NASM - CES Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
0
Q

The systemic programming process used to address neuromusculoskeletal dysfunction through the use of inhibitory, lengthening, activation, and integration techniques.

A

Corrective exercise continuum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

A term used to describe the systematic process of identifying a neuromusculoskeletal dysfunction, developing a plan of action, and implementing an integrated corrective strategy.

A

Corrective exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Corrective exercise techniques used to release tension or decrease activity of overactive neuromyofascial tissues in the body.

A

Inhibitory techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Corrective exercise techniques used to increase the extensibility, length, and range of motion (ROM) of neuromyofascial tissues in the body.

A

Lengthening technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Corrective exercise techniques used to reeducate or increase activation of under active tissue.

A

Activation techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Corrective exercise techniques used to retrain the collective synergistic function of all muscles through functionally progressive movement.

A

Integration techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a living body.

A

Biomechanics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The plane that bisects the body into right and left halves.

A

The Sagittarius plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The plane that bisects the body into front and back halves.

A

The frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The plane that bisects the body to create upper and lower halves.

A

The traverse plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Developing tension while a muscle is shortening; when developed tension overcomes resistive force

A

Concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Developing tension while a muscle is lengthening; when resistive force overcomes developed tension

A

Eccentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When the contractile force is equal to the resistive force

A

Isometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.

A

Length-tension relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Muscles that act as prime movers

A

Agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Muscles that act in direct opposition to prime movers

A

Antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patterns

A

Synergists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Muscles that support or stabilize the body while the prime movers and synergists perform the movement pattern

A

Stabilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Muscles that are predominantly involved in joint support or stabilization

A

Local musculature system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Muscles responsible predominantly for movement and consisting of more superficial musculature that originates from the pelvis to the rib cage, the lower extremities, or both.

A

Global muscular systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The human movement systems response to internal and external environmental stimuli

A

Motor behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The change in motor behavior over time throughout one’s lifespan

A

Motor development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The data that the central nervous system receives from sensory receptors to determine such things as the body’s position in space and limb orientation, as well as information about the environment, temperature, texture, ect.

A

Sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The study of posture and movements with the involved structures and mechanisms used by the central nervous system to assimilate and integrate sensory information with previous experiences

A

Motor control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The utilization of sensory information and motor control through practice and experience leading to a relatively permanent change in one’s capacity to produce skilled movements

A

Motor learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A lever system with the fulcrum in the middle of the lever.

A

First class lever (nodding the head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A lever system with the fulcrum one side of the lever and the effort on the other side of the lever

A

Second class lever (calf raise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A lever system with the fulcrum on one side of the lever and the effort between the fulcrum and the resistance.

A

Third class lever (bicep curl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A cycle whereby an injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalances

A

Cumulative injury cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system (HMS) is comprised because of the components are out of alignment

A

Movement impairment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The process whereby a tight muscle (short, overactive myofascial adhesions) causes decreased neural drive, and therefore optimal recruitment of its functional antagonist.

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The process by where a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production

A

Synergistic dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements

A

Upper extremity impairment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (tibia internally rotated and femur internally rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the limbo-pelvic-hip complex -LPHC (extension or flexion) during functional movements.

A

Lower extremity movement impairment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False: In 1985, the International Obesity Task Force deemed the prevalence of obesity an epidemic.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True or False: Today, approximately one sixth (16%) of adults are estimated to be obese.

A

False; Today, approximately one-third (33%) of adults are estimated to be obese.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or False: Eighteen percent of today’s adolescents and teenagers are considered overweight.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or False: Research suggests that musculoskeletal pain pain is less common now than it was 40 years ago because of the advancements of technology and manual labor saving devices.

A

False; Research suggests that musculoskeletal pain is more than it was 40 years ago. People are less actie and are no longer spending as much of their free time engaged in physical activity producing more inactive and nonfunctional people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In the general population, plantar fascititis accounts for more than 1 million ambulatory care (doctor) visits per year.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

It has been estimated that the annual costs attributable to low-back pain in the United States are greater than $26 billion.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

More than one third of all work-related injuries involve the trunk, and of these, more than 60% involve the low back.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Approximately 20 - 25% of ACL injuries are non contact in nature.

A

False; Approximately 70 - 75% of ACL injuries are non contact in nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Shoulder pain is reported to occur in up to 21% of the general population

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The less conditioned our musculoskeletal systems are, the higher the risk of injury.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

________ are reported to be the most common sports-related injury.

A

Ankle sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Individuals who suffer a lateral ankle sprain are at risk of developing.

A

Chronic ankle instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Low-back pain is one of the major forms of musculoskeletal degeneration seen in the adult population, affecting nearly

A

80% of all adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

An estimated _________ anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries occur annually to the general US population.

A

80,000 - 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most prevalent diagnosis of shoulders pain?

A

Shoulder impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most ACL injuries occur between

A

15 and 25 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

According to the text, a comprehensive exercise strategy using the Corrective Exercise Continuum includes all of the following:

A

identify the problem (integrated assessment)
solve the problem (corrective program design)
implement the solution (exercise technique)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the correct order of the Corrective Exercise Continuum?

A

Inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum uses self-myofascial release techniques to decrease activity of overactive neuromyofascial tissues in the body?

A

Inhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum uses isolated strengthening exercises and positional isometric techniques?

A

Activate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

___________ is a multiplanar, synchronized joint motion that occurs within eccentric muscle function.

A

Pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___________ is a multiplanar, synchronized joint motion that occurs within concentric muscle function.

A

Supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the major muscles groups of the lateral sub-system?

A

Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adductor complex, quadratus lomborum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the major muscles groups of the deep longitudinal sub-system?

A

Erector spinae, thoracolumbar fascia, sacrotuberous legament, biceps femoris, peroneus longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the major muscle groups of the anterior oblique sub-system?

A

Internal and external obliques, adductor complex, hip external rotators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which sub-system works synergistically with the deep longitudinal sub-system and consists of the gluteus maximus, thoracolumbar fascia, and contralateral latissimus dorsi?

A

Lateral sub-system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The joint support system of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) includes the following muscles.

A

Traverse abdominis, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm, pelvic floor muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the cumulative neural input from sensory afferents to the central nervous system?

A

Proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What part of the nervous system is designed to optimize muscle synergies?

A

Central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Flexion at the ankle is more accurately termed what?

A

Dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the concentric function of the anterior tibialis?

A

Accelerates ankle dorsiflexion and inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the eccentric function of the gluteus medius (posterior fibers)?

A

Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the concentric function of the latissimus dorsi?

A

Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the concentric of the posterior tibialis?

A

Accelerates ankle plantar flexion and inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the concentric function of the biceps femurs (short head)?

A

Accelerates knee flexion and tibial external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the concentric function of tensor fascia latae?

A

Accelerates hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the eccentric function of the pectorals major?

A

Decelerates shoulder extension, horizontal abduction, and external rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

True or False: Because the human movement system is an integrated system, impairment in one system leads to compensations and adaptations in other systems.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

True or False: If one segment of the human movement system is out of alignment, then other movement segments have to compensate in attempts to balance the weight distribution of the dysfunctional segment.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or False: If the gluteus medius is under active, then the tensor fascia latea (TFL) may become synergistically dominant to produce the necessary force to accomplish frontal plane stability of the limbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

True or False: Once a joint has lost its normal arthrokinematics, the muscles around that joint may spasm in an attempt to minimize the stress at the involved segment.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

True or False: Synergistic dominance is the process by which tight muscle causes decreased neural drive of its its functional antagonist.

A

False - this is known as altered reciprocal inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or False: A tight psoas decreasing the neural drive and optimal recruitment of the gluteus maximus is an example of synergistic dominance.

A

False - this is an example of altered reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True or False: If a client has a weak gluteus medius, then synergists (tensor fascia latea, adductor complex, and quadrates lumborum) oftentimes become synergistically dominant to compensate for the weakness.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

True or False: Individuals with lower extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (knock-knee), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (extension or flexion) during functional movements.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

True or False: Individuals with upper extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

True or False: Individuals who present with lower extremity movement impairment syndrome typically develop predictable patterns of injury including rotator cuff impingement, shoulder instability, biceps tendinitis, thoracic outlet syndrome, and headaches.

A

False - these patterns of injury typically accompany an upper extremity movement impairment syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

It is hypothesized that decreased posterior glide of the _______ can decrease _________ at the ankle.

A

talus, dosiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Most knee injuries occur during non contact ________ in the frontal and __________ plane.

A

deceleration, transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Abnormal contraction intensity and onset timing of the ________ and __________ have been demonstrated in subjects with patellofemoral pain (PFP).

A

vastus médiales oblique, vastes lateralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Potentially tightened or overactive muscles accompanying a lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include which of the following.

A

Peroneals, soleus, lateral gastocnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Potentially weakened or inhibited muscles accompanying an lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include which of the following.

A

Posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, pes anserine complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Individuals with upper extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

A

Pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Potentially weakened or inhibited muscles accompanying an upper extremity movement impairment syndrome include which of the following.

A

Lower trapezius, teres minor, infraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Subjects with low back pain (LBP) have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns (diminished activation) of the

A

Transverse abdominis and multifidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which muscles are lengthened, altering the normal scapulothoracic force-couple relationship when an individual exhibits a rounded shoulder posture?

A

Rhomboids, lower trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the three main pieces of information a health and fitness processional should obtain from the health risk appraisal?

A
  1. Physical readiness for activity
  2. General lifestyle information
  3. Medical history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the purpose and function of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR Q)?

A

It is designed to help determine if a person is ready to undertake low-to-moderate-to-high activity levels. Furthermore, it aids in identifying people for whom certain activities may not be appropriate or who may need further medical attention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Briefly explain how sitting for extended periods of time has an impact on the human movement system.

A

If an individual is sitting a large portion of the day, their hips are flexed for prolonged periods of time. This can lead to tight hip flexors that cause postural imbalances within the kinetic chain. Also, if an individual is working with a computer, there is a tendency for the shoulders and head to fatigue under the constant influence of gravity. This often leads to postural imbalance of round of the shoulders and head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

From a human movement system standpoint, briefly describe how construction workers and painters can develop muscle imbalances and injury of the upper extremities.

A

Construction workers and painters often work with the arms overhead for long periods of time. This may lead to possible shoulder soreness and tightness of the latissimus dorsi and weakness of the rotator cuff. This imbalance does not allow for proper shoulder motion and/or stabilization during activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Briefly describe how wearing shoes with an elevated heel (dress shoes, high heels) can have an impact on the human movement system.

A

Wearing shoes with a heel puts the ankle complex in a plantar flexion position for extended periods of time. This can lead to tightness of the gastrocnemius and soles causing postural imbalance, such as over-pronation at the food and ankle complex (flattening of the arch of the foot).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

True or False: Mental stress or anxiety can lead to a dysfunctional breathing pattern that can further lead to postural distortion and kinetic chain disfunction

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

True or False: Questions pertaining to an individuals recreational activities and hobbies are not an essential component of the health risk appraisal.

A

False, By finding out what recreational activities and hobbies an individual performs, a health and fitness professional can better design a program to fit these needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

True or False: One of the best predictors of future injuries is past injury.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

True or False: Ankle sprains have been shown to decrease the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

True or False: Knee injury can cause a decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints and lead to further injury.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

True or False: Low-back injuries can cause decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core, resulting in poor stabilization of the spine and possible further dysfunction of the upper and lower extremities.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

True or False: Surgery will cause pain and inflammation that can alter neural control to the affected muscles and joints if not rehabilitated properly.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

True or False: It is estimated that roughly 25% of the American adult population does not partake, on a daily basis, in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity.

A

False, It is estimated that roughly 75% of the American adult population does not partake, on a daily basis, in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

True or False: One of the roles of a health and fitness professional (i.e., personal trainer, athletic trainer, strength coach) is to administer, prescribe, and educate on the usage and effects of common medications.

A

False, It is not the role of a health and fitness professional t administer, prescribe or educate on the usage and effects of any of these medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The basic function of Beta-Blockers

A

Generally used as antihypertensive (high blood pressure); may also be prescribed for arrhythmias (irregular heart rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

True or False: At best, an individual/client can recall on half his or her injury history, so a close examination of imbalances through further assessment can turn up additional areas of potential risks.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The basic function of Calcium-Channel Blockers

A

Generally prescribed for hypertension and angina (chest pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The basic function of Nitrates

A

Generally prescribed for hypertension, congestive heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The basic function of diuretics

A

Generally prescribed for hypertension, congestive heart failure and peripheral edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The basic function of bronchodialtors

A

Generally prescribed to correct or prevent bronchial smooth muscle constrictor in individuals with asthma and other pulmonary diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The basic function of vasodilators

A

Used in the treatment of hypertension and congestive heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The basic function of antidepressants

A

Used in the treatment of various psychiatric and emotional disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How an individual physically presents themselves in stance. It is reflected in the alignment of the body.

A

Static Posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How an individual is able to maintain an erect posture while performing functional tasks.

A

Dynamic Posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The connective tissue in and around muscles and tendons.

A

Myofascial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Alternation in the functional relationship between pairs or groups of muscles.

A

Muscle imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Restricted motion

A

Hypomobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

A postural distortion syndrome characterized by an anterior tilt to the pelvis and lower extremity muscle imbalances.

A

Lower Crossed Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

A postural distortion syndrome characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders with upper extremity muscle imbalances.

A

Upper Crossed Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Shortened muscles in Lower Crossed Syndrome

A

Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, erector spinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances.

A

Pronation Distortion Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Lengthened muscles in Lower Crossed Syndrome

A

Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, traverse adominis, internal oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Shortened muscles in Upper Crossed Syndrome

A

Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis, pectoralis major/minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Lengthened muscles in Upper Crossed Syndrome

A

Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, Rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, infraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Shortened muscles in Pronation Distortion Syndrome

A

Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Peroneals, Adductors, illiotibial band, hip flexor complex, bicep femoris (short head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Lengthened muscles in Pronation Distortion Syndrome

A

Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, vastus medialis, gluteus medius/maximus, hip external rotators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Establishing normal length-tension relationships, which ensure proper length and strength of each muscle around a joint.

A

Muscle Balance

128
Q

“Kinetic” denotes the force transference from the nervous system to the muscular and skeletal systems as wells from joint to joint, and “chain” refers to the interconnected linkage of all joints in the body.

A

Kinetic Chain

129
Q

Assessments that involve movement without a change in one’s base of support.

A

Transitional movement assessments

130
Q

Assessments that involve movement with a change in one’s base of support.

A

Dynamic Movement Assessments

130
Q

The transitional movement assessments include:

A

Overhead squat, single-leg squat, push up, standing cable row, standing overhead dumbbell press, star balance excursion, upper extremity assessments

131
Q

The distance one can squat down on one leg while keeping the knee aligned in a neutral position (in line with the second and third toes).

A

Balance threshold

132
Q

The dynamic postural assessments include:

A

Gait, Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test, tuck jump test, Davies test

134
Q

The amount of motion available at a specific joint

A

Range of motion

135
Q

The amount obtained by the examiner without any assistance by the client.

A

Passive range of motion

136
Q

The amount of motion obtained solely through voluntary contraction from the client.

A

Active range of motion

137
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force.

A

Strength

138
Q

Muscle strength testing performed with a specialized apparatus that provides variable resistance to a movement, so that no matter how much effort is exerted, the movement takes place at a constant speed. Such testing is used to assess and improve muscular strength and endurance especially after injury.

A

Isokinetic Testing

139
Q

The process of measuring forces at work using a handheld instrument (dynamometer) that measures the force of muscular contraction.

A

Dynamometry

140
Q

Continual rubbing of the IT-band over the lateral femoral epicondyle leading to the area becoming inflamed.

A

IT-band syndrome

140
Q

True or False: A static postural assessment provides indicators of problem areas that must be further evaluated to clarify the problem at hand.

A

True

141
Q

At the end of available range, at the point in the range where the muscle is most challenged, the client is asked to hold that position and not allow the examiner to “break” the hold with manual resistance.

A

Break test

142
Q

True or False: Treating symptomatic complaints using anti-inflammatory medications, modification of activities, or simply pushing through the path may lead to further dysfunction, adding layer on layer of structural and neuromuscular adaptations.

A

True

143
Q

True or False: Looking for causative factors (versus treating symptomatic complaints) of inflammation, discomfort, or poor performance will likely result in the selection of effective intervention strategies to alleviate the dysfunction.

A

True

144
Q

True or False: A static postural assessment can accurately identify whether a problem is structural (or biomechanical) in nature or is derived from the development of poor muscular recruitment patterns with resultant muscle imbalances.

A

False, The assessment may not be able to specifically identify if a problem is structural (or biomechanical) in nature or if it is derived from the development of poor muscular recruitment patterns with resultant muscle imbalances.

145
Q

True or False: There may be several causative factors for changes in joint alignment including quality and function of myofascial tissue and alterations in muscle-tendon function.

A

True

146
Q

True or False: The combination of tight and weak muscles typically does not alter normal movement patterns.

A

False, The combination of tight and weak muscles can alter normal movement patterns.

147
Q

True or False: Work (computer) stations at home and at the office frequently contribute to neck and arm dysfunction.

A

True

148
Q

True or False: Muscle that is repeatedly placed in a shortened position, such as the iliopsoas complex during sitting, will eventually adapt and tend to remain short.

A

True

149
Q

True or False: Chronic use of the right lower extremity while driving, without awareness of trying to maintain symmetry, may allow the body to shift to the right and promote external rotation of the left lower extremity.

A

True

150
Q

True or False: Immobilizations through splinting or self-immobilization as a result of pain may allow tissue to tighten.

A

True

151
Q

According to the text, which of the following muscles is prone to lengthening (weakness)?

A

Vastus medialis oblique

152
Q

According to the text, which of the following muscles is prone to tightness?

A

Pectoralis major/minor

153
Q

All of the following are potential factors that cause postural imbalance EXCEPT:

A

Static stretching of overactive tissues before competition.

154
Q

Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by increased lumbar lordosis and an anterior pelvic tilt?

A

Lower crossed syndrome

155
Q

Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by rounded shoulders and a forward head posture?

A

Upper crossed syndrome

156
Q

Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), knee flexion, internal rotation, and adduction (knock-kneed)?

A

Pronation distortion syndrome

157
Q

True or False: Muscle balance is essential for optimal recruitment of force-couples to maintain precise joint motion and ultimately decrease excessive stress placed on the body.

A

True

158
Q

True or False: Any muscle, whether in a shortened or lengthened state, can be under active of weak because of altered length-tension relationships or altered reciprocal inhibition.

A

True

159
Q

True or False: Alterations in muscle activity will change the biomechanics motion of the joint and lead to increased stress on the tissues of the joint and eventual injury.

A

True

160
Q

True or False: Movement assessments can be categorized into two types: transitional assessments and dynamic assessments.

A

True

161
Q

True or False: Transitional movement assessments are assessments that involve movement with a change in one’s base of support such as walking and jumping.

A

False, Transitional movement assessments that involve movement without a change in one’s base of support such as squatting, pressing, pushing, pulling, and balancing.

162
Q

True or False: Dynamic movement assessments are assessments that involve movement without a change in one’s base of support such as squatting, pressing, pushing, pulling, and balancing.

A

False, Dynamic movement assessments are assessments that involve movement with a change in one’s base of support such as walking and jumping.

163
Q

True or False: Knee valgus during the overhead squat test is influenced by decrease hip adductor and hip internal rotation strength, increased hip abductor activity, and restricted ankle plantar flexion.

A

False, Knee valgus during the overhead squat test is influenced by decreased hip abductor and hip external rotation strength, increased hip adductor activity, and restricted ankle dorsiflexion.

164
Q

True or False: If an individual’s knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment, but the compensation is the corrected after elevating the heels, the primary region that most likely needs to be addressed is the foot and ankle complex.

A

True

165
Q

True or False: If an individual’s low back arches during the overhead squat assessment, but the compensation is then corrected when performing the squat with hands on hips, the primary regions most likely need to be addressed are the latissimus dorsi and pectoral muscles.

A

True

166
Q

True or False: The single-leg squat assessment assesses dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control.

A

True

167
Q

True to False: Precise neuromuscular control of range of motion at each joint will ultimately decrease excessive stress placed on the body.

A

True

168
Q

True or False: If one joint lacks proper range of motion (ROM), then adjacent joints and tissues (above or below) must move to compensate for the dysfunctional joint’s ROM.

A

True

169
Q

True or False: If an individual possesses less than adequate ankle dorsiflexion, he or she may be at greater risk or injury to the knee, hip, or low back.

A

True

170
Q

True or False: In most normal subjects, active ROM is slightly greater than passive ROM.

A

False, In most normal subjects, passive ROM is slightly greater than active ROM.

171
Q

True or False: Some joints are constructed so that the joint capsule is the limiting factor in movement whereas other joints rely solely on ligamentous structures for stability.

A

True

172
Q

True or False: Intertester reliability refers to the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by the same tester.

A

False, INTRATESTER reliability refers the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by THE SAME TESTER.

173
Q

True or False: A soft end-feel may acknowledge the presence of edema, whereas a firm end-feel may be describe increased muscular tonicity.

A

True

174
Q

True or False: Intrastester reliability refers to the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by different testers.

A

False, INTERTESTER reliability refers to the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by DIFFERENT TESTERS.

175
Q

True or False: Reliability of joint motion assessment reflects how closely the measurement represents the actual angle or total available range of motion.

A

False, Validity of joint motion assessment reflects how closely the measurement represents the actual angle or total available range of motion.

176
Q

True or False: Validity refers to the amount of agreement between successive measurements.

A

False, Reliability refers to the amount of agreement between successive measurements.

177
Q

When measuring dosiflexion of the talocrural joint (ankle), what are the primary muscles being assessed?

A

Gastrocnemius and soleus

178
Q

When measuring dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint (ankle), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

20 degrees

179
Q

When measuring extension of the tibiofemoral joint (knee), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

20 degrees

180
Q

When measuring extension of the tibiofemoral joint (knee), what are the primary muscles being assessed?

A

Hamstring complex, gastrocnemius, neural tissue (sciatic nerve)

181
Q

What is the tool used to measure joint end ranges of motion?

A

Goniometer

182
Q

When measuring flexion of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles being assessed?

A

Gluteus maximus, adductor magnus, upper portion of the hamstring complex

183
Q

When measuring flexion of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

120 degrees

184
Q

When measuring abduction of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

Adductor complex, pubofemoral ligament, iliofemoral ligament, medial hip capsule

185
Q

When measuring abduction of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

40 degrees

186
Q

When measuring internal rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

Piroformis and hip external rotators, adductor magnus (oblique fibers), ischiofemoral ligament

187
Q

When measuring internal rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

45 degrees

188
Q

When measuring external rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

adductor magnus (longitudinal fibers), iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament

189
Q

When measuring external rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

45 degrees

190
Q

When measuring extension of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

psoas, iliacus, rectus femoris, TFL, sartorius

191
Q

When measuring extension of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

0 - 10 degrees

192
Q

When measuring flexion of the shoulder complex, what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

latissimus dorsi, teres major, teres minor, infraspinatus, suscapularis

193
Q

When measuring flexion of the shoulder complex, what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

160 degees

194
Q

When measuring internal rotation of glenohumeral joint, what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

infraspinatus, teres minor, posterior glenohumeral joint capsule

195
Q

When measuring internal rotation of glenohumeral joint, what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

45 degrees

196
Q

When measuring external rotation of glenohumeral joint, what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?

A

Subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, trees major, pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, anterior glenohumeral joint capsule

197
Q

When measuring external rotation of glenohumeral joint, what is the normal value when taking this measurement?

A

90 degrees

198
Q

True or False: The ability of the nervous system to recruit and activate muscles dictates muscle strength.

A

True

199
Q

True or False: One must be a qualified health and fitness professional (i.e., licensed professional) to apply manual muscle testing techniques on clients.

A

True

200
Q

True or False: Manual muscle testing is more objective and reliable than isokinetic testing and hand held dynamometry.

A

False, While other methods of evaluating muscle function exist that are more objective and reliable than manual muscle testing, such as isokinetic testing or hand held dynamometry, manual muscle testing provides an opportunity to assess muscle function with low cost and difficulty.

201
Q

True or False: Manual muscle testing provides an opportunity to assess muscle function with low cost and difficulty.

A

True

202
Q

True or False: Overactivity of a shortened muscle will reciprocally inhibit its functional antagonist leading to a false reading that a muscle is weak when in fact the strength impression is purely a factor of joint position.

A

True

203
Q

True or False: Manual muscle testing is an assessment process used to test the recruitment capacity and contraction quality of individual muscles or movements.

A

True

204
Q

True or False: In addition to tight muscles, restrictions in skin, neural tissue, and articular ligaments can also result in muscle inhibition.

A

True

205
Q

True or False: The numeric grade of 1 represents a client who maintains good structural alignment and holds the end-range position agains the assessor’s pressure.

A

False, The numerical grade of 3 represents a client who maintains good structural alignment and holds the end-range position agains the assessor’s pressure, which indicates pure isometric contraction is present.

206
Q

True or False: A numeric grade of 3 indicates little or no ability of the client to withstand or resist pressure from the assessor.

A

False, A numerical grade of 1 indicates little or no ability of the client to withstand or resist pressure from the assessor.

207
Q

True or False: Muscle weakness can be related to several factors but the most common factors in a healthy individual are atrophy and inhibition.

A

True

208
Q

Step 1 of the NASM manual muscle testing process includes the following:

A
  • place the muscle in a shortened position or the the point of joint compensation
  • Ask the client to hold that position while applying pressure
  • Gradually increase pressure
  • Client’s strength is graded
  • If client can hold the position without compensation, then the muscle is noted as strong.
  • If the muscle is weak or compensates, move to step 2
209
Q

To improve the reliability and safety, as well as reduce errors with an MMT assessment, the following guidelines should be followed:

A
  • The same health and fitness professional should be used with a single client to reduce inter tester variability
  • Do not test a muscle in a fully lengthened position because it can lead to over stretching and injury
  • Ensure proper position of the joint before performing the test
  • Ensure proper stabilization to minimize compensations
  • Establish a time (4 seconds) for the client to hold the isometric muscle contraction
  • Provide gradual increases in pressure at a constant speed
210
Q

True or False: Evidence supporting the rationale for using self-myofascial release (SMR) for flexibility purposes is derived from research on ischemic compression and myofascial release techniques.

A

True

211
Q

True or False: Any trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation. Inflammation in turn activates the body’s pain receptors and initiates a protective mechanism, increasing muscle tension or causing muscle spasm.

A

True

212
Q

True or False: Adhesions (i.e., knots or trigger points) can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue that is evidenced by Davis’s law.

A

True

213
Q

True or False: Self-myofascial release techniques may help in releasing the micro spasms that develop in traumatized tissue and break up the facial adhesions that are created through the cumulative injury cycle process.

A

True

214
Q

True or False: Self-myofascial release is believed to stimulate receptors located throughout the muscle, fascia, and connective tissues (Golgi tendon organ, interstitial receptors, and Ruffini endings) through sustained pressure to produce an inhibitory response to the muscle spindle and decrease gamma loop activity.

A

True

215
Q

True or False: Type III and type IV receptors (interstitial receptors) in conjunction with Ruffini endings have been shown to have autonomic functions that include changes in heart rate, blood pressure, respiration and tissue viscosity.

A

True

216
Q

True or False: Decreasing vasodilation improves the ability of tissues to receive adequate amounts of oxygen and nutrients as well as removal of waste byproducts (via the bloodstream) to facilitate tissue recovery and repair.

A

False, Increasing vasodilation, the tissue can receive adequate amounts of oxygen and nutrients as well as the removal of waste byproducts (via blood) to facilitate tissue recovery and repair.

217
Q

True or False: Faulty breathing patterns (shallow chest breathing) can lead to synergistic dominance of secondary breathing muscles.

A

True

218
Q

True or False: The autonomic nervous system’s response to sustained pressure increases global muscle tonus as well as fluid dynamics to increase viscosity and the tonus of the smooth muscle cells located in fascia.

A

False, The autonomic nervous system’s response to sustained pressure changes global muscle tonus as well as fluid dynamics to decrease viscosity and the tons of the smooth muscle cells located in fascia

219
Q

True or False: Increasing sympathetic tone reduces the prolonged faulty contraction of muscle tissue that can lead to the cumulative injury cycle.

A

False, Decreasing sympathetic tone reduces the prolonged contraction of muscle tissue that can lead to cumulative injury cycle.

220
Q

True or False: Individuals who have never performed self-myofascial release should begin by using a dense and rigid roller (such as a PVX roller) because it offers increased penetration into the soft tissue.

A

False, One hold begin using a softer foam roller, which offers less penetration into the soft tissue due to its increased compressibility.

221
Q

True or False: Progression when using balls as a self-myofascial release tool should be made by beginning with a large diameter ball (i.e., medicine ball), then going to a smaller diameter, firmer ball (i.e., tennis ball, softball, baseball, golf ball).

A

True

222
Q

True or False: At the current time, there are no known reasons that self-myofascial release cannot be performed on a daily basis.

A

True

223
Q

True or False: Individuals performing self-myofascial release should hold the foam roller on a tender area for roughly 30 seconds at high intensity (maximal pain tolerance) and 90 seconds for lower intensity (minimum pain tolerance) before moving to the next region.

A

True

224
Q

True or False: Precautionary measures do not apply for self-myofacial release techniques, and it is considered safe for all populations including people with organ failure, bleeding disorders, cancer, and contagious skin conditions.

A

False, Anyone using SMR techniques should follow the same precautionary measures as those established for massage and/or myofasical release. SMR should be cautioned or avoided by people with congestive heart failure, kidney failure, and/or any organ failure such as liver and pancreas, bleeding disorders, and contagious skin conditions.

225
Q

A flexibility technique used to inhibit overactive muscle fibers.

A

Self-myofacial release

226
Q

Tissue trama, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance

A

Cumulative Injury Cycle

227
Q

States that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress.

A

Davis’s Law

228
Q

The phenomenon of the human movement system seeking the path of least resistance during function movement patterns (or movement compensation).

A

Relative Flexibility

229
Q

Inhibition of the muscle spindle resulting from the Golgi tendon organ stimulation.

A

Autogenic Inhibition

230
Q

The reflex arc consisting of small anterior horn nerve cells and their small fibers that project to the intrafusal bundle and produce its contraction, which initiates the afferent impulses that pass through the posterior root to the anterior horn cells, inducing, in turn, reflex contraction of the entire muscle.

A

Gamma loop

231
Q

A feedback circuit that can decease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell.

A

Recurrent inhibition

232
Q

A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle.

A

Stretch reflex

233
Q

The act of taking the muscle to its end ROM, actively contracting the muscle to be stretched, passively (or actively) moving to a new end ROM, then statically holding the new position for 20 - 30 seconds.

A

Neuromuscular stretching

234
Q

True or False: The second phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen overactive or tight neuromuscular tissues.

A

True

235
Q

True or False: Although the exact mechanisms responsible for the efficacy of static stretching are not fully understood, it is believed that static stretching may produce both mechanical and neural adaptations that result in increased range of motion

A

True

236
Q

True or False: The ability of an individual to perform static stretching without assistance and the slow-minimal to no motion required has led this form of flexibility training to be associated with the lower risk for injury during the stretching routine and deemed the safest to use.

A

True

237
Q

True or False: Neurologically, static stretching of neuromyofascial tissue to the end range of motion appears to decrease motor neuron excitability, possibly through the inhibitory effects from the Golgi tendon organs (autogenic inhibition) as well as possible contribution from the Renshaw recurrent loop (recurrent inhibition).

A

True

238
Q

True or False: In general, it is thought that static stretching for 5 - 10 seconds cause an acute visoelastic stress relaxation response, allowing for an immediate increase in range of motion.

A

False, In general, it is though that static stretching of 20 - 30 seconds causes an acute visoelastic stress relaxation response allowing for an immediate increase in range of motion.

239
Q

True or False: Increasing musculotendinous flexibility through stretching will lead to a decrease muscle energy absorption and trauma to muscle fibers with a decrease in injury risk being the potential result.

A

True

240
Q

True or False: Decreasing muscle stiffness through stretching will decrease the work required to perform a particular activity and potentially increase overall performance.

A

True

241
Q

True or False: Stretching exercises are primarily used to increase the available range of motion (ROM) at a particular joint, specifically if the ROM at that joint is limited by tight neuromyofascial tissues.

A

True

242
Q

True or False: The scientific literature does not support the use of stretching exercises to achieve increased joint range of motion.

A

False, Stretching exercises are primarily used to increase the available ROM at a particular joint. The scientific literature strongly supports the use of stretching exercises to achieve this goal.

243
Q

True or False: Several researchers suggest that each joint and muscle group may respond similarly to stretching protocols; this stretching protocols may not need to be different for each ROM limitation found.

A

False, Several researchers suggest that each joint and muscle group may respond differently to stretching protocols, thus each tissue to be stretched should be carefully evaluated, and the stretching protocol may need to be different for each range of motion limitation found.

244
Q

True or False: A tight or shortened hip flexor group may create an anterior pelvic tilt, causing the hamstring complex tot be lengthened under normal resting positions, which may inhibit normal hip flexion range of motion.

A

True

245
Q

True or False: Reviews of the best available research suggest that, acutely, stretching may have a detrimental effect on muscular strength and power.

A

True

246
Q

True or False: The current evidence suggests that acute pre-exercise stretching has a significant impact on injury risk although the effects of chronic, long-term stretching protocols tend to lead to increased injury rates.

A

False, The current evidence suggests that pre-exercise stretching does not have a significant impact on injury risk although the effects of chronic, long-term stretching protocols tends to lead to decreased injury rates.

247
Q

True or False: Recent research suggest that range of motion (ROM) can be improved via the application of heat or ice (either heating or cooling the tissue), suggesting that warming-up of tissue is not necessary to improve ROM.

A

True

248
Q

True or False: There is moderate evidence to indicate that regular stretching improves range of motion, strength, and performance, and decreases injury risk in healthy individuals without identified limitations in flexibility.

A

True

249
Q

True or False: There is moderate evidence to indicate that acute, pre-exercise stretching performed in isolation decreases strength and performance and does not affect the injury risk in healthy individuals without identified limitations in flexibility

A

True

250
Q

True or False: Studies have found that stretching reduces both physiologic (elecromyographic) and self-reported muscle tension, results in decreased feeling of sadness, and can decrease the levels of stress-related hormones.

A

True

251
Q

True or False: Contraindications for applying stretching techniques include osteoporosis, acute rheumatoid arthritis, and acute injury or muscle strain or tear.

A

True

252
Q

True or False: In a corrective exercise program, static stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be underactive, weak, or lengthened during the assessment process.

A

False, In a corrective exercise program, static stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be overactive/tight during the assessment.

253
Q

True or False: Most of the current research has demonstrated that neuromuscular stretching is not as effective at increasing range of motion when compared with static stretching.

A

False, Most of the current research has demonstrated that neuromuscular stretching is equally effective at increasing range of motion when compared to static stretching.

254
Q

True or False: Neuromuscular stretching is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relaxation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate.

A

True

255
Q

True or False: It is believed that the isometric contraction used during neuromuscular stretching increases motor neuron excitability as a result of stimulation to the muscle spindle and that this leads to an increased resistance to a change in length (or, ability to increase length of tissue).

A

False, It is believed that the isometric contraction used during neuromuscular stretching decreases motor neuron excitability as a result of stimulation to the Golgi tendon organ and that this leads to autogenic inhibition, resulting in decreased resistance to a change in length (or ability to increase length of tissue).

256
Q

True or False: The premise behind neuromuscular stretching (NMS) is very similar to static stretching; however, NMS usually requires the assistance of another person, and this is traditionally used under the supervision of a health and fitness professional.

A

True

257
Q

True or False: Neuromuscular stretching can be performed daily unless otherwise stated.

A

True

258
Q

True or False: Neuromuscular stretching is commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF).

A

True

259
Q

True or False: Neuromuscular stretching involves taking the muscle to its end range of motion (ROM), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 5 - 10 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20 - 30 seconds.

A

True

260
Q

True or False: Typically neuromuscular stretching involves the aid of a partner to provide a resistance to the active muscle contraction and passively stretch the joint into the new range of motion.

A

True

261
Q

True or False: Acute static stretch held for at least 30 seconds does appear to decrease muscular strength and power, where as ballistic or neuromuscular stretching does not have the same effect.

A

True

263
Q

True or False: Like static stretching, neuromuscular stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be overactive or tight during the assessment.

A

True

264
Q

True or False: Activation refers to the stimulation (or reeducation) of under active myofascial tissue.

A

True

265
Q

True or False: The use of multiple joint actions and multiple muscle synergies helps to reestablish neuromuscular control, promoting coordinated movement amount the involved muscles.

A

True

266
Q

True or False: Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase inter muscular coordination of specific muscle groups.

A

False - Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase intramuscular coordination of specific muscles.

267
Q

True or False: The eccentric component involved with isolated strengthening has been proven to play a role in the recovery of muscle injury and tendinopathies, and in preparation for integrated training.

A

True

268
Q

True or False: Integrated dynamic movement enhances the functional capacity of the human movement system by increasing multiplanar neuromuscular control.

A

True

269
Q

True or False: Multi-joint motions versus single-joint motions promote and require greater inter muscular coordination.

A

True

270
Q

True or False: Research has shown that the short-term use of unilateral exercises is ineffective at increasing performance measures.

A

False - Research has shown that the short-term use of unilateral and bilateral exercises is both effective at increasing performance measures and that unilateral exercise has a greater influence on unilateral performance.

271
Q

True or False: Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, help to place increased stress on core musculature.

A

True

272
Q

True or False: Resistance training performed on unstable surfaces may be challenging and should not be considered as an effective mode to improve a client’s movement patterns.

A

False - Resistance training performed on unstable surfaces can be challenging and could be considered to assist in improvements in movement.

273
Q

True or False: Integrated dynamic movement performed within a corrective exercise program should involve heavy loads with an explosive tempo to maximize postural stabilization.

A

False - integrated dynamic movement involves low load and controlled movement in ideal posture.

274
Q

All of the following are reasons to perform inhibitory and lengthening techniques before isolated strengthening EXCEPT:

a. When a joint is not free to move, the muscles that move it cannot be free to move it.
b. Muscles can be restored to normal even if the joints that they move are not free to move.
c. Normal muscle function is dependent on normal joint movement.
d. Impaired muscle function perpetrates and may cause deterioration in abnormal joints.

A

b - Muscles can be restored to normal even if the joints that they move are not free to move.

275
Q

What is the MOST appropriate repetition tempo during isolated strengthening exercises?

a. 1 second isometric hold at end-range and 1 second eccentric action.
b. 2 seconds isometric hold at end-range and 2 second eccentric action.
c. 2 seconds isometric hold at end-range and 4 seconds eccentric action.
d. 4 seconds isometric hold at end-range and 4 seconds eccentric action.

A

c

276
Q

Isolated strengthening exercises are used to isolate particular muscles to increase the force production capabilities through.

a. enhanced motor unit activation.
b. enhanced motor unit sychonization.
c. enhanced motor unit firing rate.
d. enhanced relative flexibility.

A

a

277
Q

Which of the following is an example of an isolated strengthening exercise for the hip?

a. Wall slides
b. Prone iso-abs
c. Floor cobra
d. Ball combo 2 with dowel rod

A

a

278
Q

Which of the following is an example of an isolated strengthening exercise for the intrinsic core stabilizers?

a. Towel scrunches
b. Chin tucks with blood pressure cuff
c. Squat to row
d. Side iso-abs

A

d

279
Q

Which of the following is an example of an isolated strengthening exercise for the shoulder?

a. Single-arm row to arrow position
b. Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
c. Standing cable external rotation
d. Ball squat to overhead press

A

c

280
Q

It is suggested that many injuries occur during _______ in the frontal and transverse planes.

a. concentric acceleration
b. eccentric deceleration
c. eccentric acceleration
d. concentric deceleration

A

B

281
Q

Multi-joint motions promote and require greater

a. intermuscular coordination
b. relative flexibility
c. synergistic dominance
d. autogenic inhibition

A

a

282
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate progression when using integrated dynamic movement?

a. Ball wall squat > step-up > lunge > single-leg squat
b. Step-up > ball wall squat > lunge : single-leg squat
c. Lunge > step-up > ball wall squat > single-leg squat
d. Ball wall squat > single-leg squat > lunge > step-up

A

a

283
Q

The purpose of positional isometrics is to increase the ________ of specific muscles necessary to heighten activation levels before integrating them back into their functional synergies.

a. intermuscular coordination
b. intramuscular coordination
c. autogentic inhibition
d. reciprocal inhibition

A

b

284
Q

Positional isometrics can be used as needed and consists of _________ set of _________ repetitions.

a. one, two
b. one, four
c. two, six
d. two, eight

A

b

285
Q

Positional isometrics are used to heighten the activation of ___________ muscle(s) of a joint.

a. underactive
b. overactive
c. hypertonic
d. tight

A

a

286
Q

Isometric muscle contractions generate ________ levels of tension than concentric muscle contractions and provide functional strength at approximately ____________ degrees on either side of the joint angle of contraction.

a. higher, 10
b. lower, 20
c. equal, 50
d. lower, 70

A

a

287
Q

What is the proper sequence of intensity when performing positional isometrics?

a. 25% > 50% > 75% > 100%
b. 20% > 40% > 60% > 80%
c. 15% > 30% > 45% > 60%
d. 10% > 20% > 30% > 40%

A

a

288
Q

A combination of pain, swelling, and impaired performance commonly associated with the Achilles’ tendon.

A

Tendinopathy

289
Q

Pain in the front of the tibia caused by an overload to the tibia and the associated musculature.

A

Medial tibial stress syndrome

290
Q

A membrane that lines the outer surface of all bones.

A

Periosteum

291
Q

Irritation and swelling of the thick tissue on the bottom of the foot. The most common complaint is pain in the bottom of the heel.

A

Plantar fascititis

292
Q

Damage to a tendon at a cellular level, but does not present to inflammation.

A

Tendinosis

293
Q

An injury to the ankle ligaments in which small tears occur in the ligaments.

A

Ankle sprain

294
Q

A flattened medial arch during weight-bearing.

A

Pes planus

295
Q

Repetitive episodes of giving way at the ankle, coupled with feelings of instability.

A

Chronic ankle instability

296
Q

A high medial arch when weight-bearing.

A

Pes cavus

297
Q

True or False: Compensation or dysfunction in one region, such as the foot and ankle, may lead to dysfunctions in other areas of the body.

A

True/False

298
Q

True or False: The foot and ankle complex must withstand a high amour of contact force (ground reaction force) with each step taken as it is closest to the impact site (foot strike).

A

True/False

299
Q

True or False: The tarsal bones consist of the cuboid, medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms, navicular, talus, and calcaneus.

A

True/False

300
Q

True or False: The subtler joint consists of the talus and tibia.

A

True/False

301
Q

True or False: The talocrural joint (tibia, fibula, and talus) is commonly called the ankle joint.

A

True/False

302
Q

True or False: The transverse arch consists of the cuboid and cuneiforms.

A

True/False

303
Q

True or False: The medial longitudinal arch is made up of the proximal, middle, and distal phalanges.

A

True/False

304
Q

True or False: Lack of ankle dorsiflexion, an increased body mass index, and a pronated foot type have been associated with plantar fascititis.

A

True/False

305
Q

True or False: The plantar fascia is a thick, fibrous band of tissue that runs from the calcaneus and fans out to insert on the metatarsal heads to support the longitudinal arch of the foot.

A

True/False

306
Q

True or False: The gastrocnemius complex, which consists of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, share a common Achilles’ tendon that inserts on the base of the talus.

A

True/False

307
Q

All of the following are risk factors for medial tibial stress syndrome EXCEPT:

a. excessive running or training
b. lack of muscular endurance of the calf musculature
c. over-pronation of the foot/ankle
d. 20 degrees of ankle dorsiflexion

A

d

308
Q

Lateral ankle sprains are the most common type of sprain, and PRIMARILY affect the lateral ankle ligaments including the:

a. anterior talofibular ligament, calcaneofibular ligament, and posterior talofibular ligament.
b. lateral collateral ligament, medial collateral ligament, and anterior cruciate ligament
c. dorsal tarsomelateral ligament, dorsal cuneonavicular ligament, and dorsal talonavicular ligament
d. medial talocalcaneal ligament, plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, and posterior talocalcaneal ligament

A

a

309
Q

Risk factors for ankle sprain include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. decreased ankle dorsiflexion range of motion
b. previous ankle sprain
c. women with increase calcaneal eversion range of motion
d. stretching the calf musculature before activity

A

d

310
Q

Musculature imbalance and tightness of the lower leg is theorized to contribute to knee valgus, specifically tightness of the lateral ankle musculature including the:

a. lateral gastrocnemius, soleus and peroneals
b. medial gastrocnemius, anterior tibilalis, and posterior tibialis
c. gracilis, popliteus, and semimembranosus
d. sarorius, semitendinsus, and flexor digitorum longus

A

a

311
Q

Pes planus (increased pronation) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. flattening, externally rotating, and everting of the feet
b. knee valgus
c. internal rotation of the femur
d. a high medial arch during weight-bearing activities

A

d

312
Q

If the knees come together during the squat (medial knee displacement) the individual may have all of the following EXCEPT:

a. decreased calf flexibility
b. greater hip external range of motion
c. increased hip abductor strength
d. decreased plantar flexion strength

A

c

313
Q

According to the text, key goniometric assessments to determine range of motion deficiencies that may be contributing to foot and ankle dysfunction include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. first metatarsophalangeal joint
b. ankle dorsiflexion
c. hip extension
d. glenohumeral internal rotation

A

d

314
Q

Key regions to inhibit via foam rolling for an individual with a foot/ankle impairment(s) include the:

a. soleus/lateral gastrocnemius, peroneals, biceps femoris, and tensor fascia
b. medial gasrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, anterior tibialis, and posterior tibialis
c. semimembranosus, semitendinosus, vastus medialis, and gluteus medius
d. Achilies’ tendon, popliteus, and gluteus maximus/medius

A

a

315
Q

Key lengthening exercises via static of neuromuscular stretches for an individual with a foot/ankle impairment(s) include the

a. medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, anterior tibialis, and gluteus medius
b. soleus/gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, and tensor fascia latae
c. semimembranosus poplieus, and gluteus maximus/medius
d. Achillies’ tendon, semitendinosus, vastus medialis, and posterior tibialis

A

b

316
Q

Key muscles to activate via isolated exercises or positional isometrics techniques for an individual with a foot/ankle impairment(s) include the:

a. Soleus/gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, and tensor fascia latae
b. toe flexors and intrinsic, foot muscles, medial gastrocnemius medial
c. peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, and peroneus teritus
d. lateral gastrocnemius, vastus lateralis, and psoas major

A

b