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All I Need To Know! > My Weaknesses > Flashcards

My Weaknesses Flashcards

1
Q

What is a crossover cable for?

A

Connecting two of the same device

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2
Q

What is ECC DRAM?

A

Error correction RAM.

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3
Q

What is FQDN?

A

A full domain and host address, 225 characters.

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4
Q

What is an example of IPV6?

A

:: and 128 characters.

An IPv6 address is a 128-bit alphanumeric value that identifies an endpoint device in an Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) network.

Eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is: 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.

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5
Q

Laster Printing Steps?

A
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6
Q

The three types of fiber cable?

A

SC, ST, LC.

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7
Q

Two varieties of twisted pair are?

A

Unshielded: UTP

Shielded: STP

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8
Q

What is RJ-11 used for?

A

Widely used in analog telephony to connect the phone instrument and the cable. Now it is mostly used to connect to modems and is still used in landlines. It is a 4-slot connector and has six pins, which means you cannot fit it into an RJ45 slot.

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9
Q

What is RJ-45 used for?

A

They are collectively known as Ethernet or network communication cables and are used to achieve high-speed data transfer connections.

Eight wires; used with xBaseT networks—100BaseT, 1000BaseT, and so forth).

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10
Q

What is coaxial used for?

A

Television cable.

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11
Q

Cat 5 speed?

A

100 mbps

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12
Q

Cat 5e speed?

A

1000mbps

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13
Q

Cat 6 speed?

A

1-6 gbps

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14
Q

Cat 6a speed?

A

10 gbps

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15
Q

Cat 7 speed?

A

10 gbps

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16
Q

Cat 8 speed?

A

40 gbps

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17
Q

USB 1 speed?

A

12 mbps

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18
Q

USB 2 speed?

A

480 mbps

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19
Q

USB 3 speed?

A

5 gbps

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20
Q

USB 3.1 speed?

A

10 gbps

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21
Q

Thunderbolt 3/4 speed?

A

40 gbps

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22
Q

What is SATA?

A

SATA is a computer bus interface that connects host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives, optical drives, and solid-state drives.

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23
Q

What is eSATA?

A

For external HDD’s and stuff.

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24
Q

What is SATA 1 speed?

A

150 mbps

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25
Q

What is SATA 2 speed?

A

300 mbps

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26
Q

What is SATA 3 speed?

A

600 mbps

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27
Q

What is SATA 3.2 speed?

A

2 gbps

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28
Q

What is eSATA speed?

A

6 gbps

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29
Q

What is an F type?

A

Coaxial cable type cable

RG-59 connector

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30
Q

What is Molex used for?

A

3 or 4 pin connectors.

Providing power to the motherboard, fans, floppy disk drive, CD/DVD drive, video card, some older hard drive models, and more

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31
Q

DDR4 DIMM pins?

A

284

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32
Q

DDR3 DIMM pins?

A

240

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33
Q

DDR2 DIMM pins?

A

240

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34
Q

DDR DIMM pins?

A

184

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35
Q

DDR4 SODIMM pins?

A

256

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36
Q

DDR3 SODIMM pins?

A

204

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37
Q

DDR1+2 SODIMM pins?

A

200

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38
Q

What is NVMe?

A

NVMe or Non-Volatile Memory Express is a super-fast way to access non-volatile memory. It can be around 2-7x faster than SATA SSDs.

A SSD.

NVMe is commonly used for solid-state storage, main memory, cache memory or backup memory.

Expensive.

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39
Q

What is PCIe?

A

A serial expansion bus standard for connecting a computer to one or more peripheral devices.

Graphics cards etc.

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40
Q

What is M.2?

A

M.2 is a form factor for SSDs (solid-state drives)

Thin gaming laptops (opens in new tab)are increasingly using M.2 SSDs because they take up less room than 2.5-inch SSDs or hard drives.

M.2 SSDs go up to 2TB in storage size.

To use you need special motherboard.

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41
Q

What is M.2?

A

M.2 is a form factor for SSDs (solid-state drives)

Thin gaming laptops (opens in new tab)are increasingly using M.2 SSDs because they take up less room than 2.5-inch SSDs or hard drives.

M.2 SSDs go up to 2TB in storage size.

To use you need special motherboard.

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42
Q

What is Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?

A

The TPM is a cryptographic module that enhances computer security and privacy.

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43
Q

What is ARM?

A

ARM chips are 32-bit and 64-bit RISC-based CPUs that are known for their low cost but primarily for their low power requirements (see RISC).

Popular is small devices like phones because ARM uses low power.

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44
Q

What is a modular power supply?

A

A modular power supply is a type of unit that gets its name from the fact that it has several removable cables. The “modules” in question are the various parts of the PSU that can be added or removed as needed.

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45
Q

What is redundant power supply?

A

An electrical system that has been designed to feature two or more of the same power supply.

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46
Q

What are the printer interface types?

A

Parallel – It was the most popular way of communicating with PC. It consists of a male DB-25 connector that connects to PC and a male 36-pin Centronics connector that connects to the printer. Most of the cables were less than 10 feet long.

Universal Serial Bus (USB) – It is the most popular interface today. It gives a higher transfer rate and it is automatically recognized on PC.

Network – It allows printers to have a network interface card (NIC) and ROM-based software to communicate with network attached servers and PC. It can be wired or wireless network card.

Infrared – Many laser printers have infrared transmitter/receivers to communicate with the infrared ports on many handhelds and PDA so that user of a PDA, handheld, or laptop can print to that printer by pointing the device at the printer and initiating the print process.

SCSI – Few printers use SCSI interfaces. It has benefit of multiple devices on single SCSI connection, simple to implement and large throughput. But have now become obsolete.

IEEE 1394 Firewire – Apple developed it and this interface supports throughput of 800MBps. High end graphics and typesetting use it.

Wireless – It is of many different kinds as it uses IEEE 802.11 wireless networking or Bluetooth so that it is possible for people to roam around an office and still able to print. Printers have built-in 802.11 interfaces or Bluetooth capability. The data to print is transmitted wirelessly through the air using radio waves and is received by the device.

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47
Q

What are the laser printing steps?

A

Processing.
Charging.
Exposing.
Developing.
Transferring.
Fusing.
Cleaning.

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48
Q

What are the inkjet printing steps?

A

The printer’s laser projects your print onto a drum.

A drum then uses static electricity to attract the dry toner to the drum’s cylinder.

The drum then rolls the toner onto the paper to create your print.

The toner powder is melted and pressed onto the paper with heat from the fuser as it goes through a set of rollers.

Your print comes out of the printer.

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49
Q

How does a laser printer work?

A

The printers laser beams your print onto a metal drum. The drum uses static electricity to attract powdered toner to the drums cylinder. The drum rolls the toner onto the paper in the form of your print. The toner is melted & pressed onto the paper by heat from a fuser as it passes through its rollers.

Volts +5 DC and +24 DC.

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50
Q

How does an inkjet printer work?

A

In contrast to laser printing technology, inkjet printers use pigmented liquid ink which is directed into the print head, this then sprays droplets of ink through tiny nozzles onto the page. These microscopic droplets are precisely arranged to recreate images or text.

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51
Q

What are the three types of fibre cable?

A

SC, ST, LC.

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52
Q

What is Zigbee?

A

A home automation wireless protocol.

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53
Q

What is DaaS?

A

Desktop as a service. Often paired with VDI, virtual desktop interfaces.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end users over the Internet, licensed.

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54
Q

What is AGP?

A

Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard, designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics.

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55
Q

Difference between refresh and frame rate?

A

Refresh rate is defined as how many times your monitor (or whatever other display) can refresh the image on-screen. FPS, or frames per second, is actually about how many frames your graphics card can send out as frames to the display every second.

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56
Q

What can cause ghosting on a printer?

A

Ghosting is often caused by a malfunctioning imaging drum unit. When a drum unit comes to the end of its useable life cycle, it may not discharge properly, leaving behind faint traces of the previous printing job.

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57
Q

What is ::1?

A

::1 is the loopback address in IPv6. Think of it as the IPv6 version of 127.0. 0.1 .

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58
Q

What does LC connector look like?

A

A double/duplex pointy connector, both connected together like lovers.

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59
Q

What does the ST connector look like?

A

A single lonely pointy connector.

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60
Q

What does SC look like?

A

Square. Stick and click, short pointy connector.

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61
Q

What does SMB do?

A

SMB provides client applications with a secure and controlled method for opening, reading, moving, creating and updating files on remote servers.

Port 445.

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62
Q

What is RG-59 used for?

A

Coaxial.

Medium-length connection cables.

Analog CCTV applications and other audio video applications.

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63
Q

What is RG-11 used for?

A

Coaxial.

RG11 cables are thick cables that are used for special and long-distance signalling.

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64
Q

What is ARP used for?

A

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a protocol or procedure that connects an ever-changing Internet Protocol (IP) address to a fixed physical machine address, also known as a media access control (MAC) address, in a local-area network (LAN).

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65
Q

What is MX used for?

A

MX mail refers to the Mail Exchange record, which specifies the mail server(s) responsible for receiving emails for a domain. It tells email servers where to send emails for a specific domain.

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66
Q

What is port flapping?

A

Port flapping is when a network port rapidly switches between being connected and disconnected. It can cause network disruptions and connectivity problems. Troubleshooting involves checking cables, and configurations, and resolving any underlying issues causing the instability.

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67
Q

What is APIPA?

A

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature that automatically assigns a unique IP address to a device when it can’t connect to a DHCP server. It helps devices communicate on a local network without a central IP address assignment.

169.254.0.0
to 169.254.255.255

APIPA is primarily used in small local networks, such as home networks or small office environments, where a DHCP server may not be available or properly configured. It provides a fallback mechanism for devices to communicate within the local network even without a centrally assigned IP address.

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68
Q

What are SaaS, PaaS, IaaS and DaaS?

A

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is renting virtualized computing resources, SaaS (Software as a Service) is accessing software applications over the internet, DaaS (Desktop as a Service) is accessing virtual desktop environments, and PaaS (Platform as a Service) is a platform for developing and deploying applications.

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69
Q

What is EMI and RFI?

A

EMI (Electromagnetic Interference) is disruption caused by electromagnetic radiation from external sources that affects electronic devices.

RFI (Radio Frequency Interference) is interference caused by radio frequency signals from sources like radios, cell phones, or wireless networks, affecting the performance of electronic devices.

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70
Q

Differences between IMAP4 and POP3?

A

IMAP4 stores emails on the mail server and allows you to access and manage them from multiple devices, while POP3 downloads emails to your device and typically deletes them from the server.

IMAP4 provides more advanced email management options and offline access to previously synchronized emails, while POP3 is more limited in terms of management and requires an active internet connection to download new emails.

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71
Q

What is SMB for?

A

The SMB port, also known as Port 445, is a network port used for the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol. It is primarily used for file sharing and printer sharing between computers on a network, particularly in Windows environments.

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72
Q

What is SNMP for?

A

161/162.

SNMP is a protocol for managing and monitoring network devices and systems.

It allows network administrators to collect information, monitor network performance, and manage devices remotely.

With SNMP, administrators can monitor various aspects of network devices, such as CPU usage, memory utilization, network traffic, and more.

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73
Q

FTP 20 vs FTP 21?

A

Port 20 is used for file transfers.

Port 21 is used for the connection.

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74
Q

What is class A IP’s?

A

1 to 127.

0.0. 0.0 to 127.255. 255.255.

Large networks.

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75
Q

What are class B IP’s?

A

128 to 191.

128.0. 0.0 to 191.255. 255.255.

This class is for medium networks and has 16 bits for networks and 16 bits for hosts.

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76
Q

What are class C IP’s?

A

192-223.

Very small LANs and networks.

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77
Q

Raid 0 uses?

A

RAID 0: Striping - Data is striped across multiple drives without redundancy. It enhances performance and increases storage capacity but offers no data protection.

2+ drives.

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78
Q

Raid 1 uses?

A

RAID 1: Mirroring - Data is duplicated across two drives for redundancy. Provides data protection but halves the total storage capacity.

2 drives.

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79
Q

Raid 5 uses?

A

RAID 5: Striping with Parity - Data is striped across multiple drives, with parity information distributed among the drives. Offers both performance and data protection.

3 drives.

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80
Q

What is Raid 10?

A

RAID 10: Mirroring and Striping - Data is mirrored across pairs of drives and then striped across those mirrored pairs. Combines the benefits of RAID 1 and RAID 0 for both performance and redundancy. Requires a minimum of four drives.

4+ drives.

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81
Q

Colours of T568A?

A

Apples.

Green-White, Green, Orange-White, Blue, Blue-White, Orange, Brown-White, Brown.

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82
Q

Colours of T568B?

A

Banana.

Orange-White, Orange, Green-White, Blue, Blue-White, Green, Brown-White, Brown.

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83
Q

What is DKIM used for?

A

DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): Email authentication method that adds a digital signature to outgoing messages. It verifies the integrity and authenticity of the email, ensuring it hasn’t been tampered with during transit.

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84
Q

What is SPF used for?

A

SPF (Sender Policy Framework): Email authentication framework that specifies authorized servers to send emails on behalf of a domain.

It helps prevent email spoofing and ensures that incoming messages are from legitimate sources.

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85
Q

What is DMARC used for?

A

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance): Email authentication protocol that combines DKIM and SPF.

It allows domain owners to set policies for email handling, including how to handle failed authentication, and provides reporting on email activity for better visibility and control.

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86
Q

What is the fuser assembly?

A

The fuser unit or fuser assembly, is a critical component of your laser printer. Using pressure and heat, it fuses the toner powder onto the page to create a print, and without out it, your printer cannot operate.

87
Q

What is the transfer roller?

A

A transfer roller is a component in some laser printers and copiers that helps to transfer toner or ink from the imaging drum to the paper.

88
Q

What are the parts of a laser printer?

A

Laser Diode: Emits a laser beam to create a charged image on the drum.

Drum: Receives the laser image and transfers it onto paper using static electricity.

Toner Cartridge: Contains fine powder (toner) used to create the image on the drum.

Fuser Assembly: Heats and melts the toner onto the paper, ensuring it adheres permanently.

Paper Tray: Holds the paper for printing.

Control Panel: Allows users to manage print settings and monitor the printer’s status.

Interface Ports: Connect the printer to a computer or network.

89
Q

What are the parts of an inkjet printer?

A

Print Head: Contains tiny nozzles that spray ink droplets onto the paper.

Ink Cartridges: Hold liquid ink of different colors (cyan, magenta, yellow, black).

Paper Tray: Stores paper for printing.

Control Panel: Provides access to printer settings and status information.

Interface Ports: Enable connection to a computer or network.

Carriage and Belt: Move the print head across the paper for precise ink deposition.

Platen: Holds the paper in place during printing.

90
Q

Describe inkjet printers and their uses.

A

Use inkjet technology to spray tiny droplets of ink onto paper.

Great for printing colourful images and photographs.

Slower print speeds compared to laser printers.

Use ink cartridges that can be replaced individually.

Generally have a lower upfront cost but a higher cost per page.

Offer the ability to print on various media types, including glossy paper and fabric.

Suitable for home use or small-scale printing needs with a focus on colour printing.

91
Q

Describe laser printers and their uses.

A

Use laser technology to produce high-quality prints.

Ideal for text-heavy documents, such as reports or contracts.

Offer fast print speeds, making them efficient for large print jobs.

Toner cartridges are used instead of ink cartridges.

More expensive upfront cost but generally lower cost per page.

Produce sharper and more precise text and graphics.

Suitable for office environments or high-volume printing needs.

92
Q

What is a thermal printer?

A

Uses heat to apply to sensitive paper.

Very fast, but prints fade easily.

Thermal printers use heat to print on special thermal paper. They are commonly used for printing receipts, tickets, labels, and in various industries like retail, logistics, and healthcare.

Thermal printers offer fast printing and low maintenance but require special thermal paper and can be sensitive to fading and environmental factors.

93
Q

What is an impact printer?

A

Ribbons are used, like typewriters.

Good for multipart forms.

Uses physical force, unlike thermal which uses heat.

Prints low quality and is noisy.

Impact printers use physical impact to create printed output.

They are commonly used for printing receipts, forms, and financial documents. These printers are ideal for creating multiple copies using carbon paper and are commonly found in retail, banking, and other industries that require multipart or impact-resistant printing.

94
Q

What is AMD-V?

A

AMD.

AMD-V, short for AMD Virtualization, is a technology developed by AMD (Advanced Micro Devices) that provides hardware-assisted virtualization capabilities for x86-based processors. It allows a computer system to run multiple operating systems or virtual machines (VMs) simultaneously, with each VM operating independently.

AMD-V enhances virtualization performance and security by providing direct hardware support for virtualization tasks, such as memory management, input/output (I/O) operations, and device virtualization.

95
Q

Hyper-V

A

Microsoft.

Hyper-V is a virtualization platform developed by Microsoft. It is available on Windows operating systems and utilizes the underlying hardware virtualization capabilities, such as VT-x or AMD-V, to create and manage virtual machines.

Hyper-V enables users to run multiple operating systems and applications on a single physical machine, providing benefits like increased resource utilization and isolation between virtual machines. It also offers advanced features like live migration and virtual networking for efficient virtualization management.

96
Q

What is VT-x?

A

Intel.

VT-x, or Intel Virtualization Technology for x86, is a technology developed by Intel that provides hardware-assisted virtualization capabilities. It allows x86-based processors to efficiently run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. VT-x improves virtualization performance by offloading virtualization tasks to dedicated hardware, enabling better isolation and management of virtual machines.

97
Q

What type of printers are used by SOHO?

A

Inkjet.

98
Q

What is VM escaping and how do you prevent it?

A

VM escaping, also known as virtual machine escape, refers to a security vulnerability where an attacker gains unauthorized access to the underlying host system from within a virtual machine (VM) environment.

Essentially, it involves breaking out of the virtualized environment and compromising the host system.

To prevent:

Secure the host system.

Update virtualization software.

Isolate and segment networks.

Disable unused features.

Implement intrusion detection/prevention systems.

Regularly audit and monitor.

Employ guest OS security measures.

99
Q

What is VM sprawl and how do you prevent it?

A

VM sprawl refers to the uncontrolled proliferation of virtual machines (VMs) within a virtualized environment.

It occurs when VMs are created without proper planning, monitoring, or management, leading to an excessive number of VMs that can strain system resources and impact performance.

To prevent VM sprawl:

Establish VM lifecycle policies.

Monitor resource utilization.

Implement automated monitoring and reporting tools.

Conduct regular VM audits and cleanups.

Educate users about VM provisioning guidelines.

Implement approval processes for VM creation.

Consider resource optimization techniques, such as VM consolidation or resource pooling.

100
Q

What are the hypervisors and their differences?

A

Hypervisors are software that allows multiple operating systems to run on one computer. There are two types:

Type 1 Hypervisor: Installs directly on the computer’s hardware. Examples include VMware ESXi and Microsoft Hyper-V. They offer better performance and security but are more complex to set up.

Type 2 Hypervisor: Installs on top of an existing operating system. Examples include VMware Workstation and Oracle VirtualBox. They are easier to use but have slightly lower performance.

Remember: Type 1 is like a direct connection to hardware, faster but harder to set up. Type 2 is like an extra layer on top, easier but slightly slower.

101
Q

What are CPU HAV enhancements?

A

CPU HAV (Hardware-Assisted Virtualization) enhancements, also known as CPU virtualization extensions or hardware virtualization support, are specific features built into modern CPUs to improve the performance and efficiency of virtualization technologies.

They include Intel VT-x and AMD-V technologies, providing direct hardware support for virtualization.

102
Q

What is measured service?

A

Measured service refers to the practice of monitoring and quantifying resource usage to determine accurate billing or pricing. It involves tracking and recording usage data to ensure customers are charged based on their actual consumption.

103
Q

What is metered service?

A

Metered service is a pricing model where the cost of a service is based on the amount or usage of a specific resource. Customers are billed according to the measured consumption, allowing for more precise and flexible pricing.

104
Q

What is a POST card?

A

A POST card is a hardware device used to diagnose hardware issues during a computer’s startup process. It plugs into the motherboard and displays error codes or beeps to indicate specific problems, aiding in troubleshooting.

105
Q

What DV to VGA adapters are there?

A

DVI-I and DVI-A

106
Q

RG-6 uses?

A

The RG-6 is primarily used for cable and satellite signal transmission for residential or commercial installations. This coax cable is thin and easy to bend for wall or ceiling installations and remains the preferred choice to relay cable television signals.

107
Q

What is f-type connectors used for?

A

They are compatible with RG-59/RG-6 cables and are designed to support a wide variety of applications ranging from CCTV to HDTV systems.

108
Q

How many pins is Lightning?

A

8

109
Q

What is SRAM?

A

SRAM (Static Random Access Memory) is a type of computer memory that stores data in a static state, meaning it doesn’t require constant refreshing to retain information. It is faster and more expensive than DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) but consumes less power. SRAM is commonly used in cache memory and as registers in computer systems for faster access to frequently used data.

The most significant difference between SRAM and DRAM is that SRAM is made up of flip-flops (transistor based circuit to store data bits), while DRAM is made up of transistors and capacitors. SRAM is used in specialized applications such as cache memory of computer systems.

110
Q

What is the best Wi-Fi Protected Access security standard?

A

WPA2 or 3.

111
Q

What commonly causes OS to freeze randomly?

A

Software and OS issues are one of the most common causes of computers with intermittent freezing problems. If you recently installed a new software program, try uninstalling it to see if the problem goes away.

112
Q

What are TN screens?

A

Twisted nematic.

TN screens:

Pros: Fast response time, high refresh rates, cost-effective, widely available.
Cons: Poor viewing angles, limited color reproduction.

113
Q

What are IPS screens?

A

IPS (In-Plane Switching) screens:

Pros: Wide viewing angles, accurate color reproduction, good color consistency, better visual quality and color accuracy compared to TN screens.

Cons: Higher response times compared to TN screens, generally higher cost compared to TN screens.

114
Q

What are VA screens?

A

VA (Vertical Alignment) screens:

Pros: Good contrast ratio, deep black levels, better colour reproduction compared to TN screens, wide viewing angles.
Cons: Slower response times compared to TN screens, the potential for motion blur in fast-paced content, and limited availability compared to TN and IPS screens.

115
Q

What are OLED screens?

A

OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) screens:

Pros: Excellent contrast ratio, deep black levels, vibrant colours, wide viewing angles, and fast response times.
Cons: Risk of burn-in with static images, the higher cost compared to other screen types, and the potential for colour shifting over time.

116
Q

How many pins is HDMI?

A

19

117
Q

What is WWAN and does it have an expansion card?

A

WWAN stands for Wireless Wide Area Network. It is a wireless communication network that provides internet connectivity over a large geographical area using cellular technology. It allows devices to access data services in areas covered by the cellular network infrastructure, enabling users to stay connected while on the move.

WWAN typically requires a cellular card or module installed in a device to establish a connection with the cellular network. This card allows the device to communicate with the network, access data services, and transmit/receive data over the wireless wide area network.

118
Q

TN?

A

Twisted nematic.

Low angles.

Low colour quality.

Fast response.

119
Q

VA?

A

Vertical alignment.

High contrast.

Good angles.

Good colours.

120
Q

OLED?

A

Organic light-emitting diode.

No backlight.

Lower light than LCD.

Better contrast than LCD.

121
Q

SMTP?

A

Sends emails from clients.

Sends emails between servers.

122
Q

Telnet?

A

Password and login authentication.

Remote login.

Not secure.

123
Q

SNMP notifications?

A

162.

124
Q

NetBIOS ports?

A

137/8/9.

125
Q

WHich TCP sends files and makes a connection?

A

20 sends files.

21 makes connections.

126
Q

IMAP4 vs POP3?

A

IMAP4 allows multiple devices to sync email.

127
Q

What are DSL modems?

A

Telephone wires.

Dedicated bandwidth.

Twisted pair.

128
Q

What are cable modems?

A

Shared bandwidth.

Coaxial.

TV signals.

129
Q

What network device forwards frames?

A

Switches receive a frame from the source device and quickly forward it toward the destination device.

130
Q

Which network device transfers data packets to dissimilar networks?

A

Routers help transmit packets to their destinations by charting a path through the sea of interconnected networking devices using different network topologies. Routers are intelligent devices, and they store information about the networks they’re connected to.

131
Q

What services use UDP?

A

Voice and video traffic.

Live streaming.

Online gaming.

132
Q

What kinds of services use TCP?

A

Media streaming.

Websites.

Emails.

Secure shell.

133
Q

What is Single fibre Optic Cable?

A

Single strand of optical fiber

Point-to-point communication

Max length can reach tens of kilometers

Data transmission at high speeds (e.g., up to several terabits per second)

Generally less expensive compared to multi-fiber cables

Used in telecommunications, data centers, and networks

134
Q

What is multi fiber optic cable?

A

Multiple strands of optical fiber

Parallel communication

Max length can be one MILE

Data transmission at high speeds (e.g., up to several terabits per second)

Generally more expensive compared to single fiber cables

Used in backbone networks, data centers, distribution frames

135
Q

What port is 427 and what does it do?

A

Port 427 is assigned to the Service Location Protocol (SLP), which facilitates service discovery in networks. It uses UDP for communication between clients and service agents.

136
Q

Most likely cause of ghost images on print?

A

Drum issue.

137
Q

Main cause of fans working but nothing else?

A

Power supply issue.

138
Q

What does a blinking light on a NIC tell you?

A

Network activity.

139
Q

If you encounter the error message “OS not found” when trying to start your computer, what is the cause?

A
  1. Check the boot order.
  2. Check for disconnected or faulty drives.
  3. Check for bootable media.
  4. Repair the Master Boot Record (MBR) or Boot Configuration Data (BCD): Use your operating system’s installation media or recovery tools to repair the MBR or BCD. This can help fix any potential issues with the boot process.
140
Q

What is hyperthreading?

A

Hyperthreading is a technology that allows a single CPU core to handle multiple tasks simultaneously, improving overall performance and efficiency.

141
Q

Public IP range?

A

For IPv4, it ranges from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255

142
Q

Private IP ranges?

A

10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8)

172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12)

192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 (192.168.0.0/16)

143
Q

What is Zigbee?

A

Zigbee is a low-power wireless communication protocol used for short-range networking in applications like home automation and IoT. It operates on 2.4 GHz, uses mesh networking, and is known for its low energy consumption and secure communication.

144
Q

APIPA IP range?

A

169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 (169.254.0.0/16)

145
Q

What is SNMP, what does it do, and what is its port number?

A

SNMP is a network management protocol for monitoring and managing network devices. It uses port 161 for receiving requests and port 162 for receiving notifications.

146
Q

What is firewire?

A

IEEE 1394 is an interface standard for a serial bus for high-speed communications and isochronous real-time data transfer.

To connect personal computers, audio and video devices, and other professional and consumer electronics.

147
Q

Thunderbolt 2 and 4 speeds?

A

20 and 40gbps.

148
Q

What is parity checking?

A

The parity bit check is a network method designed to detect errors and check the integrity of the data received at the receiver side by the sender side. The parity check method adds a bit to the original data for checking errors at the receiver end.

149
Q

SATA speeds?

A

SATA I 1.5 Gb/sec 150 MB/sec
SATA II 3 Gb/sec 300 MB/sec
SATA III 6 Gb/sec 600 MB/sec

150
Q

USB speeds?

A

USB 1.0/Low-Speed: 1.5 Megabits per second (Mbps)
USB 1.1/Full-Speed: 12 Mbps.
USB 2.0/Hi-Speed: 480 Mbps.
USB 3.0/SuperSpeed: 5 Gbps.
USB 3.1/SuperSpeed: 10 Gbps.

151
Q

What is Microsoft management console?

A

Microsoft Management Console is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides system administrators and advanced users an interface for configuring and monitoring the system.

Can force the restart of a device and OS.

152
Q

What is TPM?

A

Trusted Platform Module is an international standard for a secure cryptoprocessor, a dedicated microcontroller designed to secure hardware through integrated cryptographic keys.

153
Q

What is mesh networking?

A

A mesh network is a local area network topology in which the infrastructure nodes connect directly, dynamically and non-hierarchically to as many other nodes as possible and cooperate with one another to efficiently route data to and from clients.

154
Q

What is coop multitasking?

A

Cooperative multitasking is a technique where two or more software applications will share the same resources of a common host processor. This method will queue tasks and attempt to allocate resources between them periodically.

155
Q

SATA shape?

A

Connector is like an L.

156
Q

What is the most common coaxial connector?

A

The most common types of coaxial cable for video are RG-59 and RG-6. Of these, RG-59 is the industry standard cable, whereas RG-6 is better for digital video signals.

157
Q

What does multi-fibre use and what is its length?

A

LED.

2km.

158
Q

Single fiber length and speed?

A

Laser.

100km.

159
Q

What is VGA name, colour and uses?

A

For video only.

DB-15.

Blue.

160
Q

DVI single and double speeds?

A

A single-link DVI, regardless of whether it’s a DVI-I or a DVI-D, will support a maximum bandwidth of 4.59 Gbps. Dual-link has twice the bandwidth of a single-link at 9.9 GBps.

161
Q

What is an F-type connector?

A

A coaxial RF connector is commonly used for “over the air” terrestrial television, cable television and universally for satellite television and cable modems, usually with RG-6 cable or with RG-59 cable.

162
Q

What is HSM?

A

A hardware security module is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages secrets, and performs encryption and decryption functions for digital signatures, strong authentication and other cryptographic functions.

163
Q

What is a supervisor password?

A

Supervisor password is the one that prevents unauthorized access to the BIOS Setup Utility.

164
Q

What is KVM switch?

A

A KVM switch is a hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more sets of keyboards, video monitors, and mice.

165
Q

What is hyper threading?

A

Hyper-threading is Intel’s proprietary simultaneous multithreading implementation used to improve parallelization of computations performed on x86 microprocessors.

166
Q

What is SSID?

A

A service set identifier (SSID) is a sequence of characters that uniquely names a Wi-Fi network. An SSID is sometimes referred to as a network name.

167
Q

What is NAT?

A

It’s a way to map multiple private addresses inside a local network to a public IP address before transferring the information onto the internet. Organizations that want multiple devices to employ a single IP address use NAT, as do most home routers.

A Network Address Translation (NAT) is the process of mapping an internet protocol (IP) address to another by changing the header of IP packets while in transit via a router. This helps to improve security and decrease the number of IP addresses an organization needs.

168
Q

What is another name for Dot matrix?

A

Impact printers.

169
Q

What is the corona wire?

A

During printing, the corona wire is charged with electricity and draws the toner off the drum to the paper. When the corona wire is charged, it gives the drum a positive static charge then the drum transfers the charge to the paper that in turn attracts the toner to the paper.

170
Q

IDE pins?

A

40.

171
Q

What is a thin client?

A

A common thin client definition is a computer that uses resources housed inside a central server as opposed to a hard drive. A thin client connects to a server-based environment that hosts the majority of applications, memory, and sensitive data the user needs.

172
Q

Who uses CDMA mostly?

A

USA.

UK mobiles use the GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) standard.

173
Q

What does LDAP do?

A

389.

Lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol that helps users find data about organizations, persons, and more. LDAP has two main goals: to store data in the LDAP directory and authenticate users to access the directory.

174
Q

USB 3.1 and 3.2 speed?

A

20 and 40 GB.

175
Q

What is facility code?

A

The facility code is an added layer of security built within an access control system.

176
Q

What is AAAA?

A

An AAAA record type is a foundational DNS record when IPv6 addresses are used. AAAA records are assigned the IPv6 address for a destination which makes communication between the source and destination possible.

177
Q

What is IPS?

A

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a network security tool (which can be a hardware device or software) that continuously monitors a network for malicious activity and takes action to prevent it, including reporting, blocking, or dropping it, when it does occur.

178
Q

What does the toner probe do?

A

For finding electrical cables such as internet cables, phone lines, speaker wires, and ethernet wires in a house or building. They allow you to find cables by tracing electrical signals back to their sources.

179
Q

What is a perimeter/DMZ?

A

A DMZ or demilitarized zone is a perimeter network that protects and adds an extra layer of security to an organization’s internal local-area network from untrusted traffic.

180
Q

Non routable IP address ranges?

A

( Range: 10.0. 0.0 – 10.255. 255.255 )
( Range: 172.16. 0.0 – 172.31. 255.255 )
( Range: 192.168. 0.0 – 192.168. 255.255 ).

181
Q

Benefits and downsides to RAID 0?

A

Advantages of RAID 0:

RAID 0 offers great performance, both in read and write operations.

There is no overhead caused by parity controls.

All storage capacity is used, and there is no overhead.

The technology is easy to implement.

Disadvantages of RAID 0:

RAID 0 is not fault-tolerant. If one drive fails, all data in the RAID 0 array are lost. It should not be used for mission-critical systems.

182
Q

Benefits and downsides to RAID 1?

A

Advantages of RAID 1:

RAID 1 offers excellent read speed and a write speed that is comparable to that of a single drive.

In case a drive fails, data do not have to be rebuilt, they just have to be copied to the replacement drive.

RAID 1 is a very simple technology.

Disadvantages of RAID 1:

The main disadvantage is that the effective storage capacity is only half of the total drive capacity because all data get written twice.

Software RAID 1 solution do not always allow a hot swap of a failed drive.

That means the failed drive can only be replaced after powering down the computer it is attached to.

This may not be acceptable for servers that are used simultaneously by many people.

Such systems typically use hardware controllers that do support hot swapping.

183
Q

Benefits and downsides to RAID 5?

A

Advantages of RAID 5:

Read data transactions are very fast while write data transactions are somewhat slower (due to the parity that has to be calculated).

If a drive fails, you still have access to all data, even while the failed drive is being replaced and the storage controller rebuilds the data on the new drive.

Disadvantages of RAID 5:

Drive failures have an effect on throughput, although this is still acceptable.

This is complex technology. If one of the disks in an array using 4TB disks fails and is replaced, restoring the data (the rebuild time) may take a day or longer, depending on the load on the array and the speed of the controller.

If another disk goes bad during that time, data are lost forever.

184
Q

Pro’s and Con’s of RAID 6?

A

Advantages of RAID 6:

Like with RAID 5, read data transactions are very fast.

If two drives fail, you still have access to all data, even while the failed drives are being replaced.

So RAID 6 is more secure than RAID 5.

Disadvantages of RAID 6:

Write data transactions are slower than RAID 5 due to the additional parity data that have to be calculated.

In one report I read the write performance was 20% lower.
Drive failures have an effect on throughput, although this is still acceptable.

This is complex technology. Rebuilding an array in which one drive failed can take a long time.

185
Q

Pros and Cons of RAID 10?

A

Advantages of RAID 10:

If something goes wrong with one of the disks in a RAID 10 configuration, the rebuild time is very fast since all that is needed is copying all the data from the surviving mirror to a new drive.

This can take as little as 30 minutes for drives of 1 TB.

Disadvantages of RAID 10:

Half of the storage capacity goes to mirroring, so compared to large RAID 5 or RAID 6 arrays, this is an expensive way to have redundancy.

186
Q

What is ‘least connections’ load balancing?

A

The load balancing algorithm that distributes incoming traffic based on the server’s current workload is “Least connections.”

This algorithm directs new connections to the server with the fewest active connections at the time of the request, helping to evenly distribute the load among available servers.

187
Q

What are load balancers?

A

A load balancer acts as the “traffic cop” sitting in front of your servers and routing client requests across all servers capable of fulfilling those requests in a manner that maximizes speed and capacity utilization and ensures that no one server is overworked, which could degrade performance.

188
Q

What is round robin?

A

A load balancing algorithm.

Load balancers are the devices or software systems that implement these algorithms to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers. These algorithms are used within load balancers to achieve load-balancing functionality.

Round-robin: Requests are distributed equally to servers in a cyclic manner, providing a fair distribution of traffic among available servers.

189
Q

What is a weighted round-robin?

A

Weighted round-robin: Requests are distributed based on assigned weights, allowing administrators to prioritize servers with higher capacities or performance capabilities.

Remember: Round-robin and weighted round-robin are load balancing algorithms rather than load balancers themselves. Load balancers are the devices or software systems that implement these algorithms to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers. These algorithms are used within load balancers to achieve load balancing functionality.

190
Q

Scenario: A business requires high performance and increased storage capacity for their database servers. Which Raid do they use?

A

RAID Type:
RAID 0 (Striping)

Explanation:

RAID 0 can be used to enhance performance by striping data across multiple drives, resulting in improved read and write speeds. It increases storage capacity by combining the capacity of all drives. However, RAID 0 does not offer data redundancy or fault tolerance, so it may not be suitable if data protection is a priority.

191
Q

Scenario: A business requires a balance between performance, fault tolerance, and storage efficiency for their virtualization servers. Which RAID do they use?

A

RAID Type:
RAID 10 (Striping + Mirroring)

Explanation:

RAID 10 combines the benefits of both striping and mirroring. It offers improved performance by striping data across mirrored pairs of drives. It also provides fault tolerance by ensuring that even if one drive fails within a mirrored pair, the other mirrored pair(s) can still function. RAID 10 strikes a balance between performance, fault tolerance, and storage efficiency, making it suitable for virtualization servers. However, it requires a larger number of drives, which can impact cost.

192
Q

Would a firewall be in between ISP and LAN?

A

Yes, a firewall is typically placed between the ISP (Internet Service Provider) and the LAN (Local Area Network) in a network infrastructure.

Its primary function is to control and monitor incoming and outgoing network traffic, acting as a barrier between the internet and the LAN.

The firewall helps enforce security policies, filter out unauthorized access attempts, and protect the internal network from potential threats or malicious activities originating from the internet. It plays a crucial role in securing the network by inspecting and managing traffic based on predefined rules and policies.

193
Q

What are the troubleshooting steps?

A
  1. Identify the Problem. …
  2. Establish a Theory of Probable Cause. …
  3. Test the Theory to Determine the Cause. …
  4. Establish a Plan of Action and Implement the Solution. …
  5. Verify Full System Functionality and Implement Preventive Measures.
194
Q

What does virtualisation need in order to work?

A

Enabled in BIOS/UEFI

195
Q

How do pooled resources work?

A

Pooled resources refer to the practice of combining and sharing resources, such as funds, equipment, or personnel, among multiple individuals, organizations, or entities.

Pooling: Multiple individuals, organizations, or entities contribute their resources to a common pool.

Shared Access: The pooled resources are made available to all participants who have contributed.

Utilization: Participants can access and use the pooled resources based on predefined rules or agreements.

Efficiency: Pooled resources allow for more efficient use of limited or expensive resources, as they are shared among multiple users.

Cost Sharing: By pooling resources, the costs associated with acquiring and maintaining resources are distributed among the participants.

Collaboration: Pooled resources foster collaboration and cooperation among participants, as they work together towards common goals.

Increased Capacity: Participants benefit from access to a broader range of resources and capabilities than they would individually possess.

Flexibility: Pooled resources can be allocated and reallocated according to changing needs, maximizing their overall effectiveness.

Overall, pooled resources enable efficient resource utilization, cost sharing, collaboration, and increased capacity, benefiting all participants involved.

196
Q

When is VDI useful?

A

VDI is useful in the following scenarios:

Remote work
Centralized management
Cost savings
Enhanced security
Scalability

197
Q

What is PaaS mostly used for?

A

Platform as a Service (PaaS) is primarily used for application development, deployment, and management.

198
Q

What is IaaS mostly used for?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is mostly used for providing virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking. It allows users to have more control and flexibility over their infrastructure without the need for physical hardware.

199
Q

What is SaaS for?

A

Software as a Service (SaaS) is predominantly used for delivering software applications over the internet. Users can access and use these applications without the need for installation or maintenance, as the software is centrally hosted and managed by the provider.

200
Q

List the parts of a laser printer, its location and its function.

A

Drum: Located inside the printer, the drum receives a static charge and attracts toner to create the image to be printed.

Toner Cartridge: Housed inside the printer, the toner cartridge contains the powdered toner used to create the printed image.

Fuser Unit: Located near the output tray, the fuser unit uses heat and pressure to bond the toner to the paper.

Paper Tray: Usually at the bottom of the printer, the paper tray holds the sheets of paper to be printed.

Transfer Belt: Positioned above the paper tray, the transfer belt transfers the image from the drum onto the paper.

Control Panel: Typically located on the front of the printer, the control panel allows users to navigate settings, monitor print jobs, and perform various functions.

Print Head: Inside the toner cartridge, the print head controls the application of toner onto the drum and ultimately onto the paper.

Imaging Unit: Found inside the printer, the imaging unit combines the functions of the drum and the toner cartridge.

201
Q

List inkjet parts, functions and locations.

A

Ink Cartridges: Usually located within a carriage that moves back and forth across the printer, ink cartridges contain liquid ink that is sprayed onto the paper to create the printed image.

Print Head: Part of the ink cartridge or a separate component, the print head contains tiny nozzles that spray ink onto the paper in precise patterns.

Paper Tray: Positioned at the bottom or rear of the printer, the paper tray holds the sheets of paper to be printed.

Control Panel: Typically located on the front of the printer, the control panel allows users to navigate settings, monitor print jobs, and perform various functions.

Platen: Found inside the printer, the platen provides a flat surface for the paper to rest on and move through while being printed.

Duplexer (optional): In some inkjet printers, a duplexer can be present, allowing for automatic double-sided printing.

Paper Feed Rollers: These rollers, usually located within the paper tray or near the platen, help feed the paper into the printer for printing.

Output Tray: Positioned at the top or front of the printer, the output tray collects the printed pages as they are ejected from the printer.

202
Q

What is SRAM for?

A

Quick and high tech and uses less energy. SCRAM!

203
Q

Name the steps of Laser printing.

A
  1. Processing.
  2. Charging.
  3. Exposing.
  4. Developing.
  5. Transfer.
  6. Fusing.
  7. Cleaning.
204
Q

What charge does the corona on laser printer use?

A

-600v to drum and +600v to paper

205
Q

What does a network tap do?

A

Is passive and does not disrupt data.

Network taps are used to monitor network performance, detect security threats, and troubleshoot network issues.

206
Q

What port is syslog on?

A

514

207
Q

What is SSH and does it secure file transfers?

A

22 = for two SS/ducks

It can secure things like transfers, commands and all sorts.

208
Q

What does SMART metric?

A

Uncorrectable bad sectors

209
Q

What is facility code?

A

0 to 23

210
Q

What is Ipsec?

A

Sets up secure on internet.

211
Q

You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of “OS not found” is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?

A

Repair GPT.

The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixboot’ command to fix the GPT.

212
Q

Which Wifi standards support MIMO technology?

A

All wireless products with 802.11n support MIMO.

The technology helps allow 802.11n to reach higher speeds than products without 802.11n. To implement MIMO, the station (mobile device) or the access point (AP) must support MIMO. For optimal performance and range, both the station and the AP must support MIMO.

213
Q

A field technician has been dispatched to a site with an internet outage. Upon arriving, the technician discovers that the POTS lines are not working as well. Which of the following technologies is the site MOST likely using?

A

DSL.

POTS (sometimes also referred to as PSTN, or public switched telephone network) stands for plain old telephone service, and is what everyone knows as their traditional landline phone system.

It’s essentially an analog voice transmission system that’s installed with copper wires.

214
Q

Which of the following options provides correct information about 2.4GHz and 5GHz wireless frequencies?

2.4GHz has less interference. 5GHz transmits in lower speed.

2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections.

2.4GHz has a higher data rate. 5GH has 23 channels.

2.4GHz has 11 channels. 5GHz has no data interference.

2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth.

2.4GHZ has a higher bandwidth. 5GHz has lower transmit power.

A

2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively.

5GHz provides faster data connections.

2.4GHz has a higher coverage area.

5GHz has higher bandwidth.

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