c. 86-90%
d. 91-94%
86-90%
127
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench
b. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
128
What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?
a. Plyometric-strength
b. Leg-strength
c. Plyometric-power
d. SAQ
Plyometric-power
129
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?
a. Feet and knees
b. Lumbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees
c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
d. Feet, knees, and shoulder complex
Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
130
When determining a client’s heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?
a. (200 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)
b. (200 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
d. (220 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)
(220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
131
When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
a. Circuit training
b. Single set
c. Split set
d. Multiple set
Single Set
132
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?
a. Romanian deadlift
b. Squat Jump
c. Seated row
d. Single-leg cable row
Seated row
133
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor complex
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
Adductor complex
134
When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client’s arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?
a. Rhomboids
b. Supraspinatus
c. Teres major
d. Teres minor
Teres major
135
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
a. Single-leg, alternating arm
b. Single-leg, single-arm
c. Two legs
d. Seated
Two legs
136
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
a. Balance-power
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-plyometric
Balance-strength
137
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
c. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and planar flexed
Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
138
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
a. Increasing speed of movement
b. Increasing proprioception
c. Increasing volume
d. Increasing load
Increasing proprioception
139
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?
a. Semitendinosis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Bicep femoris
Gastrocnemius
140
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
a. Seated cable row
b. Standing cable row
c. Medicine ball pull over throw
d. Seated lat pull down
Seated cable row
141
Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise?
a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
c. Barbell squat
d. Squat jumps to stabilization
Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
142
Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
a. Tuck jump
b. One-ins
c. Ice skaters
d. Power step-ups
One-ins
143
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
a. Pronation distortion syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Lower extremity movement syndrome
Pronation distortion syndrome
144
Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?
a. Cable rotation
b. Back extension
c. Rotation chest pass
d. Marching
Rotation chest pass
145
Which of the following is considered subjective information?
a. Taking radial pulse
b. Lifestyle questions
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Circumference measurements
Lifestyle questions
146
Which of the following is the best example of zone 3 cardio?
a. 3 rep bench press max
b. Sprinting
c. Fast walking
d. Group exercise class
Sprinting
147
Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system?
a. Internal oblique
b. External oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Hip flexors
External oblique
148
Which of the following training systems can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training?
a. Pyramid
b. Supersets
c. Circuit training
d. Vertical loading
Circuit training
149
You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?
a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching
b. Self-myofascial release only
c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching
d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching
Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching
150
You observe that your client’s knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?
a. TFL
b. Glute medius
c. VMO
d. Medial hamstring
TFL
151
What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4
Zone 2
152
Feet TURN OUT - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?
Soleus
Lateral gastrocnemius
Biceps femoris (shorthead)
153
Feet TURN OUT - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?
Medial gastrocnemious
Medial hamstring complex
Gracilis
Sartorius
Popliteus
154
Feet TURN OUT - what muscle should you foam roll?
Gastrocnemius/soleus
Biceps femoris (short head)
155
Feet TURN OUT - what muscle should you static stretch?
Gastrocnemius stretch
Static supine biceps femoris stretch
156
Feet TURN OUT - what is a strengthening exercise?
Single-leg balance reach
157
Knees MOVE INWARD - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?
Adductor complex
Biceps femoris (short head)
Tensor fasia latae (TFL)
Vastus lateralis
158
Knees MOVE INWARD - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?
Gluteus medius/maximus
Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
159
Knees MOVE INWARD - what muscles should be foam rolled?
Adductors
TFL/IT band
160
Knees MOVE INWARD - what muscles you static stretch?
Supine biceps femoris stretch
Standing TFL stretch
161
Knees MOVE INWARD - what strengthening exercise should you do?
Tube walking, side to side
162
Excessive forward lean - probable OVERactive muscles?
Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Hip flexor complex
Abdominal complex
163
Excessive forward lean - probable UNDERactive muscles?
Anterior tibialis
Gluteus maximus
Erector spinae
164
Excessive forward lean - what muscles should you foam roll?
Gastrocnemius/soleus
Quads
165
Excessive forward lean - what muscles should you static stretch?
Gastrocnemius stretch
Kneeling hip flexor stretch
166
Excessive forward lean - what strengthening exercise should you do?
Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
Ball wall squats
167
Low back arches - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?
Hip flexor complex
Erector spinae
Latissimus dorsi
168
Low back arches - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?
Gluteus maximus
Hamstring complex
Core stabilizers
169
Low back arches - what muscles should you foam roll?
Quads
Latissimus dorsi
170
Low back arches - what muscles should you static stretch?
Kneeling hip flexor stretch
Latissimus dorsi ball stretch
171
Low back arches - what strengthening exercise should you do?
Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
Ball wall squats
172
Arms fall forward - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Pectoralis major/minor
173
Arms fall forward - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?
Mid/lower trapezius
Rhomboids
Rotator cuff
174
Arms fall forward - what muscles should you foam roll?
Thoracic spine
Latissimus dorsi
175
Arms fall forward - what muscles should you static stretch?
Latissimus dorsi ball stretch
Static pectoral wall stretch
176
Arms fall forward - what strengthening exercise should you use?
Squat to row
177
Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?
Upper trapezius
Sternocleidomastoid
Levator scapulae
178
Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?
Mid/lower trapezius
179
Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you foam roll?
Upper trapezius
180
Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you static stretch?
Upper trapezius/scalene stretch
181
Shoulders elevate during pushing/pulling assessment - what strengthening exercise should you do?
Ball cobra
182
Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable OVERactive muscles?
Upper trapezius
Sternocleidomastoid
Levator scapulae
183
Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what are the probable UNDERactive muscles?
Deep cervical flexors
184
Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you foam roll?
Upper trapezius
185
Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what muscles should you static stretch?
Upper trapezius/scalene stretch
186
Head protrudes forward during pushing/pulling assessment - what strengthening exercise should you do?
Chin tuck
