Nagelhout Chapter 59 Flashcards

1
Q

What factors have contributed to the decline in anesthesia-related mortality?

A

Better monitoring techniques, enhanced understanding of anesthesia risks, improved airway management, and knowledge sharing among professionals.

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2
Q

What is the range of anesthesia-related mortality rates depending on classification?

A

Anesthesia-related mortality rates can range from 0.8% to 34% of all surgical deaths.

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3
Q

What are key risk factors associated with anesthesia mortality?

A

Poor patient health (ASA status 3-5), lack of standardized protocols, high-risk procedures or emergencies, and failures in communication between care providers.

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4
Q

What are some factors contributing to anesthesia-related mortality?

A

Patient comorbidities, data limitations, outpatient procedures, and death being the leading cause of anesthesia malpractice claims.

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5
Q

What does morbidity refer to in the context of anesthesia?

A

Morbidity refers to disease, injury, or health complications arising during the perioperative period.

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6
Q

What are the most common causes of anesthesia-related injury?

A

Nerve damage due to regional blocks (20%).

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7
Q

What are the rising trends in anesthesia-related morbidity claims?

A

Acute pain management issues (8%), obstetric anesthesia claims (8% to 25%), and monitored anesthesia care claims (2% to 10%).

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8
Q

What are the key causes of increased anesthesia morbidity?

A

Respiratory complications (17%), cardiovascular issues (13%), and equipment failures (10%).

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9
Q

What is minor morbidity?

A

Moderate distress without prolonging hospital stay and no permanent complications (e.g., postoperative nausea and vomiting).

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10
Q

What is intermediate morbidity?

A

Serious distress prolonging hospital stay or both, with no permanent complications (e.g., dental injury).

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11
Q

What is major morbidity?

A

Permanent disability or complication (e.g., spinal cord injury; anoxic brain injury).

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12
Q

What factors have contributed to the increase in chronic pain claims?

A

Lack of standardized pain management protocols, inadequate patient monitoring, and higher reliance on outpatient and ambulatory surgical settings.

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13
Q

What percentage of anesthesia-related deaths is attributed to human error?

A

Human error is responsible for 51% to 77% of anesthesia-related deaths.

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14
Q

What are the leading causes of adverse surgical outcomes?

A

Errors in teamwork and communication contribute to 43% to 65% of sentinel events in the operating room.

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15
Q

What are common human errors in the perioperative setting?

A

Common human errors include wrong site/surgery, medication errors, transfusion errors, and communication failures.

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16
Q

What percentage of oral miscommunication occurs in the operating room?

A

Oral miscommunication accounts for 36% of communication failures.

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17
Q

What is the estimated frequency of drug administration errors in anesthesia?

A

The frequency of drug errors is estimated to be 1 in every 113 to 450 anesthetics administered.

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18
Q

What is the impact of human factors on perioperative care?

A

Human factors related to perioperative care significantly contribute to morbidity and mortality.

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19
Q

What is the rank of anesthetic complications in pregnancy-related mortality in the U.S.?

A

Anesthetic complications are the seventh leading cause of pregnancy-related mortality, accounting for 1.6% of all pregnancy-related deaths.

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20
Q

How much higher is the risk of death from general anesthesia compared to neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Parturients are 17 times more likely to die from general anesthesia complications compared to neuraxial techniques.

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21
Q

What were the major causes of anesthesia-related maternal deaths in a Michigan study?

A

Most deaths occurred due to airway obstruction or hypoventilation during emergence and recovery.

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22
Q

What role do system errors play in maternal anesthesia-related deaths?

A

System errors include lapses in postoperative monitoring and missed diagnoses.

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23
Q

What are high-risk factors for maternal anesthesia-related deaths?

A

High-risk factors include obesity and being of African descent.

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24
Q

What percentage of obstetric anesthesia malpractice claims involved neonatal death or severe brain damage?

A

20% of cases involved neonatal death or severe brain damage due to ‘Good Samaritan’ resuscitation interventions.

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25
Q

What percentage of malpractice claims were for maternal injuries?

A

71% of claims were for maternal injuries.

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26
Q

What factors are associated with anesthesia-related neonatal outcomes?

A

Factors include anesthesia delays, miscommunication regarding urgency, inappropriate choice of anesthesia, and maternal hypoxia. High/total spinal block causing maternal and fetal hypoxia.

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27
Q

What is the significance of the 30-minute decision-to-incision time for emergency cesarean sections?

A

Failure to meet this time plays a role in medical malpractice cases.

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28
Q

What are the most commonly cited procedures in closed malpractice claims (2000-2012)?

A

Cervical injections (44%), lumbar injections (29%), device implantation, maintenance, or removal (27%).

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29
Q

What does a high number of malpractice claims in cervical procedures suggest?

A

It suggests a need for safer, more effective strategies.

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30
Q

What are the top five predictors of 30-day mortality in elderly patients?

A
  1. ASA physical status
  2. Preoperative plasma albumin levels
  3. Emergency surgery
  4. Preoperative functional status
  5. Preoperative renal impairment.
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31
Q

What does a higher ASA score indicate?

A

It increases mortality risk.

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32
Q

What percentage of elderly patients died within 30 days post-surgery in the REASON Study?

A

1 in 20 (5%).

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33
Q

What percentage of elderly patients experienced at least one major complication in the REASON Study?

A

1 in 5 (20%).

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34
Q

What are the key risk factors identified in the REASON Study?

A

Age, ASA physical status, albumin levels, emergency surgery.

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35
Q

What is the 30-day mortality rate for patients aged 70 with ASA 1-2?

A

1%.

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36
Q

How does the mortality risk change for patients aged 80-89 compared to those in their 70s?

A

They have 2x the risk of mortality.

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37
Q

What is the mortality risk for patients aged 90+ compared to those in their 70s?

A

They have 4x the risk.

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38
Q

Why is frailty important in anesthesia risk?

A

It is emerging as a critical predictor of postoperative complications.

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39
Q

What are the five frailty domains?

A
  1. Age
  2. Sex
  3. Comorbidities
  4. Physical status
  5. Type of surgery.
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40
Q

What is the risk of complications for patients with intermediate frailty (2-3 domains)?

A

It doubles the risk of complications.

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41
Q

What is the risk of complications for frail patients (4-5 domains)?

A

They have a 2.5x greater risk of complications.

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42
Q

What are the two primary types of cognitive dysfunction?

A

Postoperative Cognitive Dysfunction (POCD) and Delirium.

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43
Q

What is the incidence of delirium in hospitalized elderly patients?

A

20% incidence in hospitalized elderly patients.

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44
Q

What is the incidence of delirium in sedated ICU patients?

A

80% incidence in sedated ICU patients.

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45
Q

What are the consequences of delirium?

A

Delirium is independently linked to longer hospital stays and higher mortality.

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46
Q

What factors can reduce delirium according to recent studies?

A

Optimizing pain control, managing depth of anesthesia, using regional anesthesia, maintaining oxygenation, avoiding polypharmacy, and using acetaminophen with opioids.

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47
Q

What concerns exist regarding pediatric brain growth and anesthesia?

A

Prolonged or multiple anesthetic exposures in young children have been linked to developmental delays.

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48
Q

What are the effects of anesthetic exposure during critical brain development periods?

A

Widespread neuronal apoptosis and functional deficits later in life.

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49
Q

What key anesthetic agents are implicated in pediatric cognitive dysfunction?

A

N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonists and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) agonists.

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50
Q

Is there a definitive ‘safe dose’ or ‘safe duration’ for anesthetic agents?

A

No definitive ‘safe dose’ or ‘safe duration’ for these agents has been identified.

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51
Q

What did studies on nonhuman primates reveal about ketamine exposure?

A

Shorter ketamine exposure (3 hours) did not produce significant effects.

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52
Q

What was the result of isoflurane exposure on postnatal day 6?

A

Isoflurane exposure resulted in neuroapoptosis.

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53
Q

What correlation exists between surgery and developmental delays in children?

A

Children who had surgery were twice as likely to have developmental delays or behavioral disorders.

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54
Q

What did the 2011 retrospective study find regarding learning disabilities and anesthesia exposure?

A

Single anesthetic exposure showed no increased risk, while two or more exposures significantly increased the risk.

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55
Q

How does cumulative anesthesia exposure relate to cognitive impairments?

A

Increased cumulative anesthesia exposure correlated with higher risk of cognitive impairments.

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56
Q

What challenges do adults with congenital heart disease (CHD) face during surgery?

A

Higher perioperative morbidity and mortality compared to non-CHD patients.

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57
Q

What percentage of damaging events in noncardiac surgeries occurred outside the operating room?

A

Over half of damaging events occurred outside the operating room.

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58
Q

What percentage of adverse events were directly related to CHD?

A

Less than half (48%) of all adverse events were directly related to CHD.

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59
Q

What types of surgeries accounted for CHD-related adverse events?

A

Cardiac surgeries accounted for over half of all CHD-related adverse events, with noncardiac procedures also contributing.

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60
Q

What are contributing factors to poor outcomes in CHD patients?

A

Anesthetic complications and lack of CHD expertise were major contributors.

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61
Q

What is the prevalence of intraoperative cardiac arrest during anesthesia?

A

Cardiac arrest during anesthesia is usually a concomitant event rather than a direct cause.

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62
Q

What are the incidence rates of cardiac arrest in adults and children?

A

Adults: 0.2 to 1.1 per 10,000 cases. Children: 1.4 to 2.9 per 10,000 cases.

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63
Q

Which group is at higher risk for cardiac arrest?

A

Patients aged 51-70 years with ASA physical status 3 and 4.

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64
Q

What percentage of cardiac arrest cases are males?

A

Males account for 61% of cases.

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65
Q

What is the incidence of cardiac arrest with neuraxial anesthesia compared to general anesthesia?

A

Neuraxial anesthesia has a lower incidence of cardiac arrest (0.04 - 1.8 per 10,000 cases) compared to general anesthesia.

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66
Q

What are the causes of intraoperative cardiac arrest?

A

Preoperative patient complications (65%), surgical procedure-related complications (24%), intraoperative pathological events (9%), and anesthetic management-related complications (2%).

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67
Q

What are major factors contributing to cardiac arrest?

A

Excessive surgical bleeding (seen in 70% of surgical deaths) and anesthesia-related complications.

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68
Q

What are some anesthesia-related complications?

A

Myocardial infarction, hypotension, ST-segment depression, bradycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and myocarditis.

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69
Q

What is the anesthesia-related cardiac arrest mortality rate?

A

70% (same as non-anesthesia-related perioperative cardiac arrests).

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70
Q

What are the underlying causes of cardiac arrest?

A

Pre-existing comorbidities, poor risk assessment, inappropriate anesthetic management, human error, and clinical misjudgment.

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71
Q

What are the key concerns with supraglottic devices?

A

Airway mortality occurs due to failure to ventilate, not failure to intubate.

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72
Q

What challenges exist in evaluating airway management?

A

Severe airway-related adverse events are rare, difficult mask ventilation occurs in 1.4% of cases, and impossible mask ventilation occurs in 0.2% of cases.

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73
Q

What are common supraglottic devices used for difficult airways?

A

Classic Laryngeal Mask Airway (cLMA) and Intubating LMA (97% to 100% success rate).

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74
Q

What are some other supraglottic devices?

A

LMA ProSeal, Supreme LMA, i-gel, Ambu Aura-I, air-Q intubating laryngeal airways, Cobra perilaryngeal airway, Cobra-PLUS, and Laryngeal Tube.

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75
Q

What are complications associated with supraglottic devices?

A

Inadequate seal, induced laryngospasm, aspiration of gastric contents, failed placement (1-5% of cases), cuff overfilling leading to tissue trauma, dislodgment of the device, insertion trauma, and insufficient depth of anesthesia at the time of insertion.

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76
Q

What is Endotracheal Intubation?

A

A medical procedure to place a tube into the trachea to maintain an open airway.

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77
Q

What is a high-risk scenario in airway management?

A

“Cannot Intubate, Cannot Ventilate” is a serious but infrequent challenge that increases anesthetic risk.

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78
Q

What is the link between difficult intubation and traumatic intubation?

A

Difficult intubation is closely linked to traumatic intubation.

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79
Q

What percentage of airway-related closed claims involved difficult intubation?

A

27% of airway-related closed claims involved difficult intubation.

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80
Q

What are the outcomes of injuries related to difficult intubation?

A

87% of injuries were temporary, while 8% resulted in death.

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81
Q

What percentage of airway injury claims involved failure to meet the standard of care?

A

21% of airway injury claims involved failure to meet the standard of care.

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82
Q

When do most difficult intubations occur?

A

67% of difficult intubations occur at the induction of general anesthesia and are often unanticipated.

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83
Q

What is essential for effective airway management?

A

Airway management must include backup plans that are as detailed as the primary airway plan.

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84
Q

What can happen if a failing airway plan is not recognized?

A

Failure to recognize a failing airway plan can lead to rapid deterioration.

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85
Q

What is critical during airway management?

A

Good communication among the anesthesia team is critical.

86
Q

What is the gold standard for elective difficult airway management?

A

Fiberoptic intubation of the spontaneously breathing patient remains the gold standard.

87
Q

What are the advantages of fiberoptic techniques?

A

Fiberoptic techniques allow greater control and visualization and are preferred for anticipated difficult airways.

88
Q

What is video laryngoscopy?

A

A widely available alternative to fiberoptic intubation that provides better visualization of the airway.

89
Q

What are the limitations of video laryngoscopy?

A

Primarily designed for orotracheal intubation and requires some degree of mouth opening.

90
Q

What are potential complications of video laryngoscopy?

A

Pharyngeal mucosal perforation, trauma from rigid stylet use, and blind spots in the oropharynx.

91
Q

How can complications during intubation be minimized?

A

Increased vigilance, direct visual observation during tube passage, and avoiding excessive force.

92
Q

What is the role of Sugammadex in difficult airway management?

A

Sugammadex is a neuromuscular blockade reversal agent valuable in ‘cannot intubate, cannot ventilate’ scenarios.

93
Q

What are the benefits of early administration of Sugammadex?

A

It may prevent prolonged apnea and improve patient outcomes.

94
Q

Can Sugammadex reverse adverse effects after prolonged apnea?

A

Even after 5 minutes of apnea and multiple failed intubation attempts, it may not always reverse the adverse effects completely.

95
Q

What are the hemodynamic and anatomic risks of endotracheal intubation?

A

Endotracheal intubation can lead to both physiologic effects and anatomical injuries.

96
Q

What are common complications of endotracheal intubation?

A

Dental trauma (50%), sore throat (40%), laryngeal trauma (6.2%), granulation tissue formation, and vocal cord paralysis.

97
Q

What can help prevent long-term supraglottic complications?

A

Early tracheostomy may help prevent complications associated with prolonged intubation.

98
Q

What is intraoperative awareness with explicit recall?

A

It occurs in 1 to 2 per 1000 patients undergoing general surgery when assessed using the Brice methodology/questionnaire.

99
Q

What are high-risk surgical cases for intraoperative awareness?

A

Certain procedures carry a 10 times higher risk of awareness, with an incidence of 1 in 100 cases. High-risk categories include trauma surgery, obstetric procedures (e.g., emergency cesarean sections), and cardiovascular surgery (e.g., cardiac bypass surgery).

100
Q

What are physiological indicators of intraoperative awareness?

A

Patient movement is noted in 1 of every 7 awareness cases. Tachycardia and hypertension develop in about 1 in every 5 cases of intraoperative awareness.

101
Q

What are common patient experiences during MAC awareness?

A

Patients may hear conversations in the operating room, remember bright lights and the operating room setting, and feel distress due to expectations of complete unconsciousness not being met.

102
Q

What are the implications for MAC awareness?

A

Patients should be counseled preoperatively about what to expect during procedures with MAC to minimize distress.

103
Q

What can failure to align expectations during MAC lead to?

A

It may lead to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), fear of future surgeries, and increased medicolegal risks.

104
Q

What percentage of patients who experienced intraoperative awareness developed PTSD?

A

71% of patients who experienced intraoperative awareness developed PTSD.

105
Q

What were the strongest predictors of PTSD in patients with intraoperative awareness?

A

Emotional distress and the experience of paralysis.

106
Q

What are postoperative symptoms related to awareness and PTSD?

A

Postoperative symptoms include sleep disturbances (19%), nightmares (21%), fear of future anesthetics (20%), and daytime anxiety (17%).

107
Q

What percentage of fatal or permanent brain damage cases due to opioid-related respiratory depression were preventable?

A

97% of cases were considered preventable with better monitoring and surveillance.

108
Q

Who are patients at higher risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

Patients at higher risk include those with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), elderly individuals (age > 50 years), premature infants (<60 weeks postconceptual age), patients with renal, cardiac, or pulmonary disease (e.g., COPD), obese patients (66% of reported cases), females (57%), ASA Physical Status 1 & 2 (63%), and patients undergoing lower extremity surgery (41%).

109
Q

What are opioid-specific risk factors?

A

Morphine has active metabolites (morphine-6-glucuronide), which can accumulate, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydromorphone has a delayed onset, increasing the risk of overdosing when using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).

110
Q

What are prevention strategies for opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

Close monitoring using pulse oximetry combined with CO₂ monitoring and respiratory rate tracking can provide early warning signs of impending respiratory depression. Avoiding over-sedation in high-risk populations and titrating opioids carefully while considering multimodal pain management strategies.

111
Q

What is intraoperative awareness with explicit recall?

A

It occurs in 1 to 2 per 1000 patients undergoing general surgery when assessed using the Brice methodology/questionnaire.

112
Q

What are high-risk surgical cases for intraoperative awareness?

A

Certain procedures carry a 10 times higher risk of awareness, with an incidence of 1 in 100 cases. High-risk categories include trauma surgery, obstetric procedures (e.g., emergency cesarean sections), and cardiovascular surgery (e.g., cardiac bypass surgery).

113
Q

What are physiological indicators of intraoperative awareness?

A

Patient movement is noted in 1 of every 7 awareness cases. Tachycardia and hypertension develop in about 1 in every 5 cases of intraoperative awareness.

114
Q

What are common patient experiences during MAC awareness?

A

Patients may hear conversations in the operating room, remember bright lights and the operating room setting, and feel distress due to expectations of complete unconsciousness not being met.

115
Q

What are the implications for MAC awareness?

A

Patients should be counseled preoperatively about what to expect during procedures with MAC to minimize distress.

116
Q

What can failure to align expectations during MAC lead to?

A

It may lead to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), fear of future surgeries, and increased medicolegal risks.

117
Q

What percentage of patients who experienced intraoperative awareness developed PTSD?

A

71% of patients who experienced intraoperative awareness developed PTSD.

118
Q

What were the strongest predictors of PTSD in patients with intraoperative awareness?

A

Emotional distress and the experience of paralysis.

119
Q

What are postoperative symptoms related to awareness and PTSD?

A

Postoperative symptoms include sleep disturbances (19%), nightmares (21%), fear of future anesthetics (20%), and daytime anxiety (17%).

120
Q

What percentage of fatal or permanent brain damage cases due to opioid-related respiratory depression were preventable?

A

97% of cases were considered preventable with better monitoring and surveillance.

121
Q

Who are patients at higher risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

Patients at higher risk include those with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), elderly individuals (age > 50 years), premature infants (<60 weeks postconceptual age), patients with renal, cardiac, or pulmonary disease (e.g., COPD), obese patients (66% of reported cases), females (57%), ASA Physical Status 1 & 2 (63%), and patients undergoing lower extremity surgery (41%).

122
Q

What are opioid-specific risk factors?

A

Morphine has active metabolites (morphine-6-glucuronide), which can accumulate, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydromorphone has a delayed onset, increasing the risk of overdosing when using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).

123
Q

What are prevention strategies for opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

Close monitoring using pulse oximetry combined with CO₂ monitoring and respiratory rate tracking can provide early warning signs of impending respiratory depression. Avoiding over-sedation in high-risk populations and titrating opioids carefully while considering multimodal pain management strategies.

124
Q

Risk Factors for Awareness

A

• Female sex
• Age (younger adults, but not children)
• Obesity
• Clinician experience
• Previous awareness
• After normal hours operations
- Emergency procedures
- Type of surgery (obstetric, cardiac, thoracic)
• Use of nondepolarizing relaxants

125
Q

What is the trend in the use of anesthesia outside the operating room?

A

The use of anesthesia outside the traditional operating room setting is expanding.

126
Q

What percentage of endoscopy patients receive sedation from nurses?

A

79% of endoscopy patients receive sedation administered by nurses under gastroenterologist supervision.

127
Q

What percentage of sedations are performed by anesthesia providers?

A

Only 29% of sedations were performed by anesthesia providers.

128
Q

What percentage of deaths in non-operating room anesthesia are due to respiratory depression?

A

44% of deaths in non-operating room anesthesia were due to respiratory depression.

129
Q

What accounted for over one-third of reported cases in anesthesia?

A

Polypharmacy (propofol combined with other sedatives or analgesics) accounted for over one-third of reported cases.

130
Q

What percentage of cases where oversedation occurred used capnography monitoring?

A

Capnography monitoring was used in only 15% of cases where oversedation occurred.

131
Q

What are some prevention strategies for anesthesia complications?

A

Improved respiratory monitoring, limiting polypharmacy combinations, and ensuring trained anesthesia personnel manage high-risk patients.

132
Q

What is the purpose of shared decision-making in anesthesia care?

A

Shared decision-making allows patients to be actively involved in their anesthesia care decisions, improving satisfaction, safety, and outcomes.

133
Q

What do patients consider important factors in anesthesia care quality?

A

Respect for individual preferences and high-quality education about anesthesia options.

134
Q

What can decision aids enhance in patient care?

A

Decision aids can enhance patient knowledge, improve risk perception, and lead to better alignment of choices with patient values.

135
Q

What is a critical incident in patient care?

A

An undesirable event during patient care that could have led to harm.

136
Q

What is an adverse event in medical management?

A

An unintended patient injury due to medical management, leading to prolonged hospitalization, disability post-discharge, or death.

137
Q

What support do patients and families require after critical incidents?

A

Patients and families require support after critical incidents.

138
Q

What psychological effects may healthcare professionals experience after medical errors?

A

Healthcare professionals may experience psychological distress following medical errors.

139
Q

What is Root Cause Analysis (RCA)?

A

A method used to identify underlying causes of complications, helping prevent future occurrences by improving systems.

140
Q

What are the immediate steps when a critical incident occurs in anesthesia?

A

Patient protection and care continuation, securing evidence, team debriefing, communication assignment, incident analysis, and formal reporting.

141
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the provider during a critical incident?

A

To ensure the patient’s safety by continuing appropriate care and preventing further harm.

142
Q

What common emotional responses do nurse anesthetists experience after critical incidents?

A

Common responses include reliving the event (72%), guilt (70%), and anxiety (67%).

143
Q

What is the Root Cause Analysis (RCA) process?

A

A retrospective investigation to determine contributing factors and prevent future occurrences, based on the principle that incidents arise from systemic failures.

144
Q

What is the first step in the RCA process?

A

Identifying the Incident - Clearly define the problem statement related to the event.

145
Q

What is the purpose of forming a multidisciplinary team in RCA?

A

To assemble a diverse group of professionals to conduct the RCA.

146
Q

What does process examination involve in RCA?

A

Understanding workflows and organizational processes that contributed to the event.

147
Q

What is involved in data collection during RCA?

A

Gathering factual accounts, written statements, and any available documentation from those involved.

148
Q

What is the evidence review step in RCA?

A

Searching medical literature and databases for relevant, high-quality evidence related to the event.

149
Q

What technique is used for brainstorming possible causes in RCA?

A

Using structured questioning, such as the ‘Why?’ method, to identify direct and indirect contributing factors.

150
Q

What does data analysis entail in the RCA process?

A

Evaluating collected information using logic trees and other analytical tools to validate causal theories.

151
Q

What is the goal of proposing corrective actions in RCA?

A

Developing multiple solutions rather than settling on a single quick fix.

152
Q

What is included in formal report preparation for RCA?

A

Creating a structured, factual report devoid of emotional bias or blame.

153
Q

What is the purpose of reevaluating actions taken in RCA?

A

Monitoring whether the implemented solutions effectively prevent recurrence.

154
Q

What is a key principle of RCA?

A

Blame avoidance, which shifts focus from individuals to systemic improvements.

155
Q

What is open disclosure in incident reporting?

A

Transparent communication with patients and families following a critical incident.

156
Q

What should open disclosure include?

A

Accurate Information, Immediate Consequences & Actions Taken, Expression of Regret, and Prevention Measures.

157
Q

What are the consequences of withholding information from patients?

A

Leads to lower patient trust, dissatisfaction, and emotional distress.

158
Q

What is a second victim in healthcare?

A

A healthcare provider involved in an adverse event who suffers emotional and psychological distress.

159
Q

What feelings do second victims often experience?

A

Guilt, anxiety, self-doubt, PTSD, sleep disturbances, and burnout.

160
Q

What is the risk associated with second victims?

A

Increased risk of making future medical errors due to emotional turmoil.

161
Q

What fears do second victims face?

A

Fear of reputation loss, institutional consequences, and litigation.

162
Q

How long does recovery last for second victims?

A

Recovery lasts for several months.

163
Q

What are the stages of recovery for second victims?

A
  1. Chaos/accident response
  2. Intrusive reflections
  3. Restoring personal integrity
  4. Enduring inquisition
  5. Obtaining emotional first aid
  6. Moving onward
164
Q

What is meant by ‘Chaos & Realization’?

A

Confusion and emotional turmoil immediately after the event.

165
Q

What are ‘Haunted Reenactments’?

A

Repetitive ‘what if’ scenarios and self-doubt.

166
Q

What does ‘Seeking Support’ involve?

A

Turning to colleagues, friends, or family for reassurance.

167
Q

What is the ‘Fear of Institutional Ramifications’?

A

Worrying about disciplinary actions and professional consequences.

168
Q

When should one seek legal and professional advice?

A

Consulting attorneys or hospital administrators if litigation is a concern.

169
Q

What are the possible final outcomes for a provider after an event?

A

The provider either drops out, survives, or thrives.

170
Q

What are some emotional and professional needs after an incident?

A
  1. Talking to someone
  2. Validation of decision-making
  3. Reaffirmation of competence
  4. Personal reassurance
171
Q

What is the impact of lack of institutional support?

A

It prolongs emotional distress.

172
Q

Who are often the primary sources of emotional relief?

A

Colleagues and mentors.

173
Q

Why is legal and administrative guidance necessary?

A

In cases of potential litigation.

174
Q

What do human factors refer to?

A

The ways in which human performance and behavior interact with the surrounding environment.

175
Q

What percentage of anesthesia-related deaths involve human factors?

A

51% to 77%.

176
Q

What percentage of errors result from lack of experience or competence?

177
Q

What percentage of errors are due to errors in judgment or analysis?

178
Q

Are errors always intrinsically bad?

A

In reality, errors are part of the learning process and essential for adapting to new situations.

179
Q

Can highly skilled individuals make severe mistakes?

A

Yes, they can make severe mistakes under stress.

180
Q

Are errors random?

A

They are often predictable and follow patterns that can be managed.

181
Q

What are the types of errors in healthcare?

A
  1. Slips and Memory Lapses
  2. Rule-Based Errors
182
Q

What are ‘Slips and Memory Lapses’?

A

When actions don’t go as planned, such as forgetting a critical step in a procedure.

183
Q

What are ‘Rule-Based Errors’?

A

Errors when clinicians apply a correct rule in the wrong context, use a wrong rule in a familiar situation, or fail to apply a necessary rule.

184
Q

What increases the likelihood of errors?

A

When individuals are unsure of what they are doing, highlighting the need for structured training and support systems.

185
Q

What is the new perspective on human error in healthcare?

A

Human error analysis should be a starting point for system improvement, rather than blaming individuals.

186
Q

Why is human error unavoidable in healthcare?

A

Healthcare is a complex system that requires flexibility and creativity. The focus should be on creating safer working conditions.

187
Q

What is a concern regarding aviation strategies in healthcare?

A

Some providers fear that checklists and protocols may limit their clinical judgment.

188
Q

What are crucial elements for maintaining safety and efficiency in healthcare?

A

Effective communication and teamwork.

189
Q

What does communication in healthcare involve?

A

Both verbal and non-verbal communication, including clear instructions and situational awareness.

190
Q

What are the characteristics of teamwork in healthcare?

A

Dynamic, interdependent, and adaptive interaction toward a shared goal.

191
Q

Why is training in teamwork and communication essential?

A

Simulation-based training enhances team coordination and crisis management.

192
Q

What impact do distractions have in the anesthesia work environment?

A

Distractions can impact vigilance, situational awareness, and patient safety.

193
Q

What are examples of external distractions in the anesthesia work environment?

A

Environmental noise, technology-related disruptions, and unnecessary use of EMR.

194
Q

What are common causes of distractions in anesthesia?

A

Reading, phone calls, and loud music.

195
Q

What is the ‘sterile cockpit’ approach?

A

Follow this approach during critical phases of patient care to minimize distractions.

196
Q

What is the most identifiable and preventable cause of medical errors?

197
Q

What does anesthesia as a profession require?

A

Long hours, high vigilance, and management of unpredictable, stressful situations.

198
Q

What is the impact of work-hour reduction on medical errors?

A

Allowing 24 hours of sleep between shifts significantly reduces attentional failures and the risk of errors due to drowsiness.

199
Q

What is the impact of stress on performance?

A

Stress is a significant factor in both personal and professional performance.

Acute stress leads to fight, flight, or freeze responses. Chronic stress is related to workplace demands and long-term emotional strain.

200
Q

What are the effects of stress on performance?

A

Effects of stress include impaired decision-making, increased likelihood of medical errors, and reduced ability to recognize and manage stress in oneself and others.

201
Q

What are the sources of workplace stress?

A

Sources of workplace stress include high job demands, uncertain roles & responsibilities, poor support from coworkers or managers, and family and personal stressors.

202
Q

What are observable effects of stress?

A

Observable effects of stress include a normally calm colleague becoming irritable and a well-organized provider starting to neglect personal appearance.

203
Q

How do coping strategies influence stress?

A

Coping strategies influence whether stress has a positive or negative effect.

204
Q

What is the significance of patient handoff?

A

Communication breakdowns contribute to 15%-67% of critical incidents in anesthesia.

205
Q

What are the most vulnerable points in patient handoffs?

A

Most vulnerable points include care transitions (e.g., surgery → anesthesia → post-op recovery) and shift changes when new providers assume responsibility.

206
Q

What is a clinical handover/handoff?

A

A clinical handover/handoff is the transfer of professional responsibility and accountability for a patient’s care to another provider or team.

207
Q

How does The Joint Commission define handoff?

A

The Joint Commission defines handoff as a ‘real-time process’ for ensuring patient safety.

208
Q

What are the challenges in patient handoffs?

A

Challenges include inconsistency in information transfer, lack of standardization across different healthcare settings, and widespread dissatisfaction among nurses and physicians regarding handover processes.

209
Q

What do WHO and The Joint Commission recognize about handover?

A

The WHO and The Joint Commission recognize handover as a key patient safety initiative.

210
Q

What industries have received more attention for handoff failures?

A

Handoff failures in high-risk industries such as aviation and nuclear power have received more attention than in healthcare.

211
Q

How can patient handoff processes be improved?

A

Improving patient handoff processes involves standardized communication protocols, structured checklists, encouraging real-time verification and feedback, and using electronic medical records (EMRs) for accurate data transfer.