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NAPLEX > NAPLEX > Flashcards

NAPLEX Flashcards

1
Q

Aminophylline conversion

A

Aminophylline x 0.8 = theophylline

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2
Q

Elemental iron in FeSO4

A

20%

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3
Q

1 ppm

A

1 mg/L

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4
Q

1 ppb

A

1 mcg/L

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5
Q

High risk waist size

A

> 40” (men), >35” (women)

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6
Q

BMI formula

A

kg/m2

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7
Q

BMI underweight

A

<18.5

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8
Q

BMI normal

A

18.5-24.9

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9
Q

BMI overweight

A

25-29.9

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10
Q

BMI obese

A

> 29.9

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11
Q

IBW formula (men)

A

50 kg + 2.3 kg for every inch >5 ft

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12
Q

IBW formula (women)

A

45.5 kg + 2.3 kg for every inch >5 ft

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13
Q

SCr normal range

A

0.6-1.2 mg/dL

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14
Q

BUN:SCr ratio

A

> 20 indicates dehydration

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15
Q

CrCl formula

A

[(140-age)/(72 x SCr)] x kg, x 0.85 if female

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16
Q

CrCl levels

A

<15 = renal failure/dialysis, 15-29 = severe deficiency, 30-59 = moderate, 60-90 = mild

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17
Q

Specific gravity

A

g/mL

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18
Q

BSA formula

A

sq. root of: (cm x kg)/3600

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19
Q

Dextrose kcal

A

3.4 kcal/g

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20
Q

Amino acids kcal

A

4 kcal/g

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21
Q

10% lipid emulsion kcal

A

1.1 kcal/mL

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22
Q

20% lipid emulsion kcal

A

2 kcal/mL

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23
Q

K+ normal range

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

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24
Q

Corrected Ca formula

A

Ca + [(4-alb) x 0.8]

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25
Q

Max total Ca & phosphate

A

45 mEq/L

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26
Q

Osmolarity of blood

A

~300 mOsmol/L

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27
Q

Osmolarity formula

A

mOsmol/L = (g/L)/(MW) x #species x 1000

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28
Q

mols formula

A

mols = g/MW

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29
Q

mmols formula

A

mmols = mg/MW

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30
Q

mEq formula

A 
mEq = (mg x valence)/MW or 
mEq = mmols/valence
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31
Q

mEq of KCl 10% liquid

A

20 mEq/15 mL

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32
Q

Celsius to Fahrenheit conversion

A

C = (F-32)/1.8

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33
Q

Elemental Ca in calcium carbonate

A

40%; absorption is acid-dependent, so take with food

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34
Q

Elemental Ca in calcium citrate

A

21%; absorption is not acid-dependent, so can be taken with or without food

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35
Q

RBC life span

A

120 days

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36
Q

Platelet life span

A

7-10 days

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37
Q

ANC & clozapine

A

Do not dispense if <2000; normal range is 2200-8000/uL

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38
Q

Anion gap formula

A

[Na+] - [Cl + HCO3]; high is >12 mEq/L

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39
Q

pH formula for acid

A

pH = pKa + log(salt/acid)

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40
Q

pH formula for base

A 
pH = 14 - pKb + log(base/salt) or
pH = pKa + log(base/salt)
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41
Q

Hydrocodone/APAP

A

Vicodin, Lorcet, Lortab, Norco, Zydone (opioid/analgesic)

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42
Q

Simvastatin

A

Zocor (statin)

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43
Q

Lisinopril

A

Zestril, Prinivil (ACEI)

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44
Q

Levothyroxine

A

Synthroid

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45
Q

Azithromycin

A

Zithromax, Z-Pak, AzaSite (macrolide)

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46
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Amoxil, Moxatag (amino-PCN)

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47
Q

Amlodipine

A

Norvasc (CCB)

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48
Q

Omeprazole

A

Prilosec (PPI)

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49
Q

Alprazolam

A

Xanax, Niravam (BZ)

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50
Q

Metformin

A

Glucophage, Glumetza, Riomet, Fortamet (biguanide)

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51
Q

HCTZ

A

Thiazide diuretic

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52
Q

Zolpidem

A

Ambien (hypnotic)

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53
Q

Atorvastatin

A

Lipitor (statin)

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54
Q

Furosemide

A

Lasix (loop)

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55
Q

Sertraline

A

Zoloft (SSRI)

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56
Q

Citalopram

A

Celexa (SSRI)

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57
Q

Ibuprofen

A

Advil, Motrin (NSAID)

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58
Q

Oxycodone/APAP

A

Percocet, Endocet, Roxicet (opioid/analgesic)

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59
Q

Prednisone

A

Deltasone (steroid)

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60
Q

Metoprolol tartrate

A

Lopressor (BB)

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61
Q

Tramadol

A

Ultram, Ryzolt (opioid)

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62
Q

Metoprolol succinate

A

Toprol XL (BB)

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63
Q

Atenolol

A

Tenormin (BB)

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64
Q

Gabapentin

A

Neurontin (anticonvulsant)

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65
Q

Fluticasone propionate

A

Flovent, Flonase (steroid)

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66
Q

Montelukast

A

Singulair (leukotriene inhibitor)

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67
Q

Clonazepam

A

Klonopin (BZ)

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68
Q

Cyclobenzaprine

A

Flexeril (muscle relaxer)

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69
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Cipro (FQ)

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70
Q

Lorazepam

A

Ativan (BZ)

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71
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Plavix (ADP inhibitor)

Test for CYP2C19 genotype (converts drug to its active metabolite)

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72
Q

Lisinopril/HCTZ

A

Zestoretic, Prinzide (ACEI/thiazide)

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73
Q

Fluoxetine

A

Prozac, Serefem, Selfemra (SSRI)

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74
Q

Amox/Clavulanate

A

Augmentin

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75
Q

Albuterol

A

ProAir HFA, Ventolin HFA, Proventil HFA (SABA)

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76
Q

Warfarin

A

Coumadin, Jantoven (anticoagulant)

Increased bleeding risk (need lower dose) with VKORC1 gene or 2C192/3 alleles

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77
Q

Rosuvastatin

A

Crestor (statin)

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78
Q

Esomeprazole

A

Nexium (Mg) / Nexium IV (Na) (PPI)

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79
Q

SMX/TMP

A

Bactrim, Septra (sulfonamide)

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80
Q

Cephalexin

A

Keflex (1st Gen Cephalosporin)

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81
Q

Pravastatin

A

Pravachol (statin)

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82
Q

Escitalopram

A

Lexapro (SSRI)

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83
Q

Trazodone

A

Desyrel (triazolopyridine)

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84
Q

Meloxicam

A

Mobic (NSAID)

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85
Q

Carvedilol

A

Coreg (alpha-blocker/beta-blocker)

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86
Q

Losartan

A

Cozaar (ARB)

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87
Q

Duloxetine

A

Cymbalta (SNRI)

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88
Q

Fluconazole

A

Diflucan (azole antifungal)

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89
Q

Ranitidine

A

Zantac (H2RA)

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90
Q

Naproxen

A

Naprosyn, Aleve/Anaprox (sodium) (NSAID)

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91
Q

Potassium Chloride

A

potassium supplement

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92
Q

Diazepam

A

Valium (BZ)

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93
Q

Triamterene/HCTZ

A

Dyazide, Maxzide (K-sparing/thiazide)

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94
Q

Oxycodone

A

Oxycontin (opioid)

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95
Q

Pantoprazole

A

Protonix (PPI)

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96
Q

APAP/Codeine

A

Tylenol #3 (analgesic/opioid)

Extensive 2D6 metabolizers may have exaggerated response

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97
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Flomax (alpha-1 blocker)

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98
Q

Doxycycline hyclate

A

Vibramycin (TCN)

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99
Q

Alendronate

A

Fosamax (bisphosphonate)

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100
Q

Valsartan

A

Diovan (ARB)

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101
Q

Paroxetine

A

Paxil (SSRI)

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102
Q

Allopurinol

A

Zyloprim (xanthine oxidase inhibitor)

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103
Q

Vit D

A

Cholecalciferol (D3), Ergocalciferol (D2 - Drisdol)

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104
Q

Amitriptyline

A

Elavil (TCA)

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105
Q

Promethazine

A

Phenergan (antihistamine)

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106
Q

Clonidine

A

Catapres (alpha-2 agonist)

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107
Q

Lovastatin

A

Mevacor (statin)

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108
Q

Venlafaxine

A

Effexor (SNRI)

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109
Q

Bupropion

A

Wellbutrin, Zyban (antidepressant, smoking cessation)

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110
Q

Triamcinolone acetonide

A

Kenalog, Nasacort, Azmacort (steroid)

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111
Q

Carisoprodol

A

Soma (muscle relaxer)

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112
Q

Valsartan/HCTZ

A

Diovan HCT (ARB/thiazide)

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113
Q

Quetiapine

A

Seroquel

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114
Q

Amphetamine salts

A

Adderall (stimulant)

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115
Q

Cefdinir

A

Omnicef

3rd Gen Cephaolosporin

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116
Q

Valacyclovir

A

Valtrex (antiviral)

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117
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

Medrol (steroid)

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118
Q

Enalapril

A

Vasotec (ACEI)

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119
Q

Pioglitazone

A

Actos (thiazolidinedione)

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120
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Lamictal (anticonvulsant)

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121
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldactone (K-sparing)

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122
Q

Metronidazole

A

Flagyl, MetroGel

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123
Q

Glimepiride

A

Amaryl (sulfonylurea)

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124
Q

Folic Acid

A

Folic acid

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125
Q

Mometasone furoate

A

Nasonex (steroid)

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126
Q

Topiramate

A

Topamax (anticonvulsant)

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127
Q

Amlodipine/Benazepril

A

Lotrel (CCB/ACEI)

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128
Q

Lisdexamfetamine

A

Vyvanse (stimulant)

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129
Q

Pregabalin

A

Lyrica (neuropathic pain)

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130
Q

Risperidone

A

Risperdal (antipsychotic)

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131
Q

Sildenafil

A

Viagra, Revatio (PDE-5 inhibitor)

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132
Q

Celecoxib

A

Celebrex (COX-2 inhibitor)

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133
Q

Insulin Glargine

A

Lantus (long-acting)

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134
Q

Clindamycin

A

Cleocin (lincosamide)

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135
Q

Temazepam

A

Restoril (BZ)

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136
Q

Tiotropium

A

Spiriva

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137
Q

Penicillin VK

A

Veetids (natural PCN)

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138
Q

Aripiprazole

A

Abilify

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139
Q

Digoxin

A

Lanoxin, Digitek (cardiac glycoside)

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140
Q

Norethindrone, ethinyl estradiol, ferrous fumarate

A

Loestrin 24 Fe

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141
Q

Propranolol

A

Inderal (non-selective BB)

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142
Q

Morphine sulfate

A

MS Contin (opioid)

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143
Q

Ramipril

A

Altace (ACEI)

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144
Q

Glipizide

A

Glucotrol (sulfonylurea)

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145
Q

Isosorbide mononitrate

A

Imdur (nitrate)

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146
Q

Benazepril

A

Lotensin (ACEI)

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147
Q

Tadalafil

A

Cialis, Adcirca (PDE-5 inhibitor)

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148
Q

Fexofenadine

A

Allegra (antihistamine)

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149
Q

Polyethylene Glycol

A

Miralax (hyperosmotic laxative)

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150
Q

Lansoprazole

A

Prevacid (PPI)

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151
Q

Hydroxyzine

A

Atarax, Vistaril

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152
Q

Mupirocin

A

Bactroban (antibiotic)

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153
Q

Buprenorphine/Naloxone

A

Suboxone (opioid/opioid antagonist)

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154
Q

Ezetimibe

A

Zetia (cholesterol absorption inhibitor)

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155
Q

Diclofenac

A

Voltaren (sodium), Flector (epolamine), Cataflam (potassium) (NSAID)

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156
Q

Glyburide

A

Diabeta, Micronase (sulfonylurea)

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157
Q

Sitagliptin

A

Januvia (DPP4 inhibitor)

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158
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A

Furadantin, Macrodantin (macrocrystals)

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159
Q

Sumatriptan

A

Imitrex (5-HT1 agonist)

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160
Q

Phentermine

A

Suprenza, Adipex (stimulant)

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161
Q

Fenofibrate

A

Tricor (fibric acid)

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162
Q

Acyclovir

A

Zovirax (antiviral)

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163
Q

Mirtazapine

A

Remeron (tetracyclic antidepressant0

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164
Q

Donepezil

A

Aricept (cholinesterase inhibitor)

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165
Q

Butalbital/APAP/Caffeine

A

Fioricet (migraine)

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166
Q

Verapamil

A

Calan (non-DHP CCB)

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167
Q

Benzonatate

A

Tessalon (antitussive)

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168
Q

Nystatin

A

Nystop (antifungal)

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169
Q

Estradiol

A

Climara, Estrace

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170
Q

Ondansetron

A

Zofran (5-HT3 antagonist)

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171
Q

Famotidine

A

Pepcid (H2RA)

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172
Q

Promethazine/Codeine

A

Phenergan w/Codeine (antitussive)

Extensive 2D6 metabolizers may have exaggerated response to codeine

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173
Q

Conjugated Estrogens

A

Premarin

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174
Q

Buspirone

A

Buspar (antianxiety)

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175
Q

Ethinyl estradiol/Etonogestrel

A

Nuvaring

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176
Q

Niacin

A

Niaspan (antihyperlipidemic)

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177
Q

Ezetimibe/Simvastatin

A

Vytorin (cholesterol absorption inhibitor/statin)

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178
Q

Olmesartan

A

Benicar (ARB)

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179
Q

Methotrexate

A

Rheumatrex, Trexall (antimetabolite)

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180
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Nizoral (azole antifungal)

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181
Q

Fentanyl

A

Duragesic (opioid)

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182
Q

Tizanidine

A

Zanaflex (muscle relaxer)

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183
Q

Finasteride

A

Propecia, Proscar (5-alpha reductase inhibtor)

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184
Q

Ethinyl Estradiol/Norgestimate

A

TriNessa, Tri-Sprintec, Ortho Tri-Cyclen

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185
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Lopid (fibric acid)

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186
Q

Nebivolol

A

Bystolic (BB)

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187
Q

Methocarbamol

A

Robaxin (muscle relaxer)

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188
Q

Omega-3 Acid Ethyl Esters

A

Lovaza (omega-3 fatty acid)

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189
Q

Levetiracetam

A

Keppra (anticonvulsant)

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190
Q

Clobetasol

A

Clobex (steroid)

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191
Q

Meclizine

A

Antivert, Bonine, Dramamine II

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192
Q

Doxazosin

A

Cardura (alpha-1 blocker)

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193
Q

Clotrimazole/Betamethasone

A

Lotrisone (antifungal/steroid)

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194
Q

Chlorhexidine

A

Hibiclens, Chlorostat (antibacterial)

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195
Q

Drospirenone/Ethinyl Estradiol

A

Gianvi, Ocella, Yaz, Zarah

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196
Q

Levofloxacin

A

Levaquin (FQ)

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197
Q

Latanaprost

A

Xalatan (glaucoma)

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198
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Concerta, Ritalin, Metadate (stimulant)

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199
Q

Olmesartan/HCTZ

A

Benicar HCT (ARB/thiazide)

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200
Q

Budesonide/Formoterol

A

Symbicort (steroid/LABA)

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201
Q

Diltiazem

A

Cardizem, Cartia, Dilacor, Tiazac (non-DHP CCB)

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202
Q

Eszopiclone

A

Lunesta

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203
Q

Methadone

A

Dolophine (opioid)

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204
Q

Prednisolone sodium phosphate

A

Orapred (steroid)

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205
Q

Memantine

A

Namenda

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206
Q

Baclofen

A

Lioresal (muscle relaxer)

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207
Q

Medroxyprogesterone

A

Depo-Provera

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208
Q

Ipratropium/Albuterol

A

Combivent (anticholinergic/SABA)

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209
Q

Ropinirole

A

Requip (anti-parkinsonian)

210
Q

Hydrocortisone

A

Anusol HC (steroid)

211
Q

Dexlansoprazole

A

Dexilant (PPI)

212
Q

Dicyclomine

A

Bentyl (antimuscarinic)

213
Q

4th Gen Cephalosporin

A

Cefepime

214
Q

5th Gen Cephalosporin

A

Ceftaroline

215
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin, Neomycin, Streptomycin

216
Q

Tobramycin/Dexamethasone

A

Tobradex (AG/Steroid)

217
Q

Carbapenems

A

Beta-lactams

Doripenem, ertapenem, meropenem

218
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

cipro, levo, moxi (Avelox), nor, o, gati

219
Q

Vancomycin

A

Vancocin (glycopeptide)

220
Q

Ketolide

A

Telithromycin

221
Q

Lincosamide

A

Clindamycin

222
Q

Macrolides

A

Azith, clarity (Biaxin), eryth, fidaxomicin (Dificid)

223
Q

Linezolid

A

Zyvox (oxazolidinone)

224
Q

PCN-ase resistant PCN’s

A

Diclox, meth, naf, oxa

225
Q

Neuraminidase Inhibitors

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

Zanamivir (Relenza)

226
Q

Sulfonylureas

A

Chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, glimeparide, glipizide, glyburide

227
Q

Metformin/Glyburide

A

Glucovance (biguanide/sulfonylurea)

228
Q

DPP4 Inhibitors

A

Sitagliptin (Januvia), linagliptin (Tradjenta), saxagliptin (Onglyza)

229
Q

Meglitinides

A

Nateglinide (Starlix)

Repaglinide (Prandin)

230
Q

GLP1 Agonists

A

Exenatide (Byetta, Bydureon)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

231
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone (Actos)

Rosiglitazone (Avandia)

232
Q

Ultra-rapid insulins

A

Aspart (Novolog)
Glulisine (Apidra)
Lispro (Humalog)

233
Q

Rapid insulins

A

Human regular (Humulin/Novolin R)

234
Q

Intermediate insulins

A

Human isophane (NPH) (Humulin/Novolin N)

235
Q

Long-lasting insulins

A

Detemir (Levemir)

Glargine (Lantus)

236
Q

5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors

A

Finasteride, dutasteride (Avodart)

237
Q

Fluticasone propionate/Salmeterol

A

Advair Diskus (steroid/LABA)

238
Q

Type I error

A

False positive; null is true, but gets rejected

239
Q

Type II error

A

False negative; null is false, but gets accepted

240
Q

Power

A

Probability of making a type II error

241
Q

RR

A

Relative Risk; % treatment / % control

242
Q

RRR

A

Relative Risk Reduction; 1 - RR

243
Q

ARR

A

Absolute Risk Reduction; % control - % treatment

244
Q

NNT

A

1 / ARR

245
Q

OR

A

Odds Ratio; odds treatment / odds control (odds is the probability of an event occurring compared to it NOT occurring)

246
Q

Discrete Data

A

Nominal & Ordinal; finite set of values, whole numbers only

247
Q

Continuous Data

A

Interval & Ratio; infinite set of values

248
Q

Nominal Data

A

categories (gender)

249
Q

Ordinal Data

A

Ranked categories, but difference between them is not equal (Likert Scale)

250
Q

Interval Data

A

Arbitrary zero point (temperature)

251
Q

Ratio Data

A

Meaningful zero point (height, weight, time)

252
Q

CEA

A

Cost-Effectiveness Analysis; dollars per x

253
Q

CMA

A

Cost-Minimization Analysis; cost comparison between two interventions w/same outcome

254
Q

Abacavir

A

Ziagen

Must test for HLAB*5701 (hypersensitivity)

255
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Tegretol

Test for HLAB*5702 if Asian (skin reaction)

256
Q

Drugs to avoid w/allergy to soy or peanuts

A

Combivent, clevedipine (Clevipex), propofol (Diprivan), & progesterone (Prometrium)

257
Q

Drugs to avoid w/allergy to eggs

A

Clevedipine (Clevipex), propofol (Diprivan), flu vaccine (no longer MMR vaccine)

258
Q

Imipenem/cilastin

A

Primaxin (beta lactam carbapenem)

259
Q

Opioids that don’t cross-react w/morphine type opioid allergy

A

Fentanyl, meperidine, methadone

260
Q

Naproxen/Esomeprazole

A

Vimovo (PPI protects gut from damage caused by NSAID)

261
Q

Sumatriptan/Naproxen

A

Treximet

262
Q

Granisetron

A

Sancuso (5-HT3 antagonist)

263
Q

REMS for EPO in oncology

A

APPRISE

264
Q

REMS for isotretinoin

A

iPLEDGE

265
Q

MTM: DM w/renal disease and/or HTN

A

ACEI/ARB

266
Q

MTM: s/p MI

A

BB

267
Q

MTM: chronic high dose steroids

A

bisphosphonate

268
Q

MTM: HF

A

BB

269
Q

Black cohosh

A

Remifenin (used for menopause Sx); Estroven = black cohosh + soy

270
Q

Supplements for breast-fed babies

A

400 IU Vit-D/day (Poly-Vi-Sol) + 1 mg/kg/day iron from age 4-6 months (Fer-In-Sol)

271
Q

Natural products that increase bleeding risk

A

DEFFGGGG; dong quai, Vit-E, feverfew, fish oil (>3 g/day), garlic (high dose), ginger (high dose), ginseng, gingko (most significant)

272
Q

Arginine

A

Lowers BP; additive effect w/BP meds

273
Q

SJW: do not use with…

A

OCP’s, transplant drugs, warfarin

274
Q

Vit E risk

A

CV risk at >150 IU/day

275
Q

Kava risk

A

hepatotoxicity (used for anxiety)

276
Q

Lysine

A

Used for canker sores (aphthous ulcers)

277
Q

SAMe

A

Used for depression & osteoarthritis

278
Q

Natural products for menopause

A

Black cohosh, red clover, evening primrose, dong quay (increased INR)

279
Q

NIH recommended calcium intake for women

A

1000 mg/day (age 19-50), 1200 mg/day (>50)

280
Q

NIH recommendation Vit-D intake for women

A

600 IU/day (up to age 70), 800 IU/day (>70)

281
Q

Calcium citrate

A

Citracal (1500 mg tablet has 315 mg elemental calcium - 21%); calcium carbonate has 40% (400 mg elemental calcium in a 1000 mg tablet)

282
Q

B-vitamin names

A

B1 = thiamine, B3 = niacin, B6 = pyrodoxine

283
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Vit B1 déficience; usually caused by alcoholism

284
Q

Vit-B supplement w/TB meds

A

B6 25-50 mg/day

285
Q

P-gp substrates

A

dabigatran (Pradaxa), rivaroxiban (Xarelto)

286
Q

P-gp inhibitors

A

cyclosporine, ketoconazole, itraconazole, ritonavir, erythromycin, verapamil, SJW

287
Q

Major CYP inducers

A

PS-PORCS (phenytoin, smoking, phenobarbital, oxcarbazepine, rifampin, carbamazepine, SJW)

288
Q

Major CYP inhibitors

A

G-PACMAN (grapefruit, PI’s (esp. ritonavir), azole antifungals, cimetidine, macrolides, amiodarone, non-DHP CCB’s)

289
Q

Amiodarone interactions

A

QT drugs (TCA’s, eryth, other antiarrythmics - decrease dose 30-50% of digoxin, quinidine, procainamide), other negative chronotropes (BB’s, non-DHP CCB’s), electrolyte abnormalities, grapefruit, ephedra/SJW, warfarin (decrease dose 30-50%), statins (need lower doses of simp, lova, ator only)

290
Q

Azoles w/pH-dependant absorption

A

Itraconazole (Sporanox) & ketoconazole (Nizoral)

291
Q

Voriconazole

A

Vfend; CI w/lots of drugs; PO must be taken 1 hr before/after meals

292
Q

Warfarin isomers

A

S more potent than R; S is a 2C9 substrate

293
Q

Drugs that increase bleeding risk w/warfarin, but don’t affect INR

A

NSAID’s, clopidogrel/prasugrel, gingko

294
Q

Drugs that increase K+

A

ACEI’s, ARB’s, amiloride, triamterene, K-sparing diuretics, salt substitutes, OCP’s w/drospirenone

295
Q

Live vaccines

A

MMR, varicella, zoster, yellow fever, FluMist

296
Q

5 most common Gram(+)

A

Staph, Strep, Enterococcus, Clostridium, Listeria

297
Q

Lipophilic ABX

A

FQ’s, macrolides, rifampin, linezolid, TCN’s, chloramphenicol

298
Q

Hydrophilic ABX

A

Beta-lactams, AG’s, vancomycin, daptomycin

299
Q

PCN that isn’t renally cleared

A

Nafcillin

300
Q

Cephalosporin that isn’t renally cleared

A

Ceftriaxone

301
Q

FQ’s that do get cleared renally

A

Levo & cipro

302
Q

TCN that does get renally cleared

A

Tetracycline

303
Q

Macrolides that get cleared renally

A

none

304
Q

AG’s

A

MOA: protein synthesis inhibitors
Concentration-dependant (once daily high dose)
Gram(-) coverage

305
Q

PCN’s

A 
MOA: cell wall synthesis inhibitors
Time-dependant
Pip & ticar have Psuedomonas coverage
Refrigerate Augmentin susp
Nafcillin extrav: cold + hyaluronidase
306
Q

Ceph’s

A

MOA: cell wall synthesis inhibitors
Time-dependant
As generations increase, coverage increases vs. Strep & Gram(-), but decreases vs. Staph

307
Q

1st Gen ceph’s

A

Better vs. Staph than Strep

Gram (-) coverage PEK (Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella

308
Q

2nd Gen ceph’a

A

Gram (-) HNPEK (Haemophilus, Neisseria)
Anaerobic B. fragilis
Cefotetan can cause disulfiram-like rxn

309
Q

3rd Gen ceph’s

A

Gram (-) HNPEKS (Serratia)

Ceftazidime covers Pseudomonas

310
Q

4th Gen ceph’s

A

Gram (-) HNPEKS + CAPES (Citrobacter, Acinetobacter, Pseudomonas, Enterobacter, Serratia)

311
Q

5th Gen ceph

A

Covers MRSA

312
Q

Carbapenems

A 
MOA: cell wall synthesis inhibitors
Time-dependant
Very broad coverage, but no MRSA, VRE, or C. diff
Ertapenem does not cover Pseudomonas
High cross-sensitivity w/PCN allergy
313
Q

FQ’s

A

MOA: Inhibit topo II & IV
Concentration-dependant
Cipro & levo better vs. Gram (-) incl. Pseudomonas
Moxi beter vs. Gram (+) & anaerobes
Avoid Cipro w/seizure disorders & in children <18

314
Q

Macrolides

A

MOA: protein synthesis inhibitors

Do NOT refrigerate azith/clarith susp, but MUST refrigerate EES susp

315
Q

TCN’s

A

MOA: protein synthesis inhibitors

316
Q

Sulfonamides

A

MOA: inhibit folic acid synthesis
Adult UTI: 1 DS tab BID x 3 days
2C9 inhibitors (caution w/warfarin)

317
Q

Vancomycin

A

Time-dependant
DOC for MRSA
Dose: 15-20 mg/kg q8-12h
Infuse max 5 mg/mL

318
Q

Cat D ABX

A

TCN’s (bones), AG’s, fluconazole, metronidazole (1st trimester), SMX-TMP (3rd trimester), nitrofurantoin (at term)

319
Q

ABX for surgical ppx

A

Cefazolin or cefuroxime

320
Q

ABX for meningitis

A

PCN or ceftriaxone

321
Q

ABX for ear infection

A

High-dose amox/Aug (90 mg/kg/day) q12h

322
Q

ABX for TB

A

Latent: INH x 9 mos or rifampin x 4 mos
Active: Rifampin/INH/pyrazinamide/ethambutol x 4 wks, then INH/rifampin x 18 wks
Take INH on empty stomach (it is also a strong CYP inhibitor)
Ethambutol causes vision problems

323
Q

ABX for intra-abdominal infection

A

Ceftriaxone x 5-7 days

324
Q

ABX for Lyme disease

A

doxycycline

325
Q

ABX for UTI

A

SMX-TMP or cipro/levo

326
Q

ABX for C. diff

A

metronidazole + vanco

327
Q

ABX for syphilis

A

PCN G (Bicillin LA only) 2.4 million units x 1 (if infected for <1 yr; otherwise once a week x 3 wks)

328
Q

ABX for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1

If also chlamydia, add azith 1 gm x 1

329
Q

ABX for vaginosis

A

metronidazole 500 BID x 7 days or gel daily x 5 days

330
Q

Levels for gent/tobra

A

Peak 5-10, trough <2

Dose 1-2.5 mg/kg IBW

331
Q

ABX for VRE faecalis

A

Daptomycin (cannot be used for lung infections); for VRE faecium, use quinupristin-dalfopristin

332
Q

ABX for CAP

A

macrolide

333
Q

Minocycline

A

Solodyn, Minocin

334
Q

Rifaximin

A

Xifaxin (for travelers diarrhea)

335
Q

3 preferred ART regimens

A
  1. NNRTI efavirenz + 2 NRTI’s tenofovir & emtricitabine; emtracitabine & tenofovir = Truvada; all three = Atripla
  2. PI atazanavir or darunavir (both boosted w/ritonavir) + 2 NRTI’s (Truvada)
  3. Integrase inhibitor raltegravir + 2 NRTI’s (Truvada)
336
Q

Tenofovir + Emtracitabine

A

Truvada (NRTI’s); may cause HBV resistance to develop, or may exacerbate it when D/C this drug; may cause hyperpigmentation of palms/soles, Fanconi’s syndrome, renal insufficiency, osteomalacia, & decreased bone density; used as ppx (1 tab daily) for HIV

337
Q

Efavirenz

A

Sustiva (NNRTI); must take at bedtime on an empty stomach; may cause vivid dreams, suicidal thoughts, mania/depression

338
Q

Protease Inhibitors

A

All may cause issues w/blood sugar, fat, liver; all are strong 3A4 inhibitors; ritonavir caps must be refrigerated (not tabs)

339
Q

Prevention & treatment of hepatic portal HTN/variceal bleeding

A

Prevention: non-selective BB’s (nadolol, propranolol); treatment: octreotide or vasopressin

340
Q

Treatment for Hep B/C

A

Interferons (TIW - once a week for pegylated); flu-like side effects; ribavirin & PI’s also used for HepC & NRTI’s also used for HepB (lamivudine = Epivir HBV)

341
Q

Treatment for hyperthyroid during pregnancy

A

PTU 1st trimester, then methimazole after (both are Cat D)

342
Q

Children’s dose for APAP

A

10-15 mg/kg q4-6h; max 5 doses/day (same dose for ibuprofen)

343
Q

Ketorolac

A

Toradol (NSAID); max 5 days, usually post-op (never pre-op)

344
Q

NSAID’s w/COX-2 selectivity

A

celecoxib, meloxicam (Mobic), etodolac (Lodine), nabumetone (Relafen)

345
Q

Morphine + naltrexone

A

Embeda

346
Q

Tapapentadol

A

Nucynta; opioid agonist/NE reuptake inhibitor; less GI S/E than other opioids

347
Q

Converting between opioids

A

Calculate total 24-hr dose of current drug, convert as a ratio based on tables, calculate dose of new drug, & reduce by 25%

348
Q

Drugs that raise blood sugar

A

Steroids & PI’s for sure; niacin, thiazides (high doses only), olanzapine, statins, cyclosporine, tacrolimus

349
Q

Drugs that lower blood sugar

A

FQ’s, BB’s, EtOH

350
Q

HTN in DM patients

A

Goal is s are 1st-line

351
Q

Biguanide

A

Metformin (Glucophage, Fortamet, Glumetza); decreases production of glucose in liver & absorption in intestines; CI w/SCr 1.5 males/1.4 females or CrCl<60; BID w/meals; not to be used w/hypoxia

352
Q

Metformin + glyburide

A

Glucovance

353
Q

Metformin + sitagliptin

A

Janumet

354
Q

Sulfonylureas

A

Chlorpropamide (Diabinese), Glipizide (Glucotrol), Glimepiride (Amaryl), Glyburide (Diabeta, Micronase); stimulate insulin secretion; once daily w/breakfast; hypoglycemia/weight gain

355
Q

Meglitinides

A

Repaglinide (Prandin), Nateglinide (Starlix); stimulate insulin secretion; hypoglycemia/weight gain; 15-30 min before meals (skip)

356
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone (Actos), Rosiglitazone (Avandia); increase glucose uptake into peripheral tissue; weight gain; daily with/without food; takes a few weeks

357
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbase (Precose), Miglitol (Glyset); delayed glucose absorption; no weight gain or hypoglycemia; take w/first bite of each meal (skip)

358
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors

A

Sitagliptin (Januvia), Saxagliptin (Onglyza), Linagliptin (Tradjenta); prevent breakdown of hormones that regulate BG levels; no weight gain; qam with/without food

359
Q

GLP-1 agonists

A

Exenatide (Byetta, Bydureon), Liraglutide (Victoza); cause nausea & pancreatitis; may cause weight LOSS; not for CrCl<30; Byetta 5 mg BID 30 min before meals (NEVER after meal); Bydureon once a week

360
Q

Pramlintide

A

Symlin; SC injected before each meal (skip); short-acting (“mealtime” insulin dose must be decreased by 50% at first (can cause severe hypoglycemia)

361
Q

Rapid insulin

A

15 min before meal or after meal; aspart (Novolog), glulisine (Apidra), lispro (Humalog)

362
Q

Short insulin

A

30 min before meal (NOT after meal); regular (Humulin/Novolin R)

363
Q

Intermediate insulin

A

1-2 times/day; NPH (Humulin/Novolin N); looks cloudy

364
Q

Long insulin

A

Bedtime (“baseline”); glargine (Lantus), detemir (Levemir)

365
Q

eAG

A

Estimated avg glucose

eAG = 28.7 x A1C - 46.7

366
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate (Boniva), zoledronic acid (Reclast); use for max 3-5 yrs; take first thing in the morning w/full glass of water & stay upright

367
Q

TNF-alpha inhibitors

A

Biologics for RA; etanercept (Enbrel) once a week; adalimumab (Humira) every 2 wks; infliximab (Remicade) every 8 wks

368
Q

Colchicine

A

Colcrys for acute gout attack; 1.2 mg, then 0.6 mg 1 hr later; wait 3 days for another round; diarrhea in 80% of pts; for ppx, 0.6 mg daily

369
Q

Loop equivalents

A

furosemide 40 = bumetanide 1 = torsemide 20

370
Q

ARB’s

A

All are Cat D; valsartan (Diovan), losartan (Cozaar), olmesartan (Benicar), irbesartan (Avapro)

371
Q

ACEI’s

A

All are Cat D; benazepril (Lotensin), enalapril (Vasotec), lisinopril (Zestril, Prinivil), ramipril (Altace)

372
Q

Beta-1 selective BB’s

A

atenolol (Tenormin), metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL)

373
Q

Non-selective BB’s

A

prpranolol (Inderal), carvedilol (Coreg - take w/food), labetalol (Trandate)

374
Q

Clonidine

A

Catapres (alpha-2 agonist); once a week patch

375
Q

Alpha blockers

A

doxazosin (Cardura), prazosin (Minipress), terazosin (Hytrin); not 1st-line for HTN; mostly for BPH

376
Q

amlodipine + benazepril

A

Lotrel

377
Q

Losartan + HCTZ

A

Hyzaar

378
Q

Lisinopril + HCTZ

A

Zestoretic, Prinzide

379
Q

Statins

A

Cat X; daytime = ator (Lipitor), prav (Pravachol), rosuv (Crestor), pitav (Livalo); 3A4 metabolized = simv (Zocor), lova (mevacor), ator (Lipitor)

380
Q

simvastatin + ezetemibe

A

Vytorin

381
Q

Required for HF pts

A

ACEI + BB; if still symptomatic, add on ARB, aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone, eplerenone/Inspra), or hydrazine/nitrate

382
Q

Treatment for chronic angina

A

Antiplatelet (ASA or clopidogrel) + antianginal (BB’s are 1st-line, CCB’s for Prinzmetal’s, ranolazine/Ranexa, nitrates)

383
Q

Dosing for angina nitrates

A

NTG patch: on 12-14 hrs, off 10-12 hrs
NTG oint: BID, 6 hrs apart, off for 10-12 hrs
Isosorbide mononitrate: BID, 7 hrs apart, when waking up, then 7 hrs later
Isosorbide dinitrate: TID w/14-hr dose-free interval (7am, 12pm, 5pm)

384
Q

Enoxaparin dosing

A

VTE ppx: 30 mg q12 or 40 mg daily (if CrCl<30, 30 mg daily)

Treatment VTE or NSTEMI: 1 mg/kg q12 or 1.5 mg/kg daily (1 mg/kg daily for CrCl)

385
Q

Fondaparinux

A

Arixtra (CI if CrCl is <30)

386
Q

Dabigatran

A

Pradaxa (direct thrombin inhibitor)

387
Q

Rivaroxiban

A

Xarelto (factor Xa inhibitor)

388
Q

Treatment for NSTEMI/unstable angina

A

MONA (morphine, oxygen, nitrates, ASA)

GAP-BA (GPIIB/IIIa antagonists, anticoagulants, P2Y12 inhibitors, BB’s, ACEI’s)

389
Q

Treatment of STEMI

A

MONA + GAP-BA + thrombolytics (alteplase, etc)

390
Q

GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors

A

abciximab (Reopro), eptifibitide (Integrilin), tirofiban (Aggrastat)

391
Q

P2Y12 inhibitors

A

clopidogrel (Plavix), prasugrel (Effient), ticagrelor (Brilinta - may cause dyspnea; effectiveness reduced by ASA doses >100 mg)

392
Q

PDE-5 inhibitors for PAH

A

sildenafil (Revatio), tadalafil (Adcirca); relax blood vessels in the lungs

393
Q

Treatment of COPD

A

Anticholinergic (short-acting ipratropium, long-acting tiotropium) + beta-2 agonists

394
Q

Ipratropium

A

Atrovent HFA (short-acting anticholinergic)

395
Q

Ipratropium + albuterol

A

Combivent, DuoNeb

396
Q

Tiotropium

A

Spiriva (long-acting anticholinergic)

397
Q

Salmeterol

A

Servent Diskus (LABA)

398
Q

Salmeterol + fluticasone

A

Advair Diskus

399
Q

Formoterol + budesonide

A

Symbicort

400
Q

Arformoterol

A

Brovana (nebs)

401
Q

Roflumilast

A

Daliresp (PDE-4 inhibitor that reduces inflammation in lungs; used for severe COPD

402
Q

Drugs that cause QT prolongation

A

Amiodarone, FQ’s, macrolides, azoles, PI’s, TCA’s, SSRI’s (esp citalopram), SNRI’s, TCA’s, ondansetron, antipsychotics

403
Q

Class Ia antiarrythmics

A

Intermediate-lasting: quinidine (diarrhea, cramps), procainamide (agranulocytosis, lupus-like syndrome), disopyramide (Norpace)

404
Q

Class Ib antiarrythmics

A

Short-lasting; Lidocaine, mexilitine

405
Q

Class Ic antiarrythmics

A

Long-lasting: flecainide (Tambocor), propafenone (Rhythmol)

406
Q

Class II antiarrythmics

A

BB’s: esmolol (Brevibloc), propranolol (Inderal)

407
Q

Class III antiarrythmics

A

Amiodarone (Cordarone), dronedarone (Multaq), sotalol (Betapace), ibutilide (Corvert), dofetilide (Tikosyn)

408
Q

Class IV antiarrythmics

A

Non DHP CCB’s

409
Q

Treatment for asthma in pregnancy

A

Albuterol & budesonide are DOC’s

410
Q

Smoking cessation Rx drugs

A

Zyban (bupropion SR), Chantix (varenicline)

411
Q

Fluticasone propionate (asthma & allergies)

A

Flovent & Flonase

412
Q

Mometasone (asthma & allergies)

A

Asmanex & Nasonex

413
Q

Triamcinolone acetonide (asthma & allergies)

A

Azmacort & Nasacort AQ

414
Q

Beclomethasone (asthma & allergies)

A

Beclovent & Beconase

415
Q

Budesonide (asthma & allergies)

A

Pulmicort & Rhinocort Aqua

416
Q

Dornase alfa

A

Pulmozyme (nebs used in CF to promote clearance of mucus); pancreatic enzymes also given because mucus obstructs natural flow (take BEFORE meals)

417
Q

Epoetin alfa

A

Epogen, Procrit; IV/SC TIW

418
Q

Darbopoetin

A

Aranesp; IV/SC weekly or q2weeks

419
Q

Drug therapy for transplants

A

Calcineurin inhibitor + steroids +/- Cellcept; NEVER skip doses; no NSAID’s or live vaccines; taper prednisone if taking for >7-10 days

420
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil

A

CellCept (inhibits T-cell proliferation by altering purine synthesis); may cause infection risk, lymphoma, skin cancer, congenital malformations/spontaneous abortions during pregnancy

421
Q

Tacrolimus

A

Prograf (calcineurin inhibitor); take on empty stomach; may cause hyperglycemia & hair loss; no grapefruit

422
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Neoral, Gengraf, Sandimmune (calcinuerin inhibitor); may cause HTN, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia

423
Q

mTOR kinase inhibitors

A

(transplants) sirolimus (Rapamune) & everolimus (Afinitor); may cause peripheral edema & HTN

424
Q

Treatment for Alzheimer’s

A

ACh inhibitors: donepezil (Aricept - also ODT), rivastigmine (Exelon - also patch), galantamine (Razadyne), tacrine (Cognex - hepatotoxic); all may cause N/V & loose stools; memantine (Namenda) may be added on

425
Q

Add-on drugs for depression

A

buspirone (BuSpar), aripiprazole (Abilify), olanzapine/fluoxetine (Symbyax), quetiapine ER (Seroquel XR)

426
Q

Antidepressants during pregnancy

A

Preferred are SSRI’s (except paroxetine) & TCA’s

427
Q

Antidepressants

A

SSRI’s & SNRI’s require 2-week washout period w/MAOI (5 wks fluoxetine); need to be taoered off (esp. paroxetine)

428
Q

Fluoxetine

A

Prozac, Sarafem; causes activation, so take in the morning

429
Q

Paroxetine

A

Paxil

430
Q

Fluvoxamine

A

Luvox (only for OCD & SAD)

431
Q

Sertraline

A

Zoloft

432
Q

Citalopram

A

Celexa

433
Q

Escitalopram

A

Lexapro

434
Q

Venlafaxine

A

Effexor

435
Q

Duloxetine

A

Cymbalta

436
Q

Desvenlafaxine

A

Pristiq

437
Q

Amitriptyline

A

Elavil, Limbitrol (TCA)

438
Q

Doxepin

A

Sinequan (TCA)

439
Q

Phenelzine

A

Nardil (MAOI)

440
Q

Selegiline

A

Emsam patch (TCA for depression); Eldepryl & Zelapar tabs are for Parkinson’s

441
Q

Bupropion

A

Wellbutrin, BUdeprion; DO NOT use w/seizure disorder, bipolar, or anorexia; no sexual dysfunction; max 450 mg/day

442
Q

Mitrazapine

A

Remeron; take at night (sedating)

443
Q

Clozapine

A

Clozaril; best efficacy among antipsychotics, but only for pts who don’t respond to two others first; may cause agranulocytosis; min WBC 3500, ANC 2000

444
Q

Thioridazine

A

Mellaril; high risk for QT prolongation

445
Q

Antipsychotics w/weight gain & elevated BG/lipids

A

clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone

446
Q

Long-acting antipsychotics

A

Haldol decanoate (IM q4wks), Risperdal Consta (risperidone - q2wks), Invega Sustenna (paliperidone - q4wks)

447
Q

Antipsychotics that come as ODT’s

A

clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, asenapine

448
Q

Antipsychotics w/QT risk

A

ziprasidone, risperidone, paliperidone, asenapine

449
Q

Olanzapine

A

Zyprexa

450
Q

Risperidone

A

Risperdal; may increase prolactin

451
Q

Quetiapine

A

Seroquel

452
Q

Ziprasidone

A

Geodon

453
Q

Aripiprazole

A

Abilify

454
Q

Paliperidone

A

Invega; may increase prolactin

455
Q

Asenapine

A

Saphris

456
Q

Treatment for bipolar

A

Valproic acid (Depakene), divalproex (Depakote), lamotrigine (Lamictal - preferred in pregnancy), lithium (Lithobid), 2nd gen antipsychotics

457
Q

Treatment for PD

A

Carbo/levo, COMT inhibitor, dopamine agonists, amantadine, anticholinergics, MAO-B’s

458
Q

Carbidopa/levodopa

A

Sinamet (ODT = Parcopa); decreased absorption w/iron & protein-rich foods

459
Q

Entacapone

A

Comtan (COMT inhibitor); only used with levodopa

460
Q

Levodopa/carbidopa + entacapone

A

Stalevo

461
Q

Pramipexole

A

Mirapex (DA agonist); decrease dose if CrCl<60

462
Q

Ropinarole

A

Requip (DA agonist)

463
Q

Rotigotine

A

Neupro (DA agonist); 24-hr patch

464
Q

Apomorphine

A

Apokyn (DA agonist); SC injection rescue for off periods in PD; CI w/ondansetron & all 5-HT3 antagonists due to severe hypotension

465
Q

Selegiline

A

Eldepryl, Zelapar ODT (MAO-B); only works if taken w/levodopa

466
Q

Rasagiline

A

Azilect (MAO-B)

467
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Ritalin, Methylin (chewable), Metadate (CD has beads that dissolve at different rates), Daytrana (patch), Concerta (OROS delivery system)

468
Q

Dexmethylphenidate

A

Focalin

469
Q

Dextroaphetamine/Amphetamine salts

A

Adderall

470
Q

Lisdexamfetamine

A

Vyvanse (can’t be injected or snorted, so less abuse potential); can be mixed w/water & drank right away; pro-drug of dextroamphetamine

471
Q

Atomoxetine

A

Strattera (2nd-line therapy, or if there is fear of abuse)

472
Q

Kapvay

A

ER formulation of clonidine

473
Q

Modafanil

A

Provigil

474
Q

Armodafanil

A

Nuvigil

475
Q

Best BZ’s for elderly

A

Lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam

476
Q

Zalepion

A

Sonata

477
Q

Eszopiclone

A

Lunesta

478
Q

Ramelteon

A

Rozerem (melatonin receptor agonist)

479
Q

Doxepin ER

A

Silenor; TCA used for staying asleep

480
Q

Drugs for MS

A

IFN’s (Avenox, Betaseron), glatiramer (Copaxone), natalizumab (Tysabri - q4wks, risk of PML, TOUCH program)

481
Q

Omeporazole + sodium bicarb

A

Zegarid

482
Q

Misoprostol

A

Cytotec (cytoprotective agent); Cat X

483
Q

Treatment for BPH

A

Alpha blockers tamsulosin (Flomax), alfuzosin (Uroxatral - QT prolongation), silodosin (Rapaflo) and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors finasteride (Proscar), dutasteride (Avodart)

484
Q

Methylnaltrexone

A

Relistor; SC injection that blocks opioid receptors in the gut

485
Q

PUD triple therapy

A

PPI + 2 ABX (amox + clarith); Prevpac

486
Q

PUD quadruple therapy

A

PPI + bismuth + metronidazole + TCN

487
Q

Timolol

A

Timoptic (BB)

488
Q

Levobunolol

A

Betagan (BB)

489
Q

Travoprost

A

Travatan Z (PG analog)

490
Q

Dorzolamide

A

Trusopt (CAI)

491
Q

Brimonidine

A

Alphagan P (adrenergic)

492
Q

Drugs for itchy eyes

A

Ketotifen (Zaditor, Alaway), naphazoline (Visine)

493
Q

Azith eyedrops

A

Azasite

494
Q

Moxiflox eyedrops

A

Vigamox

495
Q

Cipro eyedrops

A

Ciloxan

496
Q

Tobramycin eyedrops

A

Tobrex

497
Q

Cyclosporine emulsion

A

Restasis (for dry eyes)

498
Q

Minocycline ER

A

Solodyn (for acne)

499
Q

Imiquimod

A

Aldara (genital warts)

500
Q

Very high potency steroids

A 
Clobetasol propionate (Clobex, Temovate)
Betamethasone dipropionate (Diprolene oint)
501
Q

High potency steroids

A 
Betamethasone dipropionate (Diprolene cream)
Mometasone furoate (Elocon oint)
Fluocinonide (Lidex)
502
Q

Medium potency steroids

A 
Mometasone furoate (Elocon cream)
Triamcinolone acetonide (Kenalog)
Hydrocortisone valerate (Westcort oint)
503
Q

Low potency steroids

A

Desonide (DesOwen
Hydrocortisone valerate (Westcort cream)
Fluocinolone acetonide (Derma-Smoothe)
Hydrocortisone

504
Q

Mupirocin

A

Bactroban (minor cuts & burns)

505
Q

Bimatoprost

A

Latisse (for thinning eyelashes)

506
Q

Docosanol

A

Abreva (cold sores)

507
Q

Neuromuscular blockade

A

Succinylcholine (intubation only, depolarizing), rocuronium (Zemuron)

508
Q

Aminocaproic acid

A

Amicar (for hemostasis)

509
Q

APAP antidote

A

N-acetylcysteine

510
Q

Warfarin antidote

A

Phytonadione (AquaMephyton)

511
Q

Antidote for antocholinergics

A

Physostigmine (Antilirium)

512
Q

Antidote for BZ’s

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

513
Q

Antidote for heparin

A

protamine

514
Q

Antidote for iron

A

Deferoxamine (Desferal)

515
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

alkylator; bladder toxicity (use MENSA)

516
Q

Aromatase inhibitors

A

anastrazole (Arimidex), exemestane (Aromasin), letrozole (Femara)

517
Q

SERM’s

A

tamoxifen (Nolvadex), raloxifene (Evista), fulvestrant (Faslodex)

518
Q

Anthracyclines

A

“rubicins” - cardiotoxic; may use dexrazoxane (Zinecard) if doxorubicin will be >300 mg/m2

519
Q

Bevacizumab

A

Avastin (angiogenesis inhibitor); causes HTN

520
Q

Cisplatin

A

Platinol; must hydrate vigorously due to nephrotoxicity

521
Q

Mercaptopurine

A

Purinethol; xanthine oxidase metabolizes it, so allopurinol raises its bioavailability 400-500%

522
Q

capecitabine

A

Xeloda (prodrug of 5-FU)

NAPLEX (2 decks)

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