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Net+ > N10-007 > Flashcards

N10-007 Flashcards

1
Q

A NIC sends data in discrete chunks called what?

A

Frames

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2
Q

Which MAC addr begins a frame?

A

Receiving

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3
Q

What is included in Frames?

A 
1-Receiving MAC addr
2-Sending MAC addr
3-Type of encapsulated data
4-Data
5-FCS
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4
Q

Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls segmentation and reassembly of data?

A

Transport

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5
Q

Which layer of the OSI 7 layer model keeps track of a system’s connections to send the right response to the right computer?

A

Session

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6
Q

What layer are cables and hubs?

A

Layer 1… Physical

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7
Q

What layer are switches and NICS?

A

Layer 2… Data Link

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8
Q

What is the only OSI layer that has sublayers?

A

Data Link… LLC and MAC sublayers

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9
Q

What is the PDU (Protocol Data Unit) for Layer 3… Network Layer?

A

Packet

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10
Q

Routers use what to forward data?

A

IP addresses

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11
Q

What layer breaks up and reassembles chunks of data called segments or datagrams?

A

Layer 4… Transport Layer

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12
Q

The connectionless protocol is also what type protocol?

A

UDP… User Datagram Protocol

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13
Q

What is the term used to describe the interconnectivity of network components?

A

Topology

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14
Q

Name a type of fiber optic connection that is duplex

A

LC

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15
Q

What network topology is most commonly seen only in wireless networks?

A

Mesh

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16
Q

What is a network technology called that combines a physical topology with a logical topology?

A

Hybrid technology

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17
Q

Name two hybrid topologies

A

Star Ring and Star Bus

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18
Q

What is the most successful star-ring topology called?

A

IBM Token Ring

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19
Q

What topology connect every computer to every other computer on the network via two or more routes?

A

Mesh

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20
Q

Name two types of mesh topologies

A

1-Fully meshed: every computer connected to every other computer.
2-Partially meshed: at least two machines have redundant connections

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21
Q

Name the network topologies

A 
Bus
Ring
Star\
Hybrid
Mesh
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22
Q

What type cable is more robust… RG59 or RG6?

A

RG6

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23
Q

Give short description of ST fiber optic connector

A

Snap and twist;

Bayonet style

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24
Q

Give short description of SC fiber optic connector

A

Stick and click;

Push in connection

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25
Q

Give short description of LC connector

A

Little connector;

Always duplex

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26
Q

Give short description of MTJ-R fiber optic connector

A

Always duplix

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27
Q

Single mode fiber uses what to generate signals?

A

Lasers

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28
Q

Multimode fiber uses what to generate signals?

A

LEDs

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29
Q

What type cable is fire rated?

A

Plenum

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30
Q

What is appended to the front of Ethernet frames?

A

Preamble

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31
Q

10BaseT uses what type of bus

A

Star-bus

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32
Q

What is the max distance that can separate a 10BaseT node from its hub?

A

100 meters

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33
Q

What device directs traffic based on MAC addresses?

A

Switch

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34
Q

Frames are at what layer and are based on what type of address?

A

Layer 2 - Data Link

Use Mac addresses

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35
Q

Packets are associated with data assembled at what layer and use what protocol?

A

Layer 3 - Network;

IP Protocol

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36
Q

The transmission of a frame starts with what?

A

Preamble: gives receiving NIC a notice a frame is coming and where frame starts

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37
Q

MAC addresses have how many bits and how many bytes?

A

48 bits and 6 Bytes

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38
Q

10BaseT refers to what?

A

10 Mbps data rate;
Broadband signal;
Twisted pair cable

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39
Q

What is broadband

A

Carries multiple signals or channels… as in cable

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40
Q

10BaseT RJ45 connector uses pins 1 and 2 to do what?

A

Send data

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41
Q

10BaseT RJ45 connector uses pins 3 and 6 to do what?

A

Receive data

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42
Q

Half duplex

A

NICs communicating in only one direction at a time

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43
Q

Full duplex

A

NICs communicating in both directions at the same time

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44
Q

Regarding TIA/EIA 568A and 568B standards, which wires are swapped?

A

Green and orange… “GO”;

blue and brown wires remain the same

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45
Q

What is the wire pinout for standard 568A?

A

wg/g
wo/bl
wbl/o
wbr/br

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46
Q

What is the wire pinout for standard 568B?

A

wo/o
wgr/bl
wbl/gr
wbr/br

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47
Q

What is a bridge?

A

Used to connect networks;

Traffic is filtered and forwarded between network segments based on MAC addresses of computers on the segments

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48
Q

Main difference between a hub and a switch

A

Hub: forwards all frames;
Switch: creates a source allocation table containing MAC addresses for each connected computer, then forwards frames based on segment the computer resides

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49
Q

How are bridging or switching loops resolved in a network?

A

STP… Spanning Tree Protocol

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50
Q

How many pairs of wires do 10BaseT and 100BaseT use?

A

2 wire pairs

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51
Q

What does IEEE 802.ab describe?

A

1000BaseT… also known as Gigabit Ethernet

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52
Q

What is the physical difference between 1000BaseSX and 100BaseFX/

A

1000BaseSX does not allow use of ST connector

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53
Q

What is the max distance for 1000BaseLX without repeaters?

A

5000 meters

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54
Q

How many wire pairs does 1000BaseT use?

A

All 4 pairs of wires

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55
Q

What is the standard connector for the 10GbE fiber standard?

A

There is no standard

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56
Q

What is the max cable length of 10GBaseT on CAT 6?

A

55 meters

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57
Q

100BaseT

A

Speed = 100 Mbps
Signal = Baseband… single signal over network at once
Cable type = Twisted pair
Distance = 100 meters
Node limit = 1024
Topology Star-bus… physical star, logical bus

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58
Q

100BaseFX

A

Speed = 100 Mbs
Signal= Baseband
Cable type = multimode fiber with SC or ST connectors
Distance = 2 Kilometers
Node limit = 1024
Topology = Star-bus… phys star and logical bus

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59
Q

1000BaseT

A 
Commonly called Gigabit Ethernet
Used in vast majority of network rollouts
802.3ab standard
Uses 4 pair of UTP or STP
Distance = 100 meters
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60
Q

1000BaseLX

A

Long distance carier for Gigabit Ehternet
Uses lasers on singlemode fiber
Distance = up to 5 Kilometers
Connectors resembe 1000BaseSX connectors

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61
Q

1000BaseSX

A

Uses multimode fiber optic cable;
Distance 220 - 500 meters
Uses LC connectors

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62
Q

Wavelength signal

A

Distance the signal travels before it completes its particular shape, then starts to repeat. Diff color laser signals feature diff wave lengths

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63
Q

10GBaseT

A

10 Gigabit Ethernet running on twisted pair cable

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64
Q

Broadband

A

Multiple signals flow over network simultaneously

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65
Q

UPC and APC

A

Ultra and Angled Polished Connectors

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66
Q

Which cable should never be used in a structured cabling installation?

A

Coax

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67
Q

What enables you to use multiple NICs in a computer to achieve a much faster network speed?

A

Bonding or Link aggregation… process of using multiple NICS as a single connection

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68
Q

What facilitates organizing and protecting horizontal cabling in the telecommunications room?

A

Patch panel

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69
Q

Rack mounted equipment has a height measured in what units?

A

U… known as Units

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70
Q

Which punch down blocks have less cross talk… 66 or 110 block?

A

110

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71
Q

What is the name of the device that marks the point of demarcation dividing the line of responsibility for the function of the network?

A

Network Interface Unit… aka Network Interface Device or Box (NID / NIB)

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72
Q

What is the equipment called that acts as a primary distribution tool for a building belonging to a customer

A

Customer Pemises Equipment (CPE)

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73
Q

The room that stores demarc, tele cross connects and LAN cross connects equipment?

A

MDF… Main Distribution Frame

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74
Q

Room that store tele equipment in mult rooms which connect internally to MDF

A

IDF… Intermediate Distribution Frame

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75
Q

What cable tester can determine where a break is located in individual wire strands?

A

OTDR

Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

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76
Q

What is the process called where switches allow devices to use multiple NICs?

A

Bonding / Link aggregation

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77
Q

What controls how multiple network devices send and receive data as a single connection

A

LACP… Link Aggregation Control Protocol

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78
Q

What does IANA stand for?

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

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79
Q

What is the max number of hosts in a /19 subnet?

A

8,190

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80
Q

Which of the following is a valid loopback address? 128.0.0.1; 127.0.0.0; 128.0.0.255; 127.24.0.1

A

177.24.0.1;

any addr in the 127.0.0.0/8 sunet will work as a loopback

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81
Q

Connection oriented TCP/IP Transport layer protocol is called?

A

Transmission Control Protocol… TCP

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82
Q

Connectionless oriented TCP/IP Transport layer protocol is called?

A

User Datagram Protocol… UDP

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83
Q

TCP chops data into what?

A

Segments

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84
Q

WAN

A

Wide Area Network… A group of two or more connected networks

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85
Q

Router interface that connects a single LAN to the router is known as what?

A

Default Gateway;

Usually the LAN side NIC on the router and assigned the lowest host address in the network…. host ID of 1.

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86
Q

00000000 binary = what in decimal?

A

0

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87
Q

11111111 in binary = what in decimal?

A

255

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88
Q

The term classfull references what?

A

IP address blocks… A, B, C, D, E

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89
Q

The first binary octet of a Class A address always begins with what?

A

0xxxxxxx (ex 00001010 = 10.52.36.11 )

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90
Q

The first binary octet of a Class B address always begins with what?
10xxxxxx (ex 10101100 = 172.16.52.63)

A

10xxxxxx (ex 10101100 = 172.16.52.63)

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91
Q

The first binary octet of a Class C address always begins with what?

A

110xxxxx (ex 11000000 = 192.168.123.132)

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92
Q

Reserved IP addresses are considered what?

A

Experimental

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93
Q

What is the formula for determining the number of hosts you can have on a network?

A

2^x - 2, where x is the number of zeroes remaining in a subnet mask after the ones that are reserved for the network

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94
Q

A CIDR address (Classless address) means the subnet does not conform to what?

A

Big three classfull address blocks A, B and C… /8, /16, /24

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95
Q

How do you set a static IP address in Linux?

A

ifconfig;

ip add

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96
Q

BOOTP

A

Preceded DHCP in providing dynamic IP addressing

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97
Q

DHCP uses which UDP ports?

A

Servers use UDP port 67;

Clients use port 68

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98
Q

What is assigned to a client host that does not receive a response to a DHCP Discover message?

A

APIPA… Automatic Private IP Address

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99
Q

Can systems that use use static IP addresses have DHCP problems?

A

No

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100
Q

What are private address for class block A, B and C?

  1. 0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
  2. 16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
  3. 168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
A

A: 10.0.0.0 through- 10.255.255.255
B: 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
C: 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255

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101
Q

What are public address ranges for class blocks A, B and C?

A

A: 0-126
B: 128-191
C: 192-223

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102
Q

What does IANA stand for?

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

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103
Q

What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers?

A

Port Access Translation… PAT

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104
Q

What network would a packet be sent with address 64.165.5.34 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0?

A

64.165.5.0/24 network

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105
Q

Distance vector routing protocols such as RIP rely on what metric to determine the best route?
Hop count

A

Hops

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106
Q

What are two advantages to using OSPF over RIP?

A

Chooses routes based on link speed;

Sends only routing table changes, reducing net traffic

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107
Q

What is area 0 called in OSPF?

A

Backbone

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108
Q

What is the name of the cable used to connect to the console port on Cisco routers?

A

Yost cable

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109
Q

When first setting up a new router, should you plug it into an existing network?

A

No

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110
Q

The traceroute (Linux, Mac) utility is useful for what?

A

Discovering information about routers between you and destination address;
It records the route between any two hosts on a network

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111
Q

What is Windows version of traceroute?

A

Tracert

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112
Q

Routers work at what layer of the OSI network model?

A

Layer 3… Network

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113
Q

What is a multilayered switch (MLS) called that works at more than one layer?

A

Layer 3 switch… because it handles IP traffic

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114
Q

What command allows you to view your computer’s routing table?

A

Netstat -r

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115
Q

A default gateway address references what device?

A

Router

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116
Q

Networking technology that is different from Ethernet, for cable modems

A

DOCSIS… Data Over Cable Service Interface Interface Specifications

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117
Q

Networking technologies, different from Ethernet, that carry IP packets in their layer 2 encapsulations

A

DOCSIS;
Frame Relay;
ATM… Asynchronous Transfer Mode

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118
Q

Network Address Translation… NAT

A

Replaces source IP addr of a computer with source IP addr from outside router interface on outgoing packets… performed by NAT capable routers

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119
Q

Port Address Translation… PAT

A

Uses port nbrs to map traffic from specific machines in the network

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120
Q

identify three main routing protocol groups

A

Distance Vector: protocols that compares total cost of route to a specific network ID to total cost of all other routes;
Link State: Dynamic routing protocol that announces only changes to routing table
Hybrid: EIGRP… Comptia lists as distance vector

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121
Q

Name two Link state protocols

A

OSPF;

IS-IS… Intermediate System to Intermediate System. Supports IPv6

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122
Q

Maximum Transmission Unit…MTU

A

Determines the largest frame a particular technology can handle

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123
Q

Fragmentation

A

Occurs when IP packet is too big for a particular technology and is broken into pieces that fit into the network protocol, which slows movement.

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124
Q

Router convergence

A

All routers have updated routing tables… steady state

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125
Q

Distance vector routing protocols work fine for networks with many or few routers?

A

Few… less than 10

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126
Q

Name distance routing protocols

A

RIP: Routing Information Protocol… max hop count = 15
BGP: Border Gateway Protocol, used for communication between each Autonomous Sys (AS)

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127
Q

Autonomous System Number… ASN

A

Globally unique 32 bit number used by each autonomous System to communicate

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128
Q

Autonomous systems communicate with each other via interior or exterior protocols?

A

Exterior… EGP

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129
Q

Networks within autonomous systems communicate with interior or exterior gateway protocols?

A

Interior… IGP

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130
Q

Comptia lists BGP as what type of routing protocol?

A

Hybrid… if BGP is the only answer, take it

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131
Q

What is the routing protocol of choice by large enterprise networks?

A

OSPF

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132
Q

What type protocol is RIP and is it IGP or BGP?

A

Distance Vector… IGP

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133
Q

What type protocol is BGP and is it IGP or BGP?

A

Path Vector… BGP

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134
Q

What type protocol is OSPF and is it IGP or BGP?

A

Link State… IGP

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135
Q

What type protocol is IS-IS and is it IGP or BGP?

A

Link State… IGP

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136
Q

What type protocol is EIGRP and is it IGP or BGP?

A

Hybrid… IGP

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137
Q

UDP established what type of connection session

A

Connectionless

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138
Q

Name some protocols that use connectionless oriented sessions

A 
DHCP
DNS
NTP Network Time Protocol
SNTP Simple Network Time Protocol
TFTP
ICMP
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139
Q

Ping is what type of an application?

A

ICMP

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140
Q

What port does NTP and SNTP use?

A

123

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141
Q

What is TFTP?

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol… uses UDP to xfer files from one computer to another, typically on same LAN, without data protection

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142
Q

TFTP uses what port?

A

69

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143
Q

What type issue is it when you ping the default gateway and receive the response “destination host unreachable”?

A

ICMP issue

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144
Q

What is IGMP

A

Internet Group Management Protocol… enables routers to communicate with hosts to determine a group membership

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145
Q

Well known port numbers

A

Ports 0-1023, reserved for specific TCP/IP applications

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146
Q

Ephemeral port numbers

A

Arbitrary number generated by sending computer for receiving computer to use as destination address when sending a return packet

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147
Q

Ephemeral port number classical range

A

1024-5000

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148
Q

Recommended ephemeral port number range

A

49152-65535… curr range used by Windows

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149
Q

Registered port numbers

A

1024-49151

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150
Q

Terms for session information containing IP addr and port nbr

A

Socket,

Endpoint

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151
Q

Terms for connection data stored on two computers about the same connection

A

Socket pairs;

Endpoints

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152
Q

Terms for the whole connection

A

Connection or session

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153
Q

Netstat

A

Shows endpoints to which a computer is connected;

Shows TCP/IP connections at a glance

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154
Q

XML

A

Extensible Markup Language… used for RSS feeds to MS Ofc documents

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155
Q

HTTP

A

Protocol used by the web using TCP 80 by default

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156
Q

USENET

A

Old internet svc where clients use NNTP to access USENET over TCP port 119

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157
Q

What is required for an internet application to be secure?

A

Authentication: usernames and pw
Encryption: scrambling and encoding packets
Nonrepudiation: Source not able to deny having sent message

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158
Q

SSL

A

Secure Socket Layer… transmit private documents securely over the internet

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159
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security… latest ver of SSL which uses encryption to establish secure private connection

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160
Q

HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure… provides secure access to web

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161
Q

Telnet

A

Allows logon to remote systems from own host;

Uses port 23

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162
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell… Terminal emulation program that replaced telnet and incl encryption

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163
Q

PUTTY

A

Popular Telnet/SSH client

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164
Q

What does Telnet and SSh enable you to do?

A

Securely access remote systems

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165
Q

SSH uses which TCP port?

A

22

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166
Q

What email protocol is used to send email?

A

SMTP… port 25

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167
Q

What email protocols receive email?

A

POP: port 110
IMAP: port 143… can syn mult devices and supp folders

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168
Q

Name some web based services

A

Web based mail;

Network shareable documents, spreadsheets, databases,… other cloud based applications

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169
Q

FTP

A

File Transport Protocol… ports 20 and 21;

Used to transfer files

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170
Q

TFTP

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol… UDP port 69;

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171
Q

NetBIOS used what type name space?

A

Flat

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172
Q

DNS servers use what type name space?

A

Heirarchical

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173
Q

How is the DNS root directory represented?

A

A dot “.”

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174
Q

What file should be checked when trying to resolve a FQDN to an IP address?

A

Hosts file

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175
Q

What is used by mail serves to determine where to send mail?

A

MX record

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176
Q

What command resets the DNS cache?

A

ipconfig /flushdns

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177
Q

What tool is used for querying DNS server functions?

A

nslookup

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178
Q

Where does a DNS server store IP addresses and FQDNs for computers within a domain

A

Forward lookup zone

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179
Q

Name resolution

A

A method enabling one computer on a network to locate another, to establish a session either via broadcast or name server

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180
Q

Domain Name System… DNS

A

Name resolution protocol

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181
Q

NetBIOS

A

Protocol that operates at Session layer of OSI model. Creates and manages connections based on the names of the computers involved.

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182
Q

NetBIOS over TCP (NetBT) requires what ports?

A

TCP ports 137 and 139;

UDP ports 137 and 138

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183
Q

Server Message Block… SMB

A

Protocol used by MS clients and servers to share file and print resources;
Runs on TCP port 445

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184
Q

Hosts file

A

Static text file on a computer used to resolve DNS host names to IP addresses. Auto mapped to a host’s DNS resolver cache in modern systems

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185
Q

DNS uses what port?

A

53

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186
Q

Internet name of DNS root servers is know as what?

A

Dot “.”

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187
Q

What were the original top level domain names?

A 
.com
.org
.edu
.gov
.mil
.int
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188
Q

What is the job of DNS root servers?

A

Delegate name resolution to other DNS servers

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189
Q

DNS servers just below DNS root servers in hierarchy

A

Top level domain servers

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190
Q

What are top level domain server responsibilities?

A

Set of DNS servers that handle top-level domain names such as .com, .org, .net, …

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191
Q

Top level domain servers delegate to who?

A

Second level DNS servers that resolve names within each top level domains

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192
Q

Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers… ICANN

A

Authority to create Top Level Domains… TLD;

.ex, .biz, .info, .pro

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193
Q

DNS hierarchical name space

A

Tree structure of all possible names that could be used within a single system

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194
Q

Hosts file are hierarchical or flat?

A

Flat

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195
Q

Fully Qualified Domain Name… FQDN

A

A complete DNS name, incl the host name and all of its domains… in order;
ex. mailserver.georgiasouthern.edu

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196
Q

Is it a requirement that web server names begin with www?

A

No

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197
Q

What is the most popular DNS server used in Unix/Linux?

A

BIND

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198
Q

Authoritative DNS servers

A

Store IP addresses and FQDNs of systems for a particular domain or domains

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199
Q

Cache only DNS servers

A

Used to talk to other DNS servers to resolve IP addresses for DNS clients;
Never an authoritative server for a domain

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200
Q

Forward lookup zone

A

Storage area in a DNS server that stores IP addresses and names of systems for a particular domain or domains

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201
Q

DNS record types

A

SOA; Start of Authority… primary server in charge of forward lookup
NS; Name Server… primary name server
CNAME; Conical name… acts like an alias
AAAA; Reserved for IPv6 addressing
MX; Used to determine where to send mail
SRV; Generic record that supports any type server
TXT: Freeform used for anything

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202
Q

Forward vs reverse lookup zones

A

Forward… determines IP addr by knowing FQDN

Reverse… determines FQDN by knowing IP addr

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203
Q

Windows Active Directory

A

An organization of related computers that share one or more Windows domains;
Windows DC are DNS servers

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204
Q

What is happening when you can successfully ping an IP addr, but not the name associated with the addr

A

There may be an issue with DNS

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205
Q

Netstat

A

Displays current connections to your system

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206
Q

Tracert

A

Command displays entire route a ping packet travels between you and destination

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207
Q

nslookup

A

Command used to querry DNS to obtain domain name or IP addr mapping or for any other specific DNS record

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208
Q

What command displays DNS cache on Windows sys?

A

ipconfig /displaydns

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209
Q

Encryption that uses the same key as decryption?

A

Symmetric key

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210
Q

RC4 is what type of cypher?

A

Stream

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211
Q

In a PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) encryption method, which key encrypts the data?

A

Public

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212
Q

Process of verifying that sender is who the receiver thinks they should be

A

Nonrepudiation

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213
Q

A hash function is by definition, what?

A

One way function

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214
Q

Common hash function

A

SHA-3

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215
Q

In order to have PKI, you must have what?

A

Root authority

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216
Q

Which type access control requires a label to define sensitivity?

A

Mandatory access control

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217
Q

What AAA standard is running if you see traffic on ports 1812 and 1813

A

RADIUS

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218
Q

Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?

A

Kerberos

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219
Q

Nonrepudiation

A

Not being able to deny taking a specific action

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220
Q

Cipher

A

A way to encrypt data

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221
Q

Algorithm

A

Mathematical formula that underlies the cipher

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222
Q

Areas of TC{/IP security

A 
Encryption
Integrity
Nonrepudiation
Authentication
Authorization
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223
Q

Symmetric key algorithm

A

Same key used for encryption and decryption

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224
Q

Asymmetric key algorithm

A

Different keys used for encryption and decryption

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225
Q

RC4 streaming cipher

A

Used in wireless, web pages, and remote access; becoming a legacy cipher

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226
Q

AES

A

Advanced Encryption Standard;

Symmetric encryption algorithm now used by many applications

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227
Q

Public keys cryptography is mainly symmetric or asymmetric?

A

Asymmetric

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228
Q

What encryption is used at layer 3?

A

Network layer uses IPsec… Internet Protocol Security

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229
Q

What encryption occurs at layers 5, 6 and 7?

A

5-Session / 6-Presentation / 7-Application;

SSL and TLS

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230
Q

SSL

A

Secure Socket Layer;

Authentication and data encryption between servers, machines and applications

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231
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security;

Authentication and data encryption between servers, machines and applications

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232
Q

What is the most popular hash algorithm in use?

A

SHA-2;

Used by SSL certificates

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233
Q

What is the newest family of hash algorithms?

A

SHA-3

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234
Q

What is a common server authentication tool?

A

CRAM-MD5;

Challenge Response Authentication Mechanism

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235
Q

What is a digital signature?

A

Hash of a public key encrypted by a private key

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236
Q

Certificates

A

Standardized file including a public key with a trusted third party digital signature which is a company guaranteeing the certificate is being passed out by who they say they are

237
Q

Multifactor authentication methods

A 
Passwords: something you know
Cards: something you have
Biometrics: something you are
Location: somewhere you are
Something you do
238
Q

Network Access Control

A

Control over information, people, access, machines, and everything in between

239
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List;

List of permissions an authenticated user has, specifying what they may perform on shared resources

240
Q

What are types of ACL permissions?

A

Mandatory Access Control - resource has defined security level required to access;
Discretionary Access Control - resource owner defines security level require to access
Role Based Access Control - user access to resource based on roles/groups user belongs

241
Q

TCP/IP user security authentication standards

A

PPP - Point to Point Protocol

AAA - Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

242
Q

PPP authentication

A

Username / passsword;
CHAP - Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol;
MS-CHAP is most secure

243
Q

AAA Radius standard

A

Remote Access Dial in User Service;
Uses NAS to control modems;
Uses PAP, CHAP, MS-CHAP

244
Q

What ports are used by AAA RADIUS standard?

A

TCP ports 1812 and 1813;

UDP ports 1645 and 1646

245
Q

AAA kerberos

A

Authentication protocol for TCP/IP;

UDP or TCP ports 88 by default

246
Q

SSH FTP

A

Secure Shell FTP - uses TCP port 23

247
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol;
Standards for communication and managing network devices;
SNMPv3 uses UDP ports 161 and 162

248
Q

MIB

A

Management Information Base;

Server containing network information used by SNMP

249
Q

LDAP

A

Protocol used to query and change database used by network;

Uses TCP port 389;

250
Q

NTP

A

Network Time Protocol;

Provides current time… uses UDP port 123

251
Q

Which VPN technology enables direct connections between satellite locations?

A

DMVPM - Dynamioc Multipoint VPN

252
Q

Which protocol is popular with today’s VPN

A

IPsec

253
Q

A static VLAN assigns VLANs to what?

A

Physical ports

254
Q

What trunking protocol is used with today’s VLANs?

A

802.1Q

255
Q

A content switch qalways works at least at what layer of the OSI model/

A

Usually layer 4 thru 7, but must work at least at layer 7… Application

256
Q

What solution might improve the quality of VOIP calls when network is busy and calls sound clipped

A

Traffic shaping

257
Q

What are two benefits of caching on a Web Proxy/

A

Response time;

Virus detection

258
Q

802.1X is a great example of what?

A

Port authentication

259
Q

What is the most common method used to configure a VLAN capable switch?

A

Log into the switch using SSH and using a command line interface

260
Q

What is IDS

A

Intrusion Detection System;

Inspects copy of all network traffic and can respond to detected intrusions with actions

261
Q

VPN

A

Encrypted tunnel between a computer / remote network to a private network through the internet

262
Q

Do computers on a VPN have the same network ID?

A

Yes

263
Q

PPTP VPN

A

Point to Point tunneling Protocol VPN

264
Q

Does a VPN connection for a network run slower than an actual local connection on the same network?

A

Yes

265
Q

RRAS

A

Routing and Remote Access Server: allows remote access to the network

266
Q

Host to site connection

A

VPN connection where a single computer logs into a remote network and becomes a member of that network

267
Q

Host to VPN

A

Single connection between two machines using VPN software or hardware

268
Q

VPN concentraator

A

A device that handles multiple VPN tunnels remotely

269
Q

L2TP

A

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol: VPN protocol ran on almost any connection. Uses IPsec for security

270
Q

SSL VPN

A

SSL Portal - connection via web browser using TLS

SSL tunnel - client web browser runs active control with greater access to network

271
Q

DTLS VPNs

A

Datagram TLS optimizes connections for delay sensitive applications using UDP datagrams rather than TCP segments

272
Q

DMVPN

A

Enables direct VPN connections between multiple locations directly

273
Q

How do you configure the default gateway on a switch/

A

Enter the IP address of the router… will be add of cable modem in a lot of cases

274
Q

Out of band management… switch management

A

Method to connect and administer a managed device via dedicated port that is separate from rest of network

275
Q

Console router

A

Router with out of band management capabilities

276
Q

Trunking

A

Process of transferring VLAN traffic between two or more switches

277
Q

VLAN segmentation

A

x

278
Q

VLAN interface properties

A

x

279
Q

Tagging VLAN switch ports

A

x

280
Q

Untagging VLAN switch ports

A

x

281
Q

VTP

A

VLAN Trunking Protocol… protocol to automate updating mult VLAN switches

282
Q

A layer 2 switch forwards traffic based on what?

A

MAC address

283
Q

A layer 3 switch forwards traffic based on what?

A

IP address

284
Q

Layer 3 switch

A

Router that accomplishes with hardware what a traditional router does with software;
Multilayer switch

285
Q

Four functions multilayer switches support

A

1 Load balancing
2 QoS
3 Port bonding
4 Network protection

286
Q

Load balancing

A

Making many servers look like a single server

287
Q

Qos

A

Quality of Service… Policies that control how much bandwidth a protocol, PC, user, VLAN or IP address may use

288
Q

Port bonding

A

Logical joining of mult redundant ports and links between two network devices;
Also called port aggregation and NIC teaming

289
Q

Network protiection

A

IDS - Intrusion Detection System: alerts when attack detected
NIDS - Network Intrusion Detection System usually on both sides of gateway router
HIDS - Host Intrusion Protection System: protection runs on individual systems and monitors file and registry changes

290
Q

Content switch

A

Content filter network appliance;
Hides behind single IP addr
Works at layer 7

291
Q

Traffic shaping

A

Bandwidth management where packet flow depends on type of packet or other rules

292
Q

Signature management

A

Monitors and protects network traffic from malicious code via continuously updating definition files

293
Q

Describe signature based IDS

A

Scans using signature files for networks

294
Q

Behavior based IDS

A

Scans for suspicious behavior on host systems

295
Q

IPS

A

Intrusion Prevention System… stops attacks

296
Q

HIPS

A

Host Intrusion Prevention System… located on a host

297
Q

NIPS

A

Network Intrusion Prevention System… Located on a network

298
Q

Is DHCP required to receive an IPv6 address automatically?

A

No

299
Q

What kind of DNS records do IPv6 addresses use?

A

AAAA

300
Q

What does a client need to access IPv6 content on the internet?

A

Global unicast address address

301
Q

Is NAT needed with IPv6?

A

No

302
Q

What is the /16 prefix for all 6to4 address?

A

2002

303
Q

Which operating systems have Teredo built in/

A

W7 and W10

304
Q

What service do tunnel brokers provide?

A

A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and IPv6 routers

305
Q

IPv6 network prefix

A

First 64 bits used for routing

306
Q

IPv6 interface ID

A

Second 64 bits used for the user address

307
Q

IPv6 interface ID

A

Second 64 bits used for the user address

308
Q

What are the 2 parts of the IPv6 network prefix?

A

Global routing;

Subnet ID

309
Q

Shortcuts for writing IPv6 addresses which consist of 8 groups of 4 hexadecimal characters

A

Leading zeroes can be dropped from a group;
A pair of colons (::) can be used for a string of zeroes in two consecutive groups;
Only a single pair of colons is allowed per address

310
Q

What is the IPv6 loopback address?

A

::1

311
Q

How many bits are in each group (hextet) of an IPv6 address?

A

16

312
Q

How many groups are in an IPv6 address?

A

8

313
Q

What is the max prefix length (/x subnet mask) for an IPv6 address?

A

/64

314
Q

What is a link local address?

A

At bootup, the first 64 bits are assigned fe80:0000:0000:0000… similar to IPv4 APIPA;
Second 64 bits (interface ID) random generated number or Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64) generated from the MAC addr

315
Q

Unicast address

A

Single network device - address unique to that system

316
Q

Multicast address

A

Reserved addresses which go only to certain systems

317
Q

Global unicast address

A

A second IPv6 address that every system needs in order to get on the internet

318
Q

Aggregation

A

Router heirarchy where sub-routers use subnet of higher router’s existing routes

319
Q

Neighbor discovery

A

IPv6 protocol that enables hosts to auto configure own IPv6 address and info… gateway, DNS, etc

320
Q

4to6

A

Encapsulates IPv4 traffic into and IPv6 router

321
Q

Toredo

A

NAT traversal IPv6 tunneling protocol

322
Q

What is the signal rate for DS0?

A

64Kbps

323
Q

What is the most popular remote server program called?

A

RRAS - Routing and Remote Access Server

324
Q

What is throughput of ADLS?

A

Up to 15Mbps

325
Q

What device is used to connect to a T1 line?

A

CSU / DSU

326
Q

BRI ISDN uses what channel?

A

Two B channels and one D channel

327
Q

The V.90 standard defines a modem speed of what?

A

56Kbps

328
Q

After DSL is installed, the internet connection is fast, why might phones no longer work?

A

POTS filter not installed on phone jacks

329
Q

What protocol do cable modems use?

A

DOCSIS… Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification

330
Q

What is a SONET used for?

A

Long distance high speed fiber optic transmission;

Synchronous Optical Network

331
Q

What does SIP stand for?

A

Session Initiation Protocol

332
Q

Modulation techniques means what?

A

Converting a digital signal to analog

333
Q

T1 description

A

24 channels @ 1.544 Mbps

334
Q

T3 description

A

672 channels @ 44.736Mbps

335
Q

E1 and SONET use what as the control channel?

A

A derivative of HDLC protocol

336
Q

E1 description

A

32 channels @ 2.048 Mbps

337
Q

E3 description

A

512 channels @ 34.368 Mbps

338
Q

DWDM

A

Enables individual single mode fiber to carry mult signals by using different wavelengths

339
Q

Packet switches

A

Machines that forward and store packets

340
Q

WAN connections traditionally use two diff forms of packet switching

A

ATM;

Frame relay

341
Q

What protocol replaces ATM and frame relay?

A

MPLS… Multiprotocol Label Switching

342
Q

Current networks use what type of switching?

A

Packet switching

343
Q

Older networks use what type of switching/

A

Circuit switching

344
Q

PSTN / POTS

A

Public Switched Telephone Network;

Plain Old Telephone System

345
Q

LEC

A

Local Exchange Carrier - provides local phone svc

346
Q

Interchange Exchange Carriers - IXC

A

Provides long distance service

347
Q

ISDN

A

Integrated Services Digital Network;

Process of sending telephone transmission across digital lines

348
Q

ISDN B channel

A

DS0 channell - 64Kbs

349
Q

SDSL

A

Synchronous DSL… same up and down speeds

350
Q

ADSL

A

Asynchronous DSL… diff up and down speeds

351
Q

Utilities that facilitate troubleshooting whether a device has a solid IP connection?

A

Ping, ipconfig, netstat, nslookup, …

352
Q

What is needed to connect a computer to the internet?

A

Legitimate IP addr;
Subnet mask;
Default gateway addr;
DNS address

353
Q

Which wireless networking technology used the 5.0GHz frequency range?

A

802.11a

354
Q

Which technology enables use of WAP without directly connecting the WAP to an AC power outlet?

A

PoE

355
Q

What is known as a Basic Service Set in infrastructure mode?

A

Single WAP

356
Q

Basic Service Set

A

Collection of stations which may communicate with each other within an 80.211 network

357
Q

What feature enables 802.11n networks to minimize dead spots?

A

Multiple WAP antennas… known as Transit beamforming

358
Q

Which consumer electronics may cause interferance with 802.11n wireless networks?

A

Wireless telephones which operate in the same 2.4GHz frequency range

359
Q

To achieve max WiFi coverage in a room, where should you place the WAP?

A

Center

360
Q

What hardware enables wireless PCs to connect to resources on a wired network segment in infrastructure mode?

A

WAP on a wireless bridge

361
Q

What do you call a wireless network in infrastructure mode with more than one access point?

A

Extended Basic Service Set… EBSS

362
Q

What type of server supports EAP encrypted passwords in accordance with 802.1x standard?

A

RADIUS

363
Q

What is the most secure method of wireless encryption?

A

WPA2… because it uses CCMP-AES 128 bit cypher;

WiFi Protected Access

364
Q

What is WPA?

A

Data encryption scheme

365
Q

RADIUS server

A

Provides authentication via user name and password;

Remote Authentication Dial In User Service

366
Q

TKIP

A

Used by WPA encryption scheme to encrypt data;

Temporary Key Integrity Protocol

367
Q

Wireless encryption strength hierarchy

A

Strongest to weakest:
WPA2 - with CCMP-AES
WPA with TKIP
WEP

368
Q

What are the modes wireless networks operate within?

A

Ad hoc mode;

Infrastructure mode

369
Q

Ad hoc mode

A

Two or more devices communicate directly without intermediary hardware… also called peer to peer;
Uses mesh topology

370
Q

Infrastructure mode

A

One or more WAPs for devices to connect to centrally

371
Q

IBSS

A

Independent Basic Service Set;

Two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode

372
Q

Basic Service Set

A

Single WAP servicing a given area

373
Q

ESS

A

Extended Service Set…

Adding additional access points to extend a service area

374
Q

Current CSMA-CA devices use what method for collision avoidance?

A

DCF… Distributed Coordination Function;

RTS/RTS… Ready To Send / Clear To Send

375
Q

Goodput of the wireless network

A

Actual number of useful bits per second received by application

376
Q

802.11b

A

Wireless standard:
2.4GHz;
11 Mbps
~300’ range

377
Q

802.11a

A

5.0 GHz;
54 Mbps
~150 ‘ range

378
Q

802.11g

A

2.4GHz;
54 Mbps
~300’ range

379
Q

802.11n

A

2.4GHz;
100+ Mbps
~300’ range

380
Q

802.11ac

A

5GHz;
Up to 1Gbps
~300’ range

381
Q

MIMO

A

Multiple In Multiple Out;

Multiple antennas provide multiple connections called streams

382
Q

Transmit Beamforming

A

Multiple antennas help WAP eliminate dead spots

383
Q

What is occurring if an 802.11g device shows a connection tye 802.11g-ht?

A

A device is connecting to and 802.11n WAP running in mixed mode

384
Q

WPS

A

WiFi Protected Setup… push button or PIN method

385
Q

Name three network hardening techniques

A

Authentication;
Encryption;
MAC address filtering

386
Q

WAPs use what to enable or deny access to the network

A

ACL… via MAC address listing, called a whitelist

387
Q

What data does a RADIUS server store?

A

Stores usernames and passwords

388
Q

EAP authentication

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol mainly used in wireless

389
Q

802.1x

A

Port authentication network access control mechanism mainly for wireless

390
Q

EAP protocol variations

A 
EAP-PSK... preshared key
EAP-TLS... transport layer sec
EAP-TTLS... tunneled TLS
EAP-MS-CHAPv2... most common
EAP-DM5... weak
LEAP... lightweight
EAP-FAST...
391
Q

WPA2 Enterprise

A

Version of WPA2 that uses RADIUS server for authentication

392
Q

Heat map

A

Represents network signal intensity

393
Q

Omnidirectional

A

Signal radiates out in all directions

394
Q

Unidirectional

A

Signal focused in a specific area

395
Q

Patch antenna

A

Small footprint… generates small half sphere beam

396
Q

Name main symptoms for wireless networks having issues

A

Cannot get on network;
Connection slow
Connection doing weird things

397
Q

Weird connection scenario for wireless network

A

Open network
Wrong SSID
Rogue access point
Untested updates

398
Q

Comptia scenario questions re: wireless limits

A

Throughput speeds: 11, 54, 100” Mbps
Frequencies
Distance
Channel usage

399
Q

What channels should be used when operating on 2.4 GHz?

A

1, 6, 11

400
Q

Wireless scanning tools

A

Used to check wireless channel utilization;

Reports on nearby devices connected to WAP

401
Q

Wireless - no connection issues

A

Channel problem;
Security type mismatch
Signal / power levels

402
Q

Wireless - slowness issues

A

Overworked WAPs;
Physical problem with signal between WAP and client;
Too much RFI on network

403
Q

Spectrum Analyzer

A

Scans for RF interference

404
Q

Upgrading which component on host machine would most likely enable you to run more virtual machines simultaneously?

A

RAM

405
Q

What enables two VMs hosted on the same physical machine to communicate without leaving the machine itself?

A

Virtual switch

406
Q

What features let you save a VMs state so you can quickly restore to that point?

A

Snapshot

407
Q

What do you need to install a legal copy of Windows 10 into a VM using VMware Workstation?

A

Valid W10 installation media

408
Q

What is an advantage of a virtual machine over a physical machine?

A

Hardware consolidation

409
Q

Public cloud

A

Allows quickly creating servers to run in cloud without owning the servers

410
Q

Platform as a Service… Paas

A

Allows use of cloud based servers which are also administered and security is kept up to date

411
Q

How does one get two groups of virtual machines on the same subnet without moving or re-cabling harware?

A

Virtual router

412
Q

What would allow use of iSCSI to read and write data over the network

A

SAN… Storage Area Network

413
Q

Adding short term capacity via creating additional servers in the cloud is what form of cloud computing?

A

Hybrid cloud

414
Q

What is a host within a virtual environment?

A

A computer running multiple virtual operating systems simultaneously

415
Q

Hypervisor

A

Layer of programming that creates, supports and manages a virtual machine

416
Q

Emulator

A

Software or hardware that converts the commands to and from the host machine into an entirely diff platform

417
Q

Bare metal hypervisor

A

Runs directly on hardware… no software between hypervisor and hardware

418
Q

SAN

A

Storage Area Network… pooled hard disks on a server presented as logical disks over network

419
Q

What are three main choices for supporting a SAN within an infrastructure?

A

Fiber channel… high perform storage with cables, protocols and switches;
iSCSI… built on TCP/IP; communicates across network, uses jumbo frames
InfiniBand… Unique NIC and cabling

420
Q

Jumbo frames

A

Usually 9000 Bytes long, however > 1500 Bytes qualifies

421
Q

NAS

A

Network Attached Storage… Dedicated file server with own file sys, hardware and software;
Slower than NAS

422
Q

How are VMs given indiv IP addresses?

A

Bridge the NIC… real Nic passes traffic to virt NIC

423
Q

Virtual switch

A

VMs use to communicate with each other w/o going outside host sys

424
Q

Distributed switching

A

Centralized install, configure and handling of all switches in virtual network

425
Q

Virtual routers allow what

A

Dynamic reconfig of networks

426
Q

IaaS

A

Provided servers, switches, routers… ex AWS;
Cust don’t purch equip;
Cust resp for config, OS and software maint,

427
Q

PaaS

A

Provides complete deployment sys where programmers dev, admin and maint web appl;
Can add tools to setup database, monitor traffic and performance;
Sits on top of IaaS

428
Q

SaaS

A

Software as a Service… Centralized application access over the network

429
Q

Public cloud

A

Software, platforms and infrastructure delivered through networks for general public use

430
Q

Private cloud

A

Ownership of internal resources, inc infrastructure, platform and software

431
Q

Hybrid cloud

A

Connecting some combination of public, private and community cluds

432
Q

Which cellular WAN tech introduced concept of SIM card

A

GSM… Global System for Mobile

433
Q

GSM, EDGE and LTE use what?

A

SIM cards;

TDMA… Time Div Mult Access

434
Q

A thermostat you control remotely via a smartphone app falls in what category?

A

IoT… Internet of Things

435
Q

What reduces the vulnerability of a smartphone when automatically connecting to an open SSID?

A

Requiring HTTPS

436
Q

What is required for a classic hotspot

A

802.11;

Cellular WAN

437
Q

In order to pair another Bluetooth device, set it to what mode?

A

Discoverable

438
Q

A Bluetooth PIN code is at least how many digits?

A

4

439
Q

NFC tags are always what?

A

Passive

440
Q

All tap to pay services use what networking technology/

A

NFC

441
Q

A tv remote uses mainly what type network technology?

A

Infrared

442
Q

ANT+ uses minimal or large amounts of power?

A

Minimal

443
Q

What deployment model does a company own all devices, retains control of apps, …?

A

COBO… Corporate Owned Business Only

444
Q

Internet of Things

A

Embedded devices that connect to the internet and enable remote monitoring and controlling

445
Q

GSM

A

Global System for Mobile Communications

446
Q

GSM relies on what for users to share access?

A

TDMA… Time Division Multiple Access;

Mult users share the same channel at same time

447
Q

What did GSM technology introduce to phones/

A

SIM cards:
Identifies the phone;
enables cellular network access;
stores information

448
Q

Edge

A

GSM standard offering speeds up to 384Kbps;

Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution

449
Q

CDMA

A

No SIM card;
Superior to GSM
Incompatible with GSM TDMA
Uses spread spectrum to allow mult users

450
Q

HSPA+

A

3G standard
Theoretical speeds up to 168Mbps
High Speed Packet Access

451
Q

LTE

A

4G
Downloads 300Mbps
Up 75Mbps
Long Term Evolution

452
Q

PAN

A

Personal Area Network;
Network among devices using Point to point connections;
Bluetooth, NFC, infrared

453
Q

Bluejacking

A

Send unsolicited messages to Bluetooth devices

454
Q

Bluesnarfing

A

Stealing info from Bluetooth devices

455
Q

ANT+

A

Low speed & power network technolgy uses passive ANT devices and ANT readers;
Adaptive Network Technologies

456
Q

Z-Wave and Zigbee

A

Home automation standards;
Use hubs and mesh network topology;
Z-Wave is proprietary with open API
Zigbee is open source

457
Q

Hardening IoT devices

A

Update software / firmware;
Physical security;
Apply internal security options

458
Q

When designing a basic network, which two main factors are considered?

A

List of requirements;

Equipment limitations

459
Q

`Is network authentication a unique server function?

A

Yes

460
Q

What standard is used by most NAS devices, enabling them to connect easily to almost any network device?

A

CIFS… Common Internet File System

461
Q

Adding a generator to a server room is an example of what?

A

Power redundancy

462
Q

H.323 uses which TCP port?

A

1720

463
Q

RTP protocol runs on top of what protocol?

A

SIP

464
Q

What is an example of a UC gateway device?

A

Router

465
Q

What is a tool for ensuring bandwidth for video teleconfrencing (VTC)?

A

QoS

466
Q

Centerpiece for any Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) is what?

A

ICS server

467
Q

What differentiates a PLC from a DCS controller?

A

PCL controls with sequential ordered steps

468
Q

PLC

A

Programmable Logic Controller;

Computer that controls a machine according to a set of ordered steps

469
Q

DCS

A

Distributed Control System;
controllers added directly to a machine;
Central operator controls distributed controls

470
Q

Unified Communications (UC)

A

Many network services rolled into one;

Voice, video, messaging

471
Q

Unified Voice Services

A

Self contained internet services that rely on software on computers to provide voice telecommunications via the internet with interconnections handled in the cloud… ex. Skype

472
Q

VOIP uses what protocol and ports?

A

RTP 5004 and 5005;

SIP 5060 and 5061

473
Q

What type of device is a VOIP telehone?

A

UC device

474
Q

UC gateway

A

Edge device interfacing with remote UC gateways and PSTN sys

475
Q

H.323

A

Most common used CODEC;

Runs on TCP port 1720

476
Q

MGCP

A

Media Gateway Control Protocol;
VOIP and Video presentation connection and session controller;
Uses TCP ports 2427 and 2727

477
Q

DCS

A

Distributed Control System… controller added to machine to distribute computing load

478
Q

PLC

A

Programable Logic Controller

479
Q

SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition;
Used for large scale distributed process… pwr grid;
Devices may or may not have ongoing commun w/central control

480
Q

RTU

A

Remote Terminal Unit;
Provides controller function for SCADA with autonomy;
Uses long dis communi… telephony, fiber, cellular WANs

481
Q

Why are networks segmented?

A

Security;
Performance;
Load balancing;
Compliance

482
Q

Where is an acceptable use policy found?

A

Security policy

483
Q

When is a memorandum of understanding used?

A

When a legal contract is not appropriate

484
Q

What is succession planning?

A

Identifying personnel who can take over certain positions in response to an incident

485
Q

Risk management

A

Process on how organizations deal with network attacks

486
Q

Security policy

A

Defines how organization will protect IT infrastructure

487
Q

Acceptable use policy

A

Defines what is and is not acceptable to do on organization’s computers

488
Q

Network access policy

A

Defines who may access network and how / what they may access

489
Q

Name sub policies contained within network access policies

A

Privileged user agreement;
Password policy;
Data loss prevention policy;
Remote access policy

490
Q

Patch management

A

Regularly updating OS and apps to avoid security threats

491
Q

Virtual IP address

A

Single address shared by mult systems;

ex. server failover for server cluster accepting traffic via single IP addr

492
Q

Fault tolerance

A

Ability of a system to continue operating in the event of a component failure

493
Q

Clustering

A

Multiple pieces of equipment, such as servers, that are connected and appear as one logical device

494
Q

Name 5 business documents used when dealing with third party vendors

A
  • SLA;
  • Memorandum of understanding;
  • Multi source agreement:details interoperability of their components;
  • Statement of work: Legal doc between vendor and cust defining svcs, products, timeframes;
  • Nondisclosure agreement: legal doc prohibiting disclosure of company secrets
495
Q

Vulnerability scanning

A

Inspects huge nbr of vulnerabilites and provides report

496
Q

Contingency plans

A

Documents how to limit damage and recover quickly

497
Q

Incident response

A

Reaction to negative situations within organization in an effort to stop, contain, and remediate without outside resources

498
Q

Disaster recovery

A

Details recovering infrasturcture from disaster that destroys or disables substantial amounts of infrastructure

499
Q

Business Continuity Plan

A

BCP…Process that keeps businesses going at remote site in the event a disaster prevents primary infrastructure from operating

500
Q

Full backup

A

Every file selected is backed up;

Archive bit turned off for files backed up

501
Q

Incremental backup

A

Only backs up files that have changed since last full or incr backup;
Archive bit is turned off for files backed up

502
Q

Differential backup

A

Backs up all files that have changed since last full backup;

Archive bit is not turned off for files backed up

503
Q

Cold site

A

Location with bldg, facilities, desks, toilets, parking, but no computer

504
Q

Warm site

A

Same as cold site, but has computers

505
Q

Hot site

A

Same as warm site, but has backups

506
Q

Computer forensics

A

Science of gathering, preserving, presenting evidence stored on a computer or digital media that is presentable in a court of law

507
Q

Chain of custody

A

Paper trail documenting who accessed and controlled a piece of evidence from the time it was brought into custody until the incident is resolved

508
Q

MSDS

A

Details how to deal with computer components including replacement parts, recycling and more

509
Q

A hacker who sends email and replaces return address with a fake one is doing what?

A

Spoofing an email address

510
Q

What tool is used to prevent ARP cache poisoning?

A

DAI - Dynamic Arp Inspection

511
Q

A computer compromised with malware to support a botnet is called what/

A

Zombie

512
Q

What is it called when the goal of this aspect of a DoS attack is to make the attacked system process each request for as long as possible

A

Amplification

513
Q

When a user’s machine is screen locked along with instructions to call a number to unlock the system is referred to as what?

A

Ransomware

514
Q

An attack where someone tries to hack a password using every possible permutation is called what?

A

Brute force

515
Q

Which Windows utility displays open ports on a host?

A

netstat

516
Q

Which protocols are notorius for cleartext passwords

A

Telnet, Pop3

517
Q

NSA TEMPEST security standards are used to combat which risk?

A

RF emanation… wandering radio waves

518
Q

Being told to access a website and clicking a “Run the program” button to check for malware is what form of anti-malware delivery?

A

Cloud

519
Q

What is switch port protection?

A

A key network hardening technique

520
Q

DNS poisoning

A

DNS server is targeted to query an evil DNS server instead of correct one, and fed spoofed information.

521
Q

ARP cache poisoning

A

Attacks target ARP caches on host switches, which contain known IP address / MAC address associations

522
Q

Botnet

A

A group of computers under the control of one operator

523
Q

DDos

A

Distributed denial of service… hundreds, thousands or millions of computers under the control of a single operator, in an effort to bring down a server

524
Q

Reflection

A

Form of DDoS where requests to a server (ex. DNS, NTP) contain a source IP address of a target server, resulting in amplified responses to the target server.

525
Q

Session hijacking

A

Interception of computer sessions in an effort to get authentication information

526
Q

Man in the middle

A

Attacker taps into communications between two systems, reading and possibly changing data before sending it on

527
Q

Name native administrative account names for Windows, Linux and MacOS

A

Wdws: administrator
Mac: root
Linux: root

528
Q

Malware

A 
Program or code designed to do something on system or network not desired;
Virus;
Worm;
macros;
trojan horse;
rootkits;
adware;
spyware
529
Q

Crypto malware

A

Encryption used to lock a user out of a system

530
Q

Virus

A

Program or code that attaches to a host file and replicates and activates on host system drive or flash drive. Not replicated via network

531
Q

Worm

A

Similar to a virus, but replicates thru the network;

Exploits vulnerabilities in program code, OS, protocols

532
Q

Macro virus

A

A virus where application commands execute when the application is opened

533
Q

Logic bomb

A

Code written to execute when certain conditions are met

534
Q

Trojan horse

A

Malware that looks as if it is doing one thing, but does something evil

535
Q

Rootkit

A

Virus or Trojan which takes advantage of low level OS functions which hides itself and gains privileged access to the computer

536
Q

Adware

A

Programs which monitor websites visited, then generate targeted advertisements

537
Q

Spyware

A

Programs which send info over the internet about your system or actions… browsing history, keystrokes, email contacts, …

538
Q

Zero day attack

A

New attack that exploits a vulnerability yet to be identified

539
Q

Smart card

A

Cards with microprocessor circuitry to enable authentication and other transactions

540
Q

Cypher lock

A

Door unlocking system which combines a door handle, latch, and a sequence of mechanical buttons

541
Q

Multifactor authentication

A

Access granted based on more than one access technique

542
Q

Edge device

A

Hardware optimized to perform a task;

Works in coordination with other edge devices and controllers

543
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control… Standardizes approach to verify a node meets certain criteria before allowed to connect to network

544
Q

Posture assessment

A

Query of network devices to confirm they meet minimum security standards before permitted to connect to production network

545
Q

Non persistent agent

A

Software agent used in posture assessment that does not stay resident in client station memory and executed prior to login;
Used to allow / deny or redirect attempted connections

546
Q

Flood guards

A

Used by switches to detect and block excessive traffic ;

Enhances switch port protection

547
Q

Statefull inspection

A

New modern technique added to firewalls;

Compares packet state to other packets

548
Q

Unified Threat Management

A

UTM;
Firewall packaged with collection of other processes and utilities to detect and prevent threats;
Includes intrusion detection and prevention, VPN portals and load balancers

549
Q

DMZ

A

Demilitarization Zone… Lightly protected or unprotected subnet positioned between an outer firewall and organization’s internal network.
Mainly used to host public address servers

550
Q

What PDU does SNMP manager use to query agents?

A

Get

551
Q

In an SNMP managed network, which type software does a managed device run?

A

agent

552
Q

How does an SNMP manged system categorize data that can be querried?

A

MIBs

553
Q

An SNMP manger listens on which port when used with TLS?

A

10162

554
Q

Which tool is used to capture and analyze traffic between two networked computers?

A

Packet flow monitor

555
Q

Where does a packet sniffer put information it collects?

A

Capture file

556
Q

If analysis of a network shows a lot of traffic on one machine on port 161, what kind of machine is it?

A

A managed device

557
Q

What should be created for reference, when a network is running correctly?

A

Baseline

558
Q

What network management tool can provide graphs of various types of data including traffic and current file server capacities?

A

Cacti

559
Q

What tool enables the comparison of current performance with correctly functioning network performance/

A

Performance monitor

560
Q

SNMP Protocol Data Unit… PDU

A 
Specialized type of command and control packet found in SNMP management systems... 
Get;
Response;
Set;
Trap
561
Q

Name 4 main monitoring tools used to monitor, troubleshoot and optimize networks

A

Packet sniffer;
Protocol analyzers;
Interface monitors;
Performance monitor

562
Q

Packet sniffer

A

Software tool that queries a network interface and captures packets in a capture file

563
Q

Protocol analyzer

A

Program that processes and analyzers capture files from a packet sniffer… aka packet analyzer

564
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information Event Management…real time monitoring of security events and information analysis

565
Q

What does nslookup do?

A

Queries DNS for IP address of the supplied host name

566
Q

What is wireshark

A

Protocol analyzer;
Packet sniffer;
packet analyzer

567
Q

What will the command “route print” return on a Windows system?

A

The current local system’s route table

568
Q

When trying to establish symptoms over the phone, what kind of questions should be asked of a novice ore confused user?

A

Open ended questions… let user explain the problem in their own words

569
Q

While asking a user problem isolating questions, what else should a tech be doing?

A

Asking themselves if there is anything on their side of the network that could be causing the problem

570
Q

Which command shows you the detailed IP information, including DNS server address and MAC addresses?

A

ipconfig /all

571
Q

What is the last step in the troubleshooting process?

A

Documenting the solution

572
Q

If a user indicates they can’t reach a website and you cannot either, however you can successfully ping the site using it’s IP address, what is most likely the problem?

A

DSN server is having issues;

A successful ping indicates the site is up, and your LAN and gateway rea functioning properly

573
Q

Name three devices used by techs to deal with broken cables

A

Cable testers… to determine if there are continuity problems;
TDR… Time Domain Reflectometers… determines if there are cable breaks in copper wire;
OTDR… Optical Time Domain Reflectometer… determines cable breaks in fiber optic cable

574
Q

Cable certifier

A

Tests cable for rated amount of capacity;
Used for testing if slowness is an issue;
Requires loopback adapter

575
Q

Light meter

A

Measures light loss in fiber optic cables

576
Q

Tracert / traceroute

A

Traces all of the routers between two points;

If a traceroute stops at a specific router, the problem lies with the next router or the connection between them

577
Q

ARP

A

Address Resolution Protocol… resolves IP address to MAC addresses

578
Q

What is nslookup equivalent utility for Mac and Linux

A

Dig

579
Q

route command

A

Allows the display and edit of local system’s routing table… “route print”

580
Q

Netstat

A

Displays information on current sessions and running processes on a system

581
Q

iptables

A

Linux utility that enables command line control over IPv4 tables and rules that determine what happens with packets when it encounters a firewall

582
Q

Port scanner

A

Program that probes ports on another system to determine their state… open or closed

583
Q

Looking glass sites

A

Remote servers accessible with a browser that contain common collections of diagnostic tools like ping, traceroute and BGP query tools

584
Q

Identify steps of basic troubleshooting process

A 
Identify problem... gather information
Establish theory probable cause
Test theory of probable cause
Establish plan of action to resolve problem
Implement solution
Verify sys functionality
Document findings
585
Q

Eliminating what, is one of the first tools in a tech’s arsenal of diagnostic techniques?

A

Variables

586
Q

Can Windows 10 have a simultaneous wired / wireless connection issue/

A

No, as long as computers are updated

587
Q

What happens if a speed mismatch between NICs occurs/

A

No link established

588
Q

What happens if only a duplex mismatch occurs between a NIC and a switch?

A

Connection will be erratic

589
Q

How can you prevent downtime due to a failure on your default gateway?

A

Implement VRRP… Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol

Net+ (10 decks)

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