My Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main purpose of the fire department pumper?

A

To provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams.

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2
Q

What are the sources of water for fire apparatus?

A
  • Tank
  • Hydrant
  • Body of water
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3
Q

What is the minimum pump capacity for fire apparatus according to NFPA?

A

750 GPM, with increases in 250 GPM increments.

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4
Q

What is the typical water tank capacity for fire apparatus?

A

300 gallons.

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5
Q

What must a fire pump apparatus be equipped with?

A
  • Intake and discharge connections
  • Pump controls and gauges
  • Various hose sizes and types
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6
Q

What are the types of foam used in fire apparatus?

A
  • Class A Foam (ordinary combustible)
  • Class B Foam (flammable and combustible liquid or gas)
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7
Q

What is a Foam Pumper?

A

A fire apparatus equipped with a foam proportioning system for effective foam application.

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8
Q

What does CAFS stand for?

A

Compressed Air Foam Systems.

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9
Q

What is the capacity of Mobile Water Supply Apparatus according to NFPA 1901?

A

At least a 1000 gallon tank.

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10
Q

What are the two main functions of Mobile Water Supply Apparatus?

A
  • Mobile shuttle
  • Nurse tender (reservoir)
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11
Q

What is the typical tank capacity for Wildland Apparatus?

A

Usually 500 gallons or less, some may have up to 1000 gallons.

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12
Q

What is the NFPA standard for wildland firefighting apparatus?

A

NFPA 1906.

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13
Q

What are the three categories of Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Apparatus?

A
  • Major Firefighting Apparatus
  • Rapid Intervention
  • Combined Agent
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14
Q

What is the function of a Quint fire apparatus?

A

To perform five functions: aerial, ground ladders, hose, tank, and pump.

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15
Q

What is the maximum capacity of a fire boat’s pump?

A

Up to 50000 GPM.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the Electrical Load Management System?

A

To prevent overload of the vehicle’s electrical generation system.

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17
Q

What does the acronym PM stand for in maintenance?

A

Preventive Maintenance.

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18
Q

What does the acronym RM stand for in maintenance?

A

Repair Maintenance.

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19
Q

What must be done if a serious issue is found during an inspection?

A

Immediate action must be taken.

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20
Q

What is the maximum speed rating for tires based on?

A

The upper limit, not for continuous use at that speed.

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21
Q

What must be replaced every 7 years according to NFPA 1911?

A

Tires, regardless of their condition.

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22
Q

What is the purpose of brake tests on fire apparatus?

A

To ensure brakes are working properly and to prevent accidents.

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23
Q

What is the role of the load sequencer in the Electrical Load Management System?

A

To turn on various lights at intervals to avoid simultaneous startup loads.

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24
Q

What should be done during a post-trip inspection?

A

Use the same procedure as the pre-trip inspection.

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25
Q

What is the NFPA standard for fire apparatus driver operator qualifications?

A

NFPA 1002.

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26
Q

What is one requirement for candidates to become a Driver Operator?

A

Successful completion of a Firefighter 1 or equivalent course.

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27
Q

What does NFPA 1582 provide guidelines for?

A

Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments.

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28
Q

True or False: Driver Operators must ensure all members onboard the apparatus are seat belted before moving.

A

True.

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29
Q

Fill in the blank: The minimum qualifications for apparatus driver operators are established in ___ Standard.

A

[NFPA 1002]

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30
Q

What is the purpose of NFPA 1500?

A

Establish fitness for duty through medical evaluations

NFPA 1500 is the Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

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31
Q

What does NFPA 1582 provide guidelines for?

A

Vision and hearing standards for fire department personnel

NFPA 1582 is the Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments.

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32
Q

Who establishes the basic requirements for driver licensing in the USA?

A

The federal DOT

DOT stands for Department of Transportation.

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33
Q

What must driver operators (DOs) comply with while driving under non-emergency conditions?

A

All traffic regulations

This includes federal law, state codes, city ordinances, and NFPA standards.

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34
Q

True or False: Fire apparatus driver operators are exempt from all traffic regulations.

A

False

They are subject to the same regulations as other vehicle operators unless specifically exempt.

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35
Q

What is the most common place for a collision to occur?

A

At an intersection

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36
Q

What should a fire apparatus driver operator maintain to reduce collision risk?

A

Situational awareness

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37
Q

What are the seven basic causes of fire apparatus collisions?

A
  • Improper backing
  • Reckless driving
  • Excessive speed
  • Lack of driving skill and experience
  • Overloading and misuse
  • Mechanical failure
  • Driver operator personal readiness
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38
Q

What is the recommended speed for driving the apparatus while loading hose?

A

No greater than 5 mph

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39
Q

Fill in the blank: Negligence is usually found when the driver operator has been found guilty of gross violation of standing laws, policies, and _______.

A

Ordinances

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40
Q

What are potential causes of impairment for a driver operator?

A
  • Substance abuse
  • Prescription drug use
  • Personal issues (e.g., divorce, bankruptcy)
  • Illness
  • Depression
  • Fatigue
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41
Q

What is the importance of conducting daily pre-trip inspections?

A

To minimize mechanical failure and enhance safety

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42
Q

What does ‘brake fade’ refer to?

A

Overheated brake components losing stopping ability

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43
Q

What should be done before shutting down an engine that has experienced a full load?

A

Allow the engine to cool to normal operating temperature

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44
Q

True or False: The driver operator is exempt from legal consequences if driving recklessly.

A

False

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45
Q

What is visual lead time?

A

The time needed to stop the apparatus to perform an evasive maneuver

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46
Q

What is the total stopping distance comprised of?

A

Driver operator’s reaction distance and vehicle’s braking distance

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47
Q

What are the two common types of skids?

A
  • Acceleration skid
  • Locked wheel skid
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48
Q

What does NFPA 1901 require for apparatus with a gross vehicle weight rating of 36,000 pounds or greater?

A

Equipped with an auxiliary braking system

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49
Q

What is the most capable auxiliary braking device?

A

Transmission output retarder

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50
Q

What is the effect of driving over 50 mph in an emergency vehicle?

A

May outrun the effective range of its audible warning device

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51
Q

What should a driver operator do when approaching intersections with a red light?

A

Come to a complete stop and proceed with caution

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52
Q

What is the importance of using warning devices during an emergency response?

A

To ensure others can see and hear the emergency vehicle

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53
Q

Fill in the blank: Excessive speed may lead to loss of _______ of the apparatus.

A

Control

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54
Q

What should be avoided when driving downhill to prevent engine damage?

A

Allowing the apparatus to coast out of gear

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55
Q

What is the recommended action when adjusting mirrors?

A

Use a spotter to identify blind spots

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56
Q

What is required for all passengers in the apparatus before it is operated?

A

Wearing seat belts

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57
Q

What is the angle of approach?

A

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the front tires to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus

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58
Q

What is an electromagnetic retarder?

A

An electromagnetic retarder creates a braking torque at the rear wheels by inhibiting rotor rotation through an electromagnetic field generated by electrical power to coils.

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59
Q

How does a transmission output retarder work?

A

It uses the viscous property of automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline by introducing fluid into the retarder housing.

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60
Q

True or False: Snow chains are effective in snow deeper than six inches.

A

False

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61
Q

What is the purpose of driver control differential locks in aerial apparatus?

A

To improve traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions.

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62
Q

What should be done when backing an apparatus?

A

Use hand signals, preposition lights, and backup cameras, and ensure all equipment is secured.

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63
Q

What is the primary function of stability control systems?

A

To help prevent rollovers and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction.

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64
Q

What does electronic stability control do?

A

Applies brakes independently to steer the vehicle in the direction of the steering input.

65
Q

Fill in the blank: NFPA 1002 provides directions on _______.

A

[driver operator candidates’ evaluation evolutions]

66
Q

What should a written exam for a driver operator include?

A
  • Driving regulations
  • Departmental regulations
  • Hydraulic calculations
  • Operational questions regarding pumping
  • Department procedures or guidelines
67
Q

What is the recommended speed for apparatus equipped with aerial hose chutes?

A

5 mph or less.

68
Q

What does NFPA 1901 specify about equipment during driving?

A

Equipment not needed while driving must be secured in brackets or storage cabinets capable of restraining equipment against forces up to 10 times its weight.

69
Q

True or False: High pressure hydraulic fluid at low pressures cannot penetrate skin.

70
Q

What is the importance of size up skills when positioning a vehicle?

A

To ensure the safest and most advantageous use of the apparatus features.

71
Q

When should the driver operator pull the apparatus past the front of a building?

A

When arriving at an incident where no fire is evident, to allow viewing of three sides of the building.

72
Q

What is the first tactical priority at any incident?

A

Life safety.

73
Q

What is the purpose of maintaining a collapse zone?

A

To ensure safety from potential building collapses.

74
Q

What is the recommended positioning for aerial apparatus in relation to the building?

A

If the building is less than five floors, position the attack pumper closest; if greater than five floors, position the attack pumper outside.

75
Q

What is drafting in firefighting terms?

A

The process of acquiring water from a static source to transfer it into a pump above the source’s level.

76
Q

What does a dry hydrant consist of?

A
  • An intake hose connection
  • A pipe extending into the water
  • A strainer at the end
77
Q

What should personnel working near bodies of water wear?

A

A personal flotation device.

78
Q

What is the difference between dual pumping and tandem pumping?

A

Dual pumping uses one hydrant to supply two pumpers; tandem pumping boosts pressure from one pumper to another.

79
Q

What should be considered during hazardous material incidents?

A
  • Wind speed and direction
  • Approach from upwind and uphill
  • Identify the material before approaching the scene
80
Q

Fill in the blank: Hazard control zones are intended to limit the number of persons exposed to a _______.

81
Q

What should be done when laying LDH supply hose?

A

Lay it to the edge of the street to avoid obstruction.

82
Q

What is an anchor point in wildland fire attack?

A

A natural or man-made barrier that prevents the fire from encircling the apparatus.

83
Q

What information should be obtained regarding wind speed and direction at a hazmat scene?

A

From the dispatcher or by direct observation.

84
Q

How should an operator approach a hazmat scene?

A

From upwind and uphill.

85
Q

When should the apparatus be driven directly to the scene?

A

Until the material involved can be identified.

86
Q

What are Hazard Control Zones?

A

Systems or barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes intended to limit exposure to hazards.

87
Q

What are the three zones in a major incident?

A
  • Hot Zone
  • Warm Zone
  • Cold Zone
88
Q

What is the Hot Zone?

A

The area closest to the release of material.

89
Q

What is the Warm Zone?

A

The area abutting the hot zone where personnel may enter briefly without special protective clothing.

90
Q

What is the Cold Zone?

A

The area surrounding the warm zone where all incident support functions are conducted.

91
Q

What must fire department personnel consider regarding railroad tracks?

A

All railroad tracks are live and it may require one to two miles for a fully loaded train to stop.

92
Q

What is the minimum clear zone that apparatus should maintain from railroad tracks?

A

At least 30 feet.

93
Q

What is water density measured in?

A

Pounds per cubic foot.

94
Q

What is the weight of ordinary freshwater for fire protection purposes?

A

62.4 pounds per cubic foot or 8.3 pounds per gallon.

95
Q

At what temperature does water convert to steam?

A

212 degrees Fahrenheit.

96
Q

What is the expansion ratio of steam compared to its original volume?

A

Approximately 1700 times.

97
Q

What is the effect of water’s high surface tension?

A

It makes it difficult to soak into materials.

98
Q

Water may be reactive to which types of fuels?

A
  • Combustible metals
  • Sodium metal
  • Triethyl aluminum
99
Q

What defines pressure?

A

Force per unit area.

100
Q

How is pressure expressed?

A

In pounds per square foot, pounds per square inch, or kilopascals.

101
Q

What is force a measurement of?

A

Weight, expressed in pounds or dunes.

102
Q

What is velocity in fluid dynamics?

A

The speed at which fluid travels through a hose or pipe.

103
Q

What does the first principle of fluid pressure state?

A

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.

104
Q

What does the second principle of fluid pressure state?

A

Fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions.

105
Q

What does the third principle of fluid pressure state?

A

Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions.

106
Q

What does the fourth principle of fluid pressure state?

A

The pressure of liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.

107
Q

What does the fifth principle of fluid pressure state?

A

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid.

108
Q

What does the sixth principle of fluid pressure state?

A

The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel.

109
Q

What is atmospheric pressure at sea level?

A

14.7 PSI or 100 kPa.

110
Q

What does a pressure of 1 PSI correspond to in a column of mercury?

A

About 2.04 inches tall.

111
Q

What is PSIG?

A

Pounds per square inch gauge.

112
Q

What does PSI a stand for?

A

Pounds per square inch absolute.

113
Q

What is the definition of vacuum pressure?

A

Any pressure less than atmospheric pressure.

114
Q

What does head refer to in terms of water supply?

A

The height of water supply above the discharge orifice.

115
Q

What is the pressure gain per foot increase in elevation?

A

0.434 PSI.

116
Q

What is normal operating pressure?

A

Pressure in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands.

117
Q

What is residual pressure?

A

Pressure at the hydrant while water is flowing.

118
Q

What is flow pressure?

A

While water is flowing, the forward velocity pressure.

119
Q

What is the altitude’s effect on atmospheric pressure?

A

It drops 0.5 PSI per 1000 ft above sea level.

120
Q

What causes friction loss?

A

Pressure loss due to friction.

121
Q

What is the first principle of friction loss?

A

Friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe.

122
Q

What is the second principle of friction loss?

A

Friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of flow.

123
Q

What is the third principle of friction loss?

A

Friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.

124
Q

What is the fourth principle of friction loss?

A

Friction loss is approximately the same regardless of the pressure on the water for a given velocity.

125
Q

What is critical velocity?

A

The point at which friction loss becomes too great.

126
Q

What can cause high friction loss in hoses?

A
  • Hose length
  • Hose diameter
  • Sharp bends in hose
127
Q

What is water hammer?

A

An energy surge caused by suddenly stopping water.

128
Q

What are the three means of moving water?

A
  • Direct pumping system
  • Gravity system
  • Combination system
129
Q

What is the purpose of water processing or treatment facilities?

A

To treat water by coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, or addition of chemicals.

130
Q

What are the three basic rates of consumption considered in water distribution design?

A
  • Average daily consumption
  • Maximum daily consumption
  • Peak hourly consumption
131
Q

What are private water supply systems commonly used for?

A
  • Fire protection
  • Sanitary and fire protection purposes
  • Fire protection and manufacturing
132
Q

What is the formula for Solid Stream GPM?

A

GPM = 29.7 x d² x √NP

133
Q

What is the nozzle reaction for a solid stream?

A

NR = 1.57 x d² x NP

134
Q

What affects the condition of the fire stream as it leaves the nozzle?

A
  • Operating pressure
  • Nozzle design and adjustment
  • Condition of the nozzle orifice
135
Q

What types of fire streams are produced by fire nozzles?

A
  • Solid stream
  • Fog stream
  • Broken stream
136
Q

What is a solid stream nozzle?

A

Produces tight streams with little spray or shower effect.

137
Q

What is the purpose of fog nozzles?

A

To break water into finely divided particles.

138
Q

What determines the reach of a fog stream?

A

Its width, size of water particles, wind, and volume of water flowing.

139
Q

What is a constant flow fog nozzle?

A

Designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure.

140
Q

What are constant flow fog nozzles designed to do?

A

Flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure.

Operated most commonly at 100 PSI.

141
Q

How do constant flow fog nozzles change their stream pattern?

A

By rotating the exterior barrel to change pattern settings while maintaining the same space between the deflecting stem and the interior throat of the nozzle.

142
Q

What is the main feature of selectable gallonage nozzles?

A

Allows selection of flow rate to suit fire operating conditions.

Most often operated at 100 PSI.

143
Q

What must the driver operator know to properly use selectable gallonage nozzles?

A

The gallonage setting in which the nozzle will be operated.

144
Q

What is an automatic fog nozzle?

A

A type of variable flow nozzle that changes patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure.

145
Q

How does an automatic fog nozzle maintain pressure?

A

Uses a spring-activated device that constricts or expands the space between the baffle and the interior throat of the nozzle.

146
Q

What is the maximum operating pressure for high pressure fog nozzles?

A

Up to 800 PSI.

147
Q

What is a characteristic of the stream produced by high pressure fog nozzles?

A

Significant forward velocity but relatively low volume of water delivery.

148
Q

What is the maximum flow rate for handline nozzles?

A

350 gallons per minute.

149
Q

What distinguishes master stream nozzles from handline nozzles?

A

Capable of water flow in excess of 350 gallons per minute.

150
Q

What are the three basic types of master stream appliances?

A
  • Fixed
  • Combination
  • Portable
151
Q

What is a fixed master stream appliance commonly called?

A

Deck guns.

152
Q

What is the purpose of elevated master streams?

A

May be pre-plumbed and permanently attached to an aerial ladder platform or used as a detachable appliance.

153
Q

What are cellar nozzles sometimes called?

A

Distributors.

154
Q

What is the function of piercing nozzles?

A

Used to apply water to voids, attics, or other areas inaccessible to standard fire streams.

155
Q

What is the design of a piercing nozzle?

A

A three to six foot hollow steel rod with a hardened steel point capable of being driven through various materials.

156
Q

What type of nozzle is designed to suppress fires in chimney flues?

A

Chimney nozzles.

157
Q

What is nozzle reaction?

A

The counterforce that pushes back against firefighters operating the hose line when water is discharged from a nozzle.

158
Q

What principle does nozzle reaction illustrate?

A

Newton’s third law of motion: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.