Myeloproliferative Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
A

ET

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2
Q
A

Myelofibrosis (tear drop cells, monolobed PMNs)

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3
Q

Two most common leukemias

A

CLL (most common) and AML

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4
Q
A

PV (Absence of iron is a typical finding in the marrow at diagnosis. Iron stores have been depleted to sustain the expanded erythrocyte mass.)

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5
Q
A

CML (many different lineages)

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6
Q

Basophilia is common in which myeloproliferative disorders?

A

CML, myelofibrosis, PV

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7
Q

Elevated or low in CML:

Uric acid

LAP

B12

Transcobalamine

A

Uric acid - elevated (tumor lysis syndrome)

LAP - low (myelocytes are non-functional = not producing alk phos)

B12 - elevated

Transcobalamine - elevated (B12 binding protein)

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8
Q

Median duration CML:

Chronic phase

Accelerated phase

Blast phase

A

Chronic phase - 5-6 years

Accelerated phase - 6-9 mo

Blast phase - 3-6 mo

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9
Q

Who discovered Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Janet Rowley

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10
Q

What % of patients with CML have t(9:22)?

A

95%

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11
Q

What % of cells express t(9:22) in person with CML with that cytogenetic abnormality?

A

100% (of RBC, WBC, monocytes, platelets)

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12
Q

Only cure for CML

A

HSCT

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13
Q

Why are busulfan and hydroxyurea not that great?

A

Can’t control CML once it’s in accelerated phase

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14
Q

Targeted tx for CML. MOA?

A

Imatinib - binds in ATP binding pocket of tyrosine kinase, inhibiting it

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15
Q

How long must patient be on imatinib before almost all peripheral blood is back to normal?

A

~1 month!!

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16
Q

More efficacious: IFN or imatinib?

A

Imatinib (much more so)

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17
Q

Resistance to imatinib mediated by what mutation?

18
Q

Pathway beginning with EPO binding EPO-R

A

Jak-2 activated –> STAT/PI3K/AKT/MAPK –> RBC precursor proliferation and differentiation

19
Q

Jak-2 inhibitors are effective against which diseases?

A

PV, ET, myelofibrosis

20
Q

Jak-2 mutation is most common in which of these: PV, ET, myelofibrosis

A

PT (90-95%)

21
Q

Homozygous Jak-2 mutation indicative of:

22
Q

Pt presents with bone pain, portal HTN, muscle wasting, SOB, palpitations. Lab shows thrombocytosis, leukocytosis.

A

Myelofibrosis

23
Q

Two major causes of death for myelofibrosis pts

A

Vascular disease (~35%), acute leukemia (~25%)

24
Q

Two causes of secondary thrombocytosis

A

Refractory thrombocytosis (after BM suppression)

Splenectomy

25
Least common MPD
ET
26
Secondary vs ET
2ndary = ELEVATED TPO, no splenomegaly, platelet function and morphology is normal, megs are normal ET = NORMAL TPO, 40% splenomegaly, megs abnormal
27
Aortic and mitral valvular leaflet thickening or vegetations
28
3 risk factors for thrombosis
1. Phx 2. Advanced age 3. CV risk factors (i.e. smoking)
29
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome and which heme disorder associated with it?
Occlusion of hepatic vein ET
30
Why can ET cause spontaneous abortion/premature deliveries/etc
Thrombotic complications causing placental insufficiency
31
Two Rx specifically mentioned for ET
Hydroxyurea (ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor) Anagrelide
32
MOA: Anagrelide AE?
Inhibits differentiation of megs = fewer platelets CHF, HA, thrombocytopenia
33
Altitude sickness
Reactive polycythemia
34
Causes of reactive polycythemia
\*\*Anything that would increase EPO Altitude sickness Atrial septal defect Renal hypoxia (due to artery ligation, tumor, hydronephrosis) Tumor (hypernephroma)
35
Most common symptom of PV
HA
36
Blurred vision would be most associated with which MPD?
PV (causes distention of retinal vessels)
37
Elevated or low in PV: LAP B12 Iron stores
LAP - high (hyperfunctional cells) B12 - high Iron stores - low
38
Raynaud phenomenon
PV
39
TOC for PV
Phlebotomy (myelosuppressive Rx given when platelet/WBC count rises or when pruritic)
40
Cross country runner presents with headache, bleeding, and cyanosis. Dx?
Reactive polycythemia due to volume depletion