Mycobacteria Flashcards

1
Q

The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria from a sputum sample is:
A. First morning specimen
B. 10-hour evening specimen
C. 12-hour pooled specimen
D. 24-hour pooled specimen

A

A. First morning specimen

Note: Contamination by fungi and other bacteria contributes to lower yields of mycobacteria in a 24-hour sample. The first morning specimen
collected by expectoration or nebulization produces the highest concentration of mycobacteria in
sputum.

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2
Q

What concentration of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is used to prepare a working decontamination solution for the processing of not normally sterile
specimens for mycobacteria?
A. 1% NaOH
B. 4% NaOH
C. 8% NaOH
D. 12% NaOH

A

B. 4% NaOH

Note: A strong decontamination solution (6% NaOH or greater) may kill or severely damage the mycobacteria. A 4% NaOH solution is mixed with an equal volume of N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC), a digestant or mucolytic agent, to yield a final working concentration of 2% NaOH. The time of exposure of
the specimen to the digestion/decontamination solution must be monitored because overtreatment
may result in fewer positive cultures.

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3
Q

Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated specimen?
A. Löwenstein–Jensen agar
B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar
C. Petragnani’s agar
D. American Thoracic Society medium

A

C. Petragnani’s agar

Note: All four media contain malachite green as an inhibitory agent of nonmycobacteria, but Petragnani’s medium contains a higher concentration (0.052 g/dL) than Löwenstein–Jensen (0.025 g/dL), Middlebrook 7H10 (0.0025 g/dL), or American Thoracic Society medium (0.02 g/dL). The last is used for normally sterile specimens, such as from CSF and bone marrow.

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4
Q

Mycobacteria stained by the Ziehl–Neelsen or Kinyoun methods with methylene blue counterstain are seen microscopically as:
A. Bright red rods against a blue background
B. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
C. Orange-red rods against a black background
D. Bright blue rods against a pink background

A

A. Bright red rods against a blue background

Note: The carbolfuchsin (fuchsin with phenol) stains the mycobacteria red and does not decolorize after the acid–alcohol is added. The background and any other bacterial elements will decolorize and are counterstained blue by the methylene blue. A fluorescent staining procedure may be used as an alternative to acid-fast staining. Auramine fluorochrome produces bright yellow fluorescent mycobacteria and auramine–rhodamine causes an orange-red (gold) fluorescence against a dark background. A fluorescent microscope must be used, but with this method the smear can be scanned with a 25× objective instead of the 100× objective, permitting more rapid identification of mycobacteria.

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5
Q

Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37°C. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex

A

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Note: M. tuberculosis is positive for niacin accumulation, while the other three species are niacin negative. M. ulcerans is associated with skin infections (in the tropics), does not grow at 37°C (optimal temperature is 33°C), and is not recovered from
sputum. A serpentine pattern of growth indicates production of cording factor, a virulence factor for M. tuberculosis.

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6
Q

Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?
A. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium marinum
D. Mycobacterium bovis

A

D. Mycobacterium bovis

M. bovis is also called the bovine tubercle bacillus. A nonvirulent strain, bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG), is used as a tuberculosis vaccine throughout the world. Infections with M. bovis resemble infections caused by M. tuberculosis and are seen in circumstances where there is close contact between humans and cattle.

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7
Q

Which of the following organisms are used as controls for rapid growers and slow growers?
A. Mycobacterium fortuitum and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex
and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium chelonei and Mycobacterium fortuitum
D. Mycobacterium kansasii and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

A. Mycobacterium fortuitum and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Note: Growth rates of mycobacteria are used along with biochemical tests as an aid to identification. M. fortuitum grows within 3–5 days at 37°C and is used as the control for rapid growers. M. tuberculosis grows in 12–25 days at 37°C and is a control organism for slow growers. In addition to M. fortuitum, M. chelonei is a rapid grower (3–5 days at 28°C–35°C). In addition to M. tuberculosis, M. avium and M. kansasii are slow growers (10–21 days at 37°C).

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8
Q

Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce(s) pigmented colonies in the dark (is a scotochromogen)?
A. M. szulgai
B. M. kansasii
C. M. tuberculosis
D. All of these options

A

A. M. szulgai

Note: M. tuberculosis does not produce pigmentation in the dark or after exposure to light (photochromogen). A common tapwater scotochromogen is Mycobacterium gordonae. The pathogenic scotochromogens are Mycobacterium szulgai, Mycobacterium scrofulaceum, and Mycobacterium xenopi. M. kansasii is a photochromogen producing a yellow pigment following exposure to light and red β-carotene crystals after long incubation periods.

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9
Q

All of the following mycobacteria are associated with skin infections except:
A. Mycobacterium marinum
B. Mycobacterium haemophilum
C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
D. Mycobacterium kansasii

A

D. Mycobacterium kansasii

Note: M. kansasii is a photochromogen that causes chronic pulmonary disease (classic tuberculosis). The other three species cause cutaneous or subcutaneous disease. It is important to culture skin lesions at the correct temperature to facilitate growth.

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10
Q

All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin ribonucleotide except:
A. M. kansasii
B. M. tuberculosis
C. M. avium–intracellulare complex
D. M. szulgai

A

B. M. tuberculosis

Note: Niacin production is common to all mycobacteria. However, the niacin accumulates as a watersoluble metabolite in the culture medium when the organism cannot form niacin ribonucleotide. M. tuberculosis, M. simiae, and some strains of M. marinum, M. chelonae, and M. bovis lack the enzyme and therefore are called niacin positive because of the accumulation of niacin detected in the test medium.

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11
Q

The catalase test for mycobacteria differs from that used for other types of bacteria by using:
A. 1% H2O2 and 10% Tween 80
B. 3% H2O2 and phosphate buffer, pH 6.8
C. 10% H2O2 and 0.85% saline
D. 30% H2O2 and 10% Tween 80

A

D. 30% H2O2 and 10% Tween 80

Note: One milliliter of an equal mixture of 30% H2O2 (Superoxol) and Tween 80 (a strong detergent) is added to a 2-week-old subculture on Löwenstein–Jensen medium and placed upright
for 5 minutes. Catalase activity is determined semiquantitatively by measuring the height of the column of bubbles produced above the culture surface.

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12
Q

Growth inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide (T2H) is used to differentiate M. tuberculosis from which other Mycobacterium specie?
A. M. bovis
B. M. avium–intracellulare complex
C. M. kansasii
D. M. marinum

A

A. M. bovis

Note: M. bovis and M. tuberculosis are very similar biochemically, and some strains of M. bovis also accumulate niacin. The T2H test differentiates M. tuberculosis from M. bovis. M. tuberculosis is not inhibited by T2H.

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13
Q

Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. is best differentiated by the rapid hydrolysis of Tween 80?
A. M. fortuitum
B. M. chelonae
C. M. kansasii
D. M. gordonae

A

C. M. kansasii

Note: The hydrolysis of Tween 80 is usually positive when testing the clinically insignificant mycobacteria. M. fortuitum, M. chelonae, and M. gordonae are saprophytic (and opportunistic) species, but M. kansasii is a pathogen. M. kansasii hydrolyses Tween 80 more rapidly than the other species (within 3–6 hours). A positive reaction is indicated by a change in the color of neutral red from yellow to pink.

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14
Q

Mycobacteria isolated from the hot water system of a hospital grew at 42°C. Colonies on Löwenstein–Jensen medium were not pigmented after exposure to light and were negative for niacin accumulation and nitrate reduction. The most likely identification is:
A. Mycobacterium xenopi
B. Mycobacterium marinum
C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
D. Mycobacterium haemophilum

A

A. Mycobacterium xenopi

Note: M. xenopi causes a pulmonary infection resembling M. tuberculosis and is frequently isolated from patients with an underlying disease such as alcoholism, AIDS, diabetes, or malignancy. It is often recovered from hot water taps and contaminated water systems and is a possible source of nosocomial infection. The other three species cause skin infections and grow on artificial media at a much lower temperature than M. xenopi (below 32°C).

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15
Q

A Mycobacterium species recovered from a patient with AIDS gave the following results:
Niacin = Neg T2H = +
Tween 80 hydrolysis = Neg
Nitrate reduction = Neg
Heat-stable catalase (68°C) = ±
Nonphotochromogen
What is the most likely identification?
A. M. gordonae
B. M. bovis
C. M. avium–intracellulare complex
D. M. kansasii

A

C. M. avium–intracellulare complex

Note: With the exception of M. tuberculosis, M. avium–intracellulare (MAI) complex is the Mycobacterium species most often isolated from AIDS patients. It is biochemically inert, which is a distinguishing factor for identification. MAI complex is highly resistant to the antibiotics used to treat tuberculosis, including multidrug therapy. Treatment with streptomycin, rifampin, ethionamide, ethambutol with cycloserine, or kanamycin has shown little success.

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16
Q

The urease test is needed to differentiate Mycobacterium scrofulaceum from which of the following mycobacteria?
A. M. gordonae
B. M. kansasii
C. M. avium–intracellulare complex
D. M. bovis

A

A. M. gordonae

Note: Both pathogenic and saprophytic mycobacteria may produce urease, and urease production is used to differentiate several mycobacteria species. Biochemically, M. scrofulaceum is identical to M. gordonae, except for the urease reaction for which M. scrofulaceum is positive and M. gordonae is negative. Urease reactions for the other pathogenic mycobacteria are:
M. tuberculosis = + M. kansasii = +
M. bovis = + M. avium–intracellulare complex = Neg

17
Q

A laboratory provides the following services for identification of mycobacteria: Acid-fast staining of clinical specimens Inoculation of cultures Shipment of positive cultures to a reference laboratory for identification According to the American Thoracic Society’s definition for levels of service this laboratory is:
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

A. Level I

Note: The American Thoracic Society recognizes three levels of laboratory services for mycobacteria testing. Level I laboratories are those that grow mycobacteria and perform acid-fast stains but do not identify M. tuberculosis (they may or may not perform drug susceptibility tests on M. tuberculosis). Level II laboratories perform all of the functions of Level I laboratories and also identify M. tuberculosis. Level III laboratories identify all mycobacteria species from clinical specimens and perform drug
susceptibility tests on all species.

18
Q

According to the College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines, which services for mycobacteria would be performed by a Level II laboratory?
A. No procedures performed
B. Acid-fast staining, inoculation, and referral to a reference laboratory
C. Isolation and identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis; preliminary identification of other species
D. Definitive identification of all mycobacteria

A

B. Acid-fast staining, inoculation, and referral to a reference laboratory

Note: The CAP lists four options for laboratories to follow in order to correlate the services provided with guidelines for inspection and accreditation. A laboratory’s performance on CAP proficiency
tests is evaluated by interlaboratory comparison with laboratories within these levels of performance.

19
Q

Culture of a skin (hand) wound from a manager of a tropical fish store grew on Löwenstein–Jensen agar slants at 30°C in 10 days but did not grow on the same media at 37°C in 20 days. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification?
Photochromogen = + Niacin = Neg Urease = + hydrolysis = +
Heat-stable catalase (68°C) = Neg
Nitrate reduction = Neg Tween 80
A. Mycobacterium marinum
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

A. Mycobacterium marinum

Note: M. marinum is typically recovered from cutaneous wounds resulting from infection when the skin is traumatized and comes into contact with inadequately chlorinated fresh water or salt water, such as in swimming pools or fish aquariums. The other three species are slow growers at 37°C. M. tuberculosis and M. avium–intracellulare complex are nonphotochromogens. M. avium–intracellulare complex is urease negative, M. tuberculosis is positive for niacin and nitrate, and M. kansasii is positive for nitrate and catalase.

20
Q

Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium specie is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater bacillus”?
A. M. kansasii
B. M. avium–intracellulare complex
C. M. leprae
D. M. gordonae

A

D. M. gordonae

Note: M. gordonae is a nonpathogen, scotochromogen, and rapid grower (7 days at 37°C). Rarely, it is implicated in opportunistic infections in patients with shunts, prosthetic heart values, or hepatoperitoneal disease. The other three species are pathogenic
mycobacteria.

21
Q

Which of the following drugs are first-line antibiotics used to treat classic tuberculosis for which susceptibility testing is performed by the disk diffusion method on Middlebrook 7H10 or 7H11 agar plates?
A. Ampicillin, penicillin, streptomycin, and carbenicillin
B. Ampicillin, penicillin, and methicillin
C. Vancomycin, methicillin, and carbenicillin
D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH), rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide

A

D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH), rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide

Note: The first-line antibiotics, except for ethambutol, are bactericidal. Second-line antibiotics used to treat first-line drug-resistant tuberculosis include streptomycin, pyrazinamide, cycloserine, ethionamide, kanamycin, amikacin, viomycin, and capreomycin.

22
Q

How long should Mycobacterium tuberculosis–positive cultures be kept by the laboratory after identification and antibiotic susceptibility testing have been performed?
A. 1–2 months
B. 2–4 months
C. 5–6 months
D. 6–12 months

A

D. 6–12 months

Note: Standard therapy using INH and rifampin for classic, uncomplicated pulmonary tuberculosis is 9 months. The patient may not respond to therapy, even when the organism is susceptible to the antibiotics in vitro; therefore, cultures must be kept for up to 1 year in order to facilitate testing of additional antibiotics should the infection become refractory to therapy.

23
Q

According to the reporting standards of the American Thoracic Society, one or more acid-fast bacilli (AFB) per oil immersion field (1,000×) are reported as:
A. Numerous or 3+
B. Few or 2+
C. Rare or 1+
D. Indeterminate; a new specimen should be requested

A

A. Numerous or 3+

Note: Acid-fast smears are standardized by the American Thoracic Society for reporting the number of AFB seen. The following criteria should be used to uniformly report results: 1–2 AFB per smear: Report number seen and request another sample. 3–9 AFB per smear: Report as rare (1+). 10 or more per smear: Report as few (2+). 1–9 or more per oil immersion field: Report as numerous (3+)

24
Q

Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would be most likely to grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
A. M. chelonae–fortuitum complex
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. marinum
D. M. avium–intracellulare complex

A

A. M. chelonae–fortuitum complex

Note: Mycobacteria growing on MacConkey agar are usually nonpathogens. M. chelonae and M. fortuitum are both nonpathogenic rapid growers that will grow on MacConkey agar (with no crystal violet) within 5 days. MAI complex is variable on MacConkey agar but takes much longer to grow. M. marinum and M. ulcerans do not grow on MacConkey agar.

25
Q

Rapid methods for identifying classic infection with M. tuberculosis include:
A. Gas–liquid chromatography
B. Nucleic acid probes
C. Acid-fast smears
D. All of these options

A

D. All of these options

Note: M. tuberculosis is a slow grower with a prolonged culture time of 12–25 days and requires 3–6 weeks for definitive identification and antibiotic susceptibility testing. The acid-fast smear remains the number one rapid test for the detection of mycobacterial infection. A positive smear has a predictive value of 96% when all laboratory and clinical findings are considered. GLC is used to evaluate cell wall lipid patterns for identification. DNA probes are available for rapid identification of M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. avium–intracellulare complex, and M. gordonae. A commonly used PCR method for mycobacterial detection involves amplification of a species-specific region of DNA with a labeled (biotinylated) oligonucleotide primer. The PCR product is detected by denaturation and hybridization to a capture probe. After washing to remove unbound DNA, strepavidin conjugated to an enzyme is added. After washing to remove unbound conjugate, substrate is added. The presence of product indicates a positive result.

26
Q

Individuals showing a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test for M. tuberculosis are usually:
A. Infective
B. Symptomatic of pulmonary disease
C. Latently infected
D. Falsely positive

A

C. Latently infected

Note: A positive PPD test indicates a person who is latently infected with M. tuberculosis. Such persons are asymptomatic and not infectious, but have a 10% risk of developing tuberculosis during their lifetime.

27
Q

Which of the following Mycobacterium species is diagnosed by means other than culture?
A. M. leprae
B. M. bovis
C. M. canetti
D. M. avium

A

A. M. leprae

Note: M. leprae and M. microti are different from all other mycobacteria because they cannot be cultured in vitro. Biopsies from nodules and plaques of skin that show numerous AFB are presumptively diagnosed as positive for M. leprae. Confirmatory identification is made by nucleic acid testing (NAT) using PCR.

28
Q

Which M. avium complex (MAC) organism is the most frequently isolated mycobacterium from AIDS patients?
A. M. avium
B. M. intracellulare
C. M. scrofulaceum
D. M. bovis

A

A. M. avium

Note: More than 90% of MAC organisms that are isolated from AIDS patients are M. avium. These are distinguished from M. intraceulluare by NATs.

29
Q

Which mycobacterium of the M. tuberculosis complex fails to grow in culture and has a characteristic “croissant-like” morphology in stained smears?
A. M. africanum
B. M. microti
C. M. bovis
D. M. leprae

A

B. M. microti

Note: M. microti is found in guinea pigs, rabbits, cats, and other warm-blooded animals. It is a cause of tuberculosis in immunocompromised humans, but is also known to cause tuberculosis in immunocompetent persons as well. M. microti cannot be cultured in vitro, but can be distinguished from M. leprae by its distinctive “croissant-like” morphology. Diagnosis is confirmed by NAT.

30
Q

Which two mycobacteria commonly isolated from subcutaneous skin have an optimal growth temperature of 30°C?
A. M. haemophilum and M. ulcerans
B. M. kansasii and M. xenopi
C. M. gordonae and M. avium
D. M. simiae and M. avium

A

A. M. haemophilum and M. ulcerans

Note: M. haemophilum, M. ulcerans, and M. marinum grow optimally at 27°C–30°C. M. xenopi grows optimally at 42°C–45°C, and is frequently isolated from hot water systems and storage tanks. All other mycobacterium are cultured at 35°C–37°C.

31
Q

Which mycobacterium is associated with Crohn’s disease?
A. M. marinum
B. M. paratuberculosis
C. M. avium
D. M. gordonae

A

B. M. paratuberculosis

Note: M. paratuberculosis is known to cause an ulcerative intestinal disease with chronic diarrhea in cattle known as Johne’s disease. While M. paratuberculosis has been isolated from the intestines of humans with Crohn’s disease, the organism has not yet been proven to cause ileitis in humans.

32
Q

Which temperature range is ideal for the recovery of M. marinum?
A. 24°C–26°C
B. 30°C–32°C
C. 42°C–44°C
D. 44°C–48°C

A

B. 30°C–32°C

Note: M. marinum is usually recovered from skin lesions that have been in contact with underchlorinated freshwater, saltwater, or tropical fish aquariums.