NASM Flashcards

NASM

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1
Q

PDS SHORT

A

Gastroc
Soleus
Adductors
Hip Flexors

Peroneals
Illiotibial Head
Biceps Femoris

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2
Q

PDS LONG

A

ANT Tib
POST Tib
MAX Glutes
MED Glutes

Vastus Medialis

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3
Q

Stabilization flexibility

A

Static stretching and SMR

1-3 sets
30sec hold

Autogenic Inhibition

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4
Q

Strength flexibility

A

Active isolated and SMR
1-2 sets
1-2 sec hold
5-10 reps

Reciprocal inhibition

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5
Q

Power flexibility

A

Dynamic stretching and SMR
1-2 sets
10-15 reps of 3-10 exercises

Reciprocal inhibition

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6
Q

Upper Crossed Syndrome SHORT

A

Upper Traps

Lats
Levator Scap

Scalenes
Sternocliedo
Subscapularis

T MAJOR

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7
Q

Upper Crossed Syndrome LONG

A

ML Traps
DC Flex

Rhomboids

Infrapinatus
Serratus ANT
t minor

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8
Q

Decreased levels of thyroid hormones cause a decrease in

A

RMR resting metabolic rate

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9
Q

RMR accounts for what percent of TDEE?

A

.7 or 70%

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10
Q

What are the stages of change?

A
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation 
Action
Maintenance
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11
Q

How many minutes should a client consume 1.5g/kg of carbs after exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment?

A

30 min

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12
Q

Small terminal branch of an artery, ends in capillaries

A

Arteriole

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13
Q

Capability of muscles to be elongated or stretched

A

Extensibility

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14
Q

As the velocity of a concentric action increases, its ability to produce force decreases

A

Force-velocity curve

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15
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath also known as

A

Dyspnea

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16
Q

What is the amount if blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?

A

Stroke volume

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17
Q

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which vessel?

A

Pulmonary arteries

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18
Q

Assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation

A

Gluconeogenesis

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19
Q

What links together to form protien?

A

Amino acids

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20
Q

What should a client foam roll To effectively target the piriformis when performing SMR

A

Posterior hip

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21
Q

When performing SMR of the adductors the focus should be on foam rolling what location of the body

A

Groin region inside upper thigh

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22
Q

Which of the following is a balance strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from the waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg

A

Single leg Romanian dead lift

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23
Q

Where should the foam rolled be placed for the lats

A

Under the arm

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24
Q

In order to properly stretched the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch a client will need to contract to which of the following during knee extension

A

Quads

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25
Q

What muscles are responsible for knee flexion

A

Biceps femoris (biceps=flex)
Semimembranosis
Semitendinosis

(Synergists= gastroc gracilis sartorius popliteus)

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26
Q

What muscles are responsible for knee extension

A

QUADS

Vastus
Rectus Femoris

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27
Q

How many sets prax or size should be performed for resistance training in the power phase

A

3-5

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28
Q

Which of the following refers to a weekly training program

A

Microcycle

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29
Q

Which of the following refers to a resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part

A

Horizontal loading

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30
Q

Clients increase in bicep strength from performing dumbbell curls is evidence of which fitness principle

A

Specificity

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31
Q

A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate and personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?

A

Behavioral reactants

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32
Q

What type of influence comes from supportive leadership?

A

Exercise leader

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33
Q

A father decides that there is too much injury risk for his overweight son to partake in personal training. This is an example of which of the following?

A

Behavioral reactants

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34
Q

Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is best tool for this type of learning?

A

Self monitoring

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35
Q

An individual exercises regularly but has not yet maintained in the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual?

A

Action

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36
Q

What is a common supplement that the body also makes internally from the amino acids methionine, glycine, and arginine?

A

Creatine

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37
Q

Scapular elevation refers to what motion of the scapula

A

Superior

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38
Q

A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create prominent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting?

A

Motor learning

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39
Q

What is the best measure of cardirespiratory fitness

A

VO2 max

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40
Q

What is the primary and product of carbohydrates after digestion

A

Glucose

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41
Q

What is the storage form of carbohydrates

A

Glycogen

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42
Q

What is EPOC

A

The metabolism is raised after exercise

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43
Q

What is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute (ML blood/minute)

A

Cardiac output

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44
Q

What is happening when the body is at a negative energy balance and amino acids are used to assist in the production of energy?

A

Gluconeogenesis

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45
Q

Nervous system gather sensory information and integrates with previous experiences to produce a motor

A

Motor control

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46
Q

Motor control processes with practice and experience/perminent change to produce a skilled movement

A

Motor learning

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47
Q

Human movement system’s response to internal and external environmental stimuli

A

Motor behavior

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48
Q

What mechano receptors are helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?

A

Muscle spindle

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49
Q

What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phosphlipids, and sterols?

A

Lipids

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50
Q

What is recommended for a client taking Beta blockers for hypertension?

A

Avoid prone positions

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51
Q

The Rockport walk test is used to determine

A

Estimated oxygen consumption

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52
Q

During the buck kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

A

Quadriceps

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53
Q

What strengthening exercise is used for a client whose knees move inward?

A

To be walking side to side

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54
Q

Working with the arms overhead for long periods of time can lead to shoulder and neck soreness as a result of tightness in what muscle?

A

Lats

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55
Q

During which phase are optimal landing mechanics 1st established?

A

Plyometric stabilization

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56
Q

What is the term for a weekly training program?

A

Micro cycle

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57
Q

What is the charm for a monthly training program?

A

Meso cycle

58
Q

What is the term for a yearly or annual training program?

A

Macrocycle

59
Q

An advanced client who is intrested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from what resistance training system?

A

Super sets

60
Q

Floor prone Cobra is appropriate for what phase of the OPT model?

A

Phase 1 stabilization

61
Q

What Repetition tempo is appropriate for muscular endurance and stabilization to develop?

A

Slow repetition tempo or 4 - 2 - 1

62
Q

Acute variables determine what?

A

The amount of stress placed on the body

63
Q

A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her 1st exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?

A

Alarm reaction

64
Q

What describes when a person is ready to move to stage 2 cardio respiratory training from stage one?

A

Client can maintain a zone one heart rate for 30 minutes

65
Q

Where should the foam roll be placed for the LAT S during SMR

A

Under the arm

66
Q

Multi planar single leg Box hop up with stabilization

A

Balance stabilization

67
Q

What is the balance stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5 to 20 seconds?

A

Single leg balance

68
Q

When performing the static latisten is doorside ball stretch what is the correct body position

A

90゚ horizontal abducted humorous

69
Q

What is a leg stabilization exercise which Preparation step involves standing in front of a Box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead

A

Step up to balance

70
Q

What does landing mid foot accomplish when performing leg power exercises

A

Ensures proper force distribution through the foot and lower extremity

71
Q

What is involved in the preparation step for a multi planar step up balance curl to overhead press exercise

A

Stand in front of a Box with feet shoulder - width a part

72
Q

What should be retracted and depressed during the mid phase of a standing cable row

A

Scapulae

73
Q

What is used to express or validate how a client feels when he or she is working during exercise

A

Ratings of perceived exertion method

74
Q

Dynamic stretching uses white concept to improve soft tissue extensibility

A

Reciprocal inhibition

75
Q

What type of exercise is floor prone Cobra

A

Core stabilization

76
Q

What is the process to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation

A

Exercise imagery

77
Q

What are the 5 stages of change model

A
Pre contemplation
 Contemplation
 Preparation
 Action
 Maintenance
78
Q

What cognitive behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior

A

Association and dissociation

79
Q

What stage is the stage where people do occasionly exercise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month

A

Preparation

80
Q

What is the process of communication that shows appreciation for clients and their strengths and

A

Affirmations

81
Q

People most frequently cite which of the following reasons for not exercising

A

Lack of time

82
Q

Which stage in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month

A

Preparation

83
Q

Apply it has worked out a few times during the past few months with a personal trainer she wants to become regularly active but isn’t sure how this is accomplished. In which stage of the stages of change model is this client

A

Preparation

84
Q

Which P of the marketing mix focuses on what is being sold

A

Product

85
Q

Motor efferent neurons

A

Transmit nerve impulses from CNS to effect or sites

86
Q

Respond to stimuli transmit nerve impulses from effect or sites to CNS

A

Sensory aferent neurons

87
Q

Thick and thin filaments slide past one another shortening the entire sarcomere

A

Sliding filament theory

88
Q

Attaches directly to the vertebrae

A

Local stabilization system

89
Q

Attach from pelvis to spine

A

Global stabilization system

90
Q

Attach from pelvis to spine

A

Global stabilization system

91
Q

Attach spine and/or pelvis to extremities

A

Movement system

92
Q

Larger inferior chambers of the heart pump blood out

A

Ventricle

93
Q

Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs

A

Right Ventricle

94
Q

Pumps oxygenated blood to the body

A

Left ventricle

95
Q

Carries blood away from the heart

A

Arteries

96
Q

Transport blood back to the heart

A

Veins

97
Q

Small branches of arteries and in capillaries

A

Arterioles

98
Q

Smallest blood vessels site of gas chemical in water exchange

A

Capillaries

99
Q

Very small veins connect capillaries to larger veins

A

Venules

100
Q

Amount of blood pumped with each contraction

A

Stroke volume

101
Q

The rate at which the heart pumps average untrained adult equals 70 to 80 beats per minute

A

Heart rate

102
Q

Volume of blood coumpt per minute heart rate times stroke

A

Cardiac output

103
Q

Highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion

A

Maximal oxygen consumption

104
Q

Upon what 5 variables are a client’s Total Training volume based

A

Training status, goals, nutritional status, age, training phase

105
Q

What amount of time allows for around 85 to 90% recovery of ATP and PC

A

60 seconds

106
Q

True or false machines allow exercise in all planes of motion

A

False

107
Q

True or false elastic resistance allows movement in multiple planes of motion

A

True

108
Q

The new clients goal is to increase lean body mass which training phase can be omitted from his annual periodization plan

A

Phase 5 power

109
Q

For resistance training in phase two strengthen durrance how many sets per exercise are recommended

A

2-4

110
Q

What percentage of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds

A

75%

111
Q

High volume training with low intensity increases which of the following

A

Metabolic rate

112
Q

A fitness professional straining a beginner client who has never tried resistant strain how many exercises per body part is most appropriate

A

1 to 2

113
Q

Phase one stabilization in durance how many sets for resistance training

A

1 to 3

114
Q

What percent intensity at stabilization endurance phase one for resistance

A

50 to 70%

115
Q

What is the rest interval for resistance training at phase one stabilization in durance

A

0 to 90 seconds

116
Q

How many repetitions for resistance training in phase 2 strength endurance

A

8-12

117
Q

How many sets for resistance exercises in phase 2 strength in durance

A

2-4

118
Q

What is the tempo for phase 2 strength endurance super sets

A

Strength 202

Stabilization 421

119
Q

What is the intensity for phase 2 strength endurance resistance training

A

70-80%

120
Q

What is the rest interval for phase 2 strength endurance resistance training

A

0-60

121
Q

What are the repetitions for resistance training in phase 3

A

6 to 12

122
Q

How many sets for phase 3 resistance training

A

3 to 5

123
Q

What is the percent intensity for resistance training phase 3

A

75 to 85%

124
Q

How many sets in phase one resistance training

A

1-3

125
Q

How many exercises per body part in phase one resistance training

A

1-2

126
Q

How many sets for phase 4 resistance training

A

4 to 6

127
Q

What is the tempo for resistance training phase 4r

A

Xxx

128
Q

How many exercises per body part for Phase 4 resistance training

A

1-3

129
Q

How many reps for flexibility in phase 5 power

A

10-15

130
Q

What are the repetitions for phase 5 resistance training strength and power super set

A

1 to 5 strength

8 to 10 power

131
Q

How many sets in phase 5 resistance training power

A

3-5

132
Q

What is the rest interval for resistance training in phase 5

A

1-2 minutes PAIRS

3-5 minutes CIRCUITS

133
Q

Save 5 resistance training how many reps for strength exercise super set and power exercise

A

1-5 strengths

8-10 power

134
Q

What type of plyometric exercise involves repeats

A

Plyometric strength such as tuck jumps or squat jumps

135
Q

What is the most common driving force for most clients in training programs

A

Adaptations cosmetic health or performance related

Improve cardiovascular efficiency, increase lean body mass, decrease body fat, increased metabolic efficiency, increase bone density,

136
Q

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute in the amount of blood pumped per beat

A

Cardiac output

137
Q

After leaving the left ventricle blood enters which structure

A

Aorta

138
Q

What is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose

A

Glycogen

139
Q

White connects bone to bone and provide static and dynamic stability

A

Ligaments

140
Q

As the velocity of a muscular contraction

INCREASES, the ability to produce force DECREASES for which part of thing muscle action spectrum

A

Concentric

141
Q

As the velocity of a muscular contraction

INCREASES, it the ability to produce force INCREASES for which part of the muscle action spectrum

A

Eccentric