My Mock Registry Flashcards
What is a normal pulse rate for a healthy adult
60-100 beats/minute
Systolic blood pressure corresponds with the contraction of which chamber of the heart
Left ventricle contraction
What is a normal blood pressure
120/80 or less
Diastolic blood pressure corresponds to
Ventricular diastole or ventricular relaxation
Initial electrical impulse in the heart is generated by the
Sinus node
An elevated ST segment on an EKG indicates what
Myocardial infarction
Which reasons might a patient’s pulse ox reading fall below 90%
Sleep apneaPoorly placed oximetry sensorChronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseCardiac arrest
Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strip represents the electrical conduction through the atria of the heart
P segment (the first little bump)
Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strips represents the electrical activity of the ventricles during diastole e
T segment(small little bump at the end)
Normal range for BUN
7-21 mg/dL
What factors can cause creatinine levels to fluctuate
AgeMuscle massHydrationGender
Which tests are used for renal function
BUNCreatinineGFR
Which tests are hematology tests
HematocritHemoglobinPlateletsWBC
What tests are coagulation tests
PT (Prothrombin time)PTT (Partial thromboplastin time)INR (International standardized ratio)ACT (activated coagulation time)
What is the normal range for creatinine
0.7-1.5mg/dL
What is the normal GFR range
90-120
A GFR below 90 would indicate what
Poor renal function
A GFR below 30 would indicate
Potential renal failure
A BUN over 50 would indicate
Potential renal failure
A creatinine over 2 indicates what
Potential renal failure
What factors are used to calculate a patient’s GFR
Creatinine levelAgeGender
What represents the amount of red blood cells in whole blood
Hematocrit
Which lab tests may help to indicate if a patient has anemia
HemoglobinHematocrit
Which lab tests May indicate bleeding or blood loss
HematocritHemoglobin
What lab test may indicate a patient’s potential for bleeding
Platelet countPTTPTINRACT
What is a normal hemoglobin range for males
14-17
What is a normal hemoglobin range for females
12-15
A software program that allows for digital documentation of all patient health information
EHR
This system has replaced hard copy and film storage systems in most Radiology departments
PACS
“Meaningful use” is a set of electronic medical records standards as governed by
Center for Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS)
An information-sharing system unique to the diagnostic imaging department is identified as
RIS
The acronym PACS stands for
Picture archiving and communication system
A PACS program consists of what three things
Storage deviceDisplay workstationImaging modality
The acronym RIS stands for
Radiology information system
Definitions for appropriate sharing of personally identified health information is largely provided by
Health insurance portability and accountability Act (HIPAA)
Define embolism
Anything blocking a vessel
Define thrombus
Clotting within a vessel
Define thrombotic embolism
Condition in which the formation or movement of a thrombus occludes a vessel causing infarction of the tissues being supplied by the vessel
Define CVA
A critical condition in which a thrombus in the brain causes irreversible damage to brain cells
Define TIA
Focal cerebral ischemia not associated with permanent cerebral infarction
How long do the symptoms of a TIA typically last
Less than 1 hour
Which of the following terms are synonymousIschemic strokeTransient ischemic attackCerebral infarctCerebrovascular accident
Ischemic strokeCerebral infarctCerebrovascular accident
Which signs/symptoms are often associated with CVA
Acute confusionPermanent brain infarctionAcute dysphasiaUnilateral weakness
Define cardiogenic shock
A physiologic state in which inadequate tissue perfusion results from cardiac dysfunction
Define myocardial infarction
Irreversible necrosis of heart muscle secondary to prolonged ischemia
Define congestive heart failure
A clinical syndrome in which the heart fails to pump blood at the rate required by the metabolizing tissues
Define cardiac tamponade
A clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space
Which of these compensatory mechanisms are associated with CHFIncreased blood volumeIncreased cardiac filling pressureDecreased heart rateDecreased myocardial mass
Increased blood volumeIncreased cardiac filling pressure
Which of the following is a critical cardiac arrhythmiaVentricular tachycardiaAtrial fibrillationVentricular fibrillationAsystole
Ventricular tachycardiaVentricular fibrillationAsystole
Which of these cardiac conditions can cause inadequate ventricular filling in the presence of a healthy myocardiumMyocardial infarctionCongestive heart failureCardiogenic shockCardiac tamponade
Cardiac tamponade
Which of these conditions typically occurs secondary to myocardial infarctionCardiogenic shockCardiac tamponadeCongestive heart failureTransient ischemic attack
Cardiogenic shock
Which of these conditions is caused by a thrombus in the coronary arteriesCongestive heart failureCardiac tamponadeMyocardial infarctionCardiogenic shock
Myocardial infarction
Which of the following can cause respiratory arrestTraumaAirway obstructionRespiratory muscle weaknessDecreased respiratory drive
All of them
Which of the following are clinical signs of anaphylaxisHypertensionAirway edemaVasoconstrictionMucus secretions
Airway edemaMucus secretions
Hypotension and hypertension are always secondary to other clinical conditions true or false
False
Which of the following could potentially cause a vasovagal responseAnxietyFearMedicationsPain
All of them
Which of the following are considered common vasovagal responsesFaintingSpontaneous arrhythmiasSyncopeDeath
FaintingSyncope
Which of the following correctly describes the intended effect of contrast agent administration in medical imagingEnhance tissue discriminationDifferentiate between normal tissuesDifferentiate between normal tissues and abnormalitiesStimulate physiological response in abnormal tissues
Enhanced issue discriminationDifferentiate between normal tissuesDifferentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities
Tissue differentiation in sonography imaging is based on
Tissue harmonics
Tissue differentiation in MRI imaging is based on
Variable nuclear resonance
Tissue differentiation in Interventional Imaging is based on
Differential attenuation of the radiation beam
Tissue differentiation in a computed tomography is based on
Differential attenuation of the radiation beam
Which of these materials would be correctly described as paramagneticIodineAirMicrobubblesIron
Iron
Differential ultrasonic imaging may be enhanced with what type of contrast
Microbubbles
Describe what effect a non-toxic contrast agent has on the body
Unless it’s minimal adverse effects in the body
Describe what effect a stable contrast agent has on the body
Does not break down in the body
Describe what effect an inert contrast agent has on the body
Does not readily react with other chemicals or medications
Describe what effect contrast agent specificity has on the body
Engages only the organs or tissues it is intended to affect
A contrast material requiring a large volume injection to produce the necessary image contrast would be described as having poor
Carrier efficiency
The harmonic qualities of tissues and materials is a physical characteristic most relevant to which imaging modality
Sonography
The administration of a gadolinium nanoparticle for an MRI procedure would have the most pronounced effect on which aspect of the digital imageSpatial resolutionTemporal resolutionContrast resolutionDigital matrix size
Contrast resolution
A patient in your department is injected with an iodonated contrast material. Which of these reactions would be described as a normal, non-idiosyncratic response to the contrast agentSensations of warmthPersistent vomitingPulmonary edemaScattered urticaria
Sensations of warmth
Mild palpitations, tachycardia, and bradycardia are all symptoms of which level of contrast reactionNon-idiosyncratic ModerateMildSevere
Moderate
With which of these symptoms of a contrast reaction to the administration of contrast be stopped immediatelyLaryngeal edemaBronchospasmHivesDizziness
All of them
Define diaphoresis
Sweating
Define urticaria
Hives
Define pruritus
Itching
Define rhinorrhea
Runny nose
Define retching
Dry heaving
Define laryngeal edema
Throat swelling
The imager’s response to a contrast reaction should includeCall for nursing and physician on staffHave contrast reaction kit and O2 mask on handAcquire vital signsBe prepared to call a code blue if necessary
All of them
A patient presented to your department has a regular bowel incontinence and has an accident on the examination table it was later determined that patient has c-diff as a consequence of inadequate cleaning of the exam table at least one other patients can do later in the day develops the same infection this type of infection is referred to as
Nosocomial
Acquiring an infectious agent while bathing a patient is what kind of transmission
Direct contact
Influenza requires what kind of isolation precaution
Droplet isolation
Acquiring an infectious agent through the hospital ventilation system is what kind of transmission
Airborne
Another word for aseptic technique
Sterile technique
What procedure is focused on the absence of pathogenic organisms but does not require items to be sterile
Medical asepsis
Procedures including hand washing, routine equipment cleaning, and proper personal hygiene are considered
Medical asepsis
What procedures should be followed any time the patient’s skin is intentionally perforated
Sterile technique
What procedures should be used during procedures involving entry into the peritoneal cavity
Sterile technique
Another term for “clean technique”
Medical asepsis
What procedure is required during IV catheter insertion
Sterile technique
Which of the following applies to a patient with standard precautionsHand hygieneSafe injection practicesUse of personal protective equipmentRespiratory hygiene/cough edicate
All of them
Which of the following is a transmission based infection precautionContact isolationDroplet isolationStandard precautionAirborne isolation
Contact isolationDroplet isolationAirborne isolation
What isolation precaution is applicable to a patient with an infectious condition that may be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact
Contact isolation
Which precaution is most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that can be carried by sputum droplets through the air
Droplet isolation
Pneumonia requires what kind of isolation precaution
Droplet isolation
Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precaution
Droplet isolation
What type of isolation precaution is used for all patients at all times
Standard precautions
Which type of isolation precautions require special air handling units
Airborne isolation
Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precaution
Airborne isolation
What type of isolation precaution is most relevant when infectious agents can be suspended in air for long periods of time over long distances
Airborne isolation
MRSA requires what kind of isolation precaution
Contact isolation
C-diff requires what kind of isolation precaution
Contact isolation
Acquiring an infectious agent by touching a contaminated door handle is what kind of transmission
Indirect contact
876 year old female is brought to your department for imaging of the abdomen. The patient is in contact isolation for MRSA. To avoid transmitting this infection to other patients you shouldShut down the room after the patients departureWash your hands after the procedureWear a fitted surgical mask during the examinationDisinfect any equipment used for imaging
Wash your hands after the procedureDisinfect and equipment used for imaging
Which precaution is most relevant when infectious agents may be spread through a contaminated EKG machine
Contact isolation
VRE requires what kind of isolation precaution
Contact isolation
What type of precaution is the most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that may be spread through talking, sneezing, or coughing
Droplet isolation
You receive a requisition in your department to complete an imaging procedure of a patient’s lower extremity. This patient has VRE. An appropriate way of minimizing potential infection to other patients in this situation isPerform the exam portably in the patient’s roomWear a mask during the examinationRequest the patient wears a mask during the examinationPerform the exam in a negative pressure room
Perform the exam portably in the patient’s room
Reusing gloves between patients is most likely to result in what kind of infection transmissionInfluenzaC-diffMeningitisPneumonia
C-diff
What factors potentially affect the human body’s response to a medication
Patient weightPatient immune statusPatient genderPatient age
Define duration of action
The time during which the drug is in the body and elicits a therapeutic response
Define onset of action
The point at which a drug reaches its intended effect
Define maximum Peak
This is when a drug reaches its highest potential and begins to subside
Define antagonist
A drug or natural substance that is attracted to and blocks specific receptor sites
Define therapeutic index (TI)
A measure of the relative safety of a drug
Define drug receptors
Specific biologic sites located on a cell surface or within the cell
Define Agonist
A drug or natural substance with an attraction to a specific receptor site that produces a physiologic response
Which of the following represents the most desirable therapeutic index10:11:12:1200:1
200:1
Define narcotic
Opium-based or opium-like pain relievers
Define analgesic
Pain relievers
Define sedatives
A drug that calms anxiety
Define antibiotics
A soluble substance derived from a mold or bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms
Define anxiolytics
An anti-anxiety medication
Define antiemetic
A drug that prevents or minimizes nausea and vomiting
Define anticoagulant
A drug that prevents or reduces the coagulation of blood
Define vasoconstrictors
A drug causing increased blood pressure
Define anti-arrhythmic
A medication that may prevent tachycardia
Define thrombolytics
A clot dissolving medication
Define vasodilators
A drug causing relaxation and opening of blood vessels
What drug classification do calcium channel blockers fall under
Anti-arrhythmic
What drug classification does epinephrine fall under
Vasoconstrictor
What drug classification does Xanax fall under
Anxiolytic
What drug classification does tPA fall under
Thrombolytic
What drug classification does Zofran fall under
Antiemetic
What drug classification does fentanyl fall under
Narcotic
What drug classification does Valium fall under
Sedative
What drug classification does tetracycline fall under
Antibiotic
What drug classification does Coumadin fall under
Anticoagulant
What drug classification does aspirin fall under
AntiplateletAnalgesicAnticoagulant
What drug classification does morphine fall under
Narcotic
Which of these drugs is known to increase heart rate, constrict blood vessels, dilate air passages, and stimulate the sympathetic nervous responseBenadrylOxygenAlbuterolEpinephrine
Epinephrine
Which of these medications might be valuable to a patient having a respiratory reaction to ICMAtropineAlbuterolAtenololOxygen
AlbuterolOxygen
Which of these medications function as an immunosuppressant to counteract hives and/or itchingEpinephrineSolu-MedrolBenadrylAtropine
BenadrylSolu-Medrol
Which of these medications would be valuable to a patient experiencing hypotension or bradycardia during and medication reactionBenadrylAtropineVersedEpinephrine
EpinephrineAtropine
What medication types. The body’s inflammatory response to iodinated contrastDiazepamSolu-MedrolEpinephrineBenadryl
Solu-MedrolBenadryl
Which of these medications would be useful to a patient experiencing acute dyspnea? (choose all correct) Epinephrine Albuterol Zofran Oxygen
Epinephrine Albuterol Oxygen
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prone to ischemia stroke as a result of blood thrombi formed in the heart and deposited in the cerebrum. Examples of medications that may reduce the risk of stroke for this patient are: (choose all correct) warfarin epinephrine diazepam heparin
warfarin heparin
A patient with severe pulmonary edema is brought to your department for an examination of the lungs. A patient with this condition is likely to be on which of these medications? Atropine Lasix Normal saline Epinephrine
Lasix
CT angiography of the heart is sometimes performed prior to ablation procedures in patients with atrial fibrillation. Which of these medications may help to stabilize the rhythm of the heart during the CT angiography study? Antibiotic Antiemetic Narcotic Beta-blocker
Beta-blocker
Describe deep sedation
limited response to stimuli
Describe general anesthesia
requires significant support of vital functions
Describe anxiolysis sedation
relaxes patient and reduced anxiety
Describe conscious sedation
patient follows specific instructions
Which of these medications are likely to be used together for sedation and analgesia during a radiology procedure? (choose all correct) midazolam hydromorphone morphine fentanyl
midazolamfentanyl
When should vital signs be assessed for a patient scheduled for an interventional procedure requiring some level of sedation? (choose all correct) after the procedure before the procedure only during deep sedation during the procedure
after the procedure before the procedure during the procedure
T/F: All contrast media is potentially harmful and should be used knowledgeably.
True
T/F: Intravascular contrast media administration is performed under the supervision of a licensed physician.
True
T/F: Technical and nursing personnel injecting contrast media must be knowledgeable in the recognition of, and able to assist in the treatment of any adverse reaction.
True
T/F: Literature in the MRI community and manufacturer recommendations lists the dosage of intravenous gadolinium chelate contrast to be 0.1 mmol/kg of body weight.
True
T/F: Any and all adverse events, incidents or “near incidents” that occur pertaining to MR safety are to be reported to the MRI Medical Director, the MRI Department Supervisor or the Radiology Administrator immediately.
True
T/F: A student may review and sign the MRI screening sheet prior to an individual entering the scan room.
False
T/F: The Medical Director will be involved with the introduction of new policies and procedures as needed with the advancement of technologies and procedures in the MRI environment.
True
T/F: Zone III – This area is synonymous with the MR scanner room itself.
False
T/F: Lenz’s Law is an important consideration with non-ferromagnetic objects.
True
T/F: Having undergone a previous MRI successfully with an implanted device indicates that the device is MRI safe.
False
T/F: The potential for translational forces (“projectile forces”) exists at any field strength.
True
T/F: After a quench the patient and personnel should evacuate the area immediately.
True
Which of the following describe T1 Recovery? (Choose all that apply) Spin lattice relaxationThe time it takes 63% of transverse magnetization to decay in the tissue.Caused by the nuclei giving up their energy to the surrounding environment or lattice.Spin-spin relaxation that results in decay or loss of coherent transverse magnetization.
Spin lattice relaxationCaused by the nuclei giving up their energy to the surrounding environment or lattice.
What MUST be done prior to anyone entering the scan room? (Select the BEST answer) Pat the patient down for metal objects.A screening sheet must be filled out and in the patient’s chart.The patient must be scanned with the metal detector.The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.
The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.
What happens to the alignment of hydrogen protons when placed in an external magnetic field? (Check all that apply) Nothing until an RF pulse is applied.The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field.More nuclei oppose the main magnetic field than line up with the main magnetic field.Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it.
The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field.Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it.
Where do we look up the safety of an implanted device? (Check all that apply) www.MRISafety.comShellock’s reference manualThe manufacturer’s websiteIf we remember that it is a safe implant, there is no need to look it up again.
www.MRISafety.comShellock’s reference manualThe manufacturer’s website
What effect does the magneto-hemodynamic effect have? Is this a permanent effect? (Check all that apply)Increase in the amplitude of the “R” wave on EKG gating.Increase in the amplitude of the “T” wave on EKG gating.Reversible effect– EKG tracing returns to normal when the patient is removed from the static magnetic field.Permanent effect– EKG tracing continues to show an elevated wave form after the patient has had an MRI exam.
Increase in the amplitude of the “T” wave on EKG gating.Reversible effect– EKG tracing returns to normal when the patient is removed from the static magnetic field.
What is the gyromagnetic ratio of hydrogen? 21.28 MHz/T 33.8 MHz/T42.57 MHz/T 42.57 MHz/G
42.57 MHz/T
Select the three components of the magnetic field from those listed below. Static Magnetic Field Faraday’s Field Radiofrequency FieldsTime Varying Magnetic Fields Precessional Frequency Field
Static Magnetic Field Radiofrequency FieldsTime Varying Magnetic Fields
What are the guidelines for pregnant employees? (Choose all that apply) No changes to pregnant employees work environment in MRI. Everyone knows that MRI doesn’t use radiation.Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins.Pregnant employees are exempt from scanning and may only do paperwork.Pregnant employees MUST transfer to x-ray once they’ve announced their pregnancy to the MRI department.
Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins.
T/F: The gyromagnetic ratio expresses the relationship between the angular momentum and the magnetic moment of each MR active nucleus.
True
Identify which of the following describe a “fringe field.” (Select all that apply) The stray magnetic field outside the bore of the magnet.An area on the outskirts of the magnet– generally two feet long by three feet wide.Active or passive shielding is used to reduce the size of the fringe field.The fringe field is not confined by walls, floors, or ceilings.
The stray magnetic field outside the bore of the magnet.Active or passive shielding is used to reduce the size of the fringe field.The fringe field is not confined by walls, floors, or ceilings.
What would you do in the event of a CODE BLUE in MRI? (Select all that apply) Stay with the patient in the scan room until help arrives. Begin CPR.Activate the Code Blue response process (push the Code Blue button)Get the patient out of the scanner and into Zone III; locking the scan room door and monitoring it when other Code Team members arrive
Begin CPR.Activate the Code Blue response process (push the Code Blue button)Get the patient out of the scanner and into Zone III; locking the scan room door and monitoring it when other Code Team members arrive
What are the two results of resonance? (Choose from the list below) The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0.The NMV moves into a repeating pattern of /- 100 MHZ.The magnetic momements of hydrogen nuclei move out of phase with each other.The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other.
The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0.The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other.
T/F: The “warm zone” in MRI is the scan room itself.
False
Which of the following best describe spin-lattice relaxation? (Choose all that apply) T2 Decay T1 RecoveryTime it takes 88% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue.Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery.
T1 RecoveryNuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery.
What makes a nucleus an MR active nucleus? (Select all that apply) Odd mass numbers Atoms with a balanced mass number Nuclei with a net spin or angular momentumNone of the above
Odd mass numbers Nuclei with a net spin or angular momentum
T/F: We ALWAYS scan pregnant patients with contrast.
False
T/F: For resonance of hydrogen to occur, RF at EXACTLY the Larmor frequency of hydrogen must be applied.
True
What are the three types of motion present in an atom? (Select all that apply) Electrons spinning on their own axis. Nuclei spinning around each other.Electrons orbiting the nucleus.The nucleus itself spinning about its own axis.
Electrons spinning on their own axis.Electrons orbiting the nucleus.The nucleus itself spinning about its own axis.
Identify the two factors that determine which hydrogen nuclei align parallel and which align anti-parallel with the main magnetic field. The strength of the external magnetic fieldHow many nuclei there are in each patient’s body The thermal energy level of the nucleiThe orientation of the patient in the scanner (head first vs. feet first)
The strength of the external magnetic field The thermal energy level of the nuclei
Which way does the main magnetic field run in permanent magnets? HorizontallyVerticallySide to SideDown the bore of the magnet
Vertically
What is the terminal velocity of a paperclip at 1.5T? 64 mph55mph40mphNone- not attracted
40mph
Which of the following describe the purpose of gradients in MRI? (Choose all that apply) Alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion Change thermal equilibrium Spatially encode data Cause electrons to spin on their own axis
Alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion Spatially encode data
What does SAR stand for?Special Atomic RateStart Atoms RollingSpecific Absorption RateSpecific Atomic Rate
Specific Absorption Rate
What does the net magnetization vector (NMV) represent? The type of MR active nuclei present The relative number of electrons to protons The atomic number of the nuclei presentThe relative balance of spin-up to spin-down nuclei
The relative balance of spin-up to spin-down nuclei
Which way does the main magnetic field run in superconducting magnets? Along the bore of the magnet (horizontal)Along the Y-axisVerticallySide to side
Along the bore of the magnet (horizontal)
What is the best device to use when monitoring a patient’s status in MRI? Blood pressure cuff Pulse ox EKGAuditory monitoring
Pulse ox
What does the Larmor Equation calculate? The NMVThe precessional frequencyThe gyromagnetic ratio The atomic mass
The precessional frequency
What is the T2 relaxation time of tissue?[Hint: Think about which axis T2 relaxation is occurring in (longitudinal vs. transverse) and whether T2 relaxation indicates recovery vs. decay.]The time it takes 43% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in the tissue.The time it takes 63% of the transverse magnetization to recover in the tissue.The time it takes 63% of the longitudinal magnetization to decay in the tissue.The time it takes 63% of the transverse magnetization to decay in the tissue.
The time it takes 63% of the transverse magnetization to decay in the tissue.
What is another term for T2 Decay? Spin-lattice relaxationSpin-spin relaxationT1 recoveryNMV
Spin-spin relaxation
How do gradients affect the main magnetic field? (Select all that apply) They add to the main magnetic field They subtract from the main magnetic fieldThey alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion They give the image its shades of gray
They add to the main magnetic field They subtract from the main magnetic fieldThey alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion
T/F: Rewinders are gradients that rephase.
True
Which of the following controls T2* weighting in gradient echo? TETRFlip angleTR and flip angle
TE
What controls the polarity of a gradient?The steepness of the slice select gradientThe sharpness of the frequency readoutThe direction of the current through the gradient coilThe strength of the main magnetic field
The direction of the current through the gradient coil
T/F: TR controls T2 weighting.
False
Which of the following is known as the basic MRI contrast? T1 weightingT2 weightingGray imagingProton density weighting
Proton density weighting
Choose extrinsic contrast parameters from the list below.T1 Recovery TimeTRProton DensityFlip AngleFlowTEb Value
TRFlip AngleTEb Value
What are the two extremes of contrast in MRI?T1 RecoveryFatAirWater
FatWater
T/F: The TE is twice the TAU.
True
T2* decay is faster than T2 decay since it is a combination of which two of the following effects? T1 decay with spin echoT2 decay itselfDephasing due to magnetic field inhomogeneities*weighting
T2 decay itselfDephasing due to magnetic field inhomogeneities
Which of the following best describes a T1 weighted image? (Select all that apply) Bright water Bright fat Dark Water Dark Fat
Bright fat Dark Water
Which of the following statements is true: Spin-spin interactions drive T1 contrastSlow tumbling molecules lead to decreased spin-spin dephasingFast tumbling molecules lead to increased spin-spin dephasing Spin-spin interactions drive T2 contrast
Spin-spin interactions drive T2 contrast
What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of water at 1T?200 ms500 ms2000 ms2500 ms
2500 ms
Which of the following items are T1 and T2 relaxation times dependent on? (hint: there are three) How well the molecular tumbling rate matches the Larmor frequency of hydrogenSpin-spin interactions of oxygen atomsHow closely packed the molecules are The inherent energy of the tissueThe number of electrons orbiting the nucleus
How well the molecular tumbling rate matches the Larmor frequency of hydrogenHow closely packed the molecules are The inherent energy of the tissue
T/F: Intrinsic parameters are those that cannot be changed because they are inherent to the body’s tissues.
True
To achieve T1 weighting in gradient echo sequences, the flip angle should be ______. LargeSmallNo flip angle should be used
Large
T/F: Spin echo sequences do not compensate for magnetic field inhomogeneities, while gradient echo sequences do compensate for magnetic field inhomogeneities.
False
___ controls the amount of T1 weighting. TRTETIPD
TR
For PD weighting, the TR must be ______. LongShortIntermediateT1
Long
T/F: Generally speaking, gradient echo sequences are faster than spin echo sequences.
True
For T2 weighting, the TE must be _____. shortlongintermediatePD
long
Gradients that dephase are called __________. rewindersweighted spoilersvariable flip angles
spoilers
The spin echo is created by: The application of a long TE The application of a rewinding gradient A 180 degree RF pulse A rapid TI
A 180 degree RF pulse
Gradients are used to rephase spins in gradient echo sequences because: The resulting images have less artifact than spin echo images They are faster to apply than an RF pulseThey rephase spins more completely than an RF pulseThey result in images with better contrast resolution
They are faster to apply than an RF pulse
Which of the following controls T1 weighting in gradient echo? TITEGradient amplitudeTR and flip angle
TR and flip angle
Saturation results in T1 weighting because: The flip angle used was small so vectors are not pushed beyond the transverse planeOnly occurs when the TR is long as this allows for full recoveryVectors are pushed beyond the transverse plane because they were completely recovered before the RF excitation pulseVectors are pushed beyond the transverse plane as they were incompletely recovered before the RF excitation pulse
Vectors are pushed beyond the transverse plane as they were incompletely recovered before the RF excitation pulse
T/F: nhomogeneities are areas within the magnetic field that do not exactly match the external magnetic field strength.
True
What does the phase encoding gradient do? Encode data along the LONG axis of the anatomyEncode data along the DIAGONAL axis of the anatomyEncode data along the SHORT axis of the anatomy Both the DIAGONAL and SHORT axes
Encode data along the SHORT axis of the anatomy
Which gradient performs slice selection for coronal slices?X gradientY gradientZ gradientAny combination of gradients
Y gradient
Which gradient performs phase encoding for coronal slices?X gradientY gradientZ gradientAny combination of gradients
X gradient
When is the slice select gradient switched on during a spin echo pulse sequence? During the rephasing pulse onlyDuring the 90 and 180 degree pulses During the excitation pulse onlyIt is always on during the scan
During the 90 and 180 degree pulses
To achieve thin slices, do we need a STEEP or SHALLOW slice select slope? STEEPSHALLOW
STEEP
To achieve THIN slices would we use a narrow or broad transmit bandwidth? NarrowBroad
Narrow
When is the phase encoding gradient switched on in a pulse sequence? Before the 90 degree excitation pulseUsually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse Between TRs During the spin echo
Usually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse
What does the slope of the frequency encoding gradient determine? (Select all that apply)The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axisThe 180 degree rephasing pulse The FOV The size of the phase matrix
The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axis The FOV
What is another term for the duration of the readout gradient? X gradient Sampling time Z gradient Window of opportunity
Sampling time
How often must we sample frequencies, according to the Nyquist Theorem? Once per cycleTwice per cycleThree times per cycleLess than once per cycle
Twice per cycle
What artifact occurs if we sample frequencies less than once per cycle? Zipper Cross talk Cross excitationAliasing
Aliasing
What is the unit of K space? Inches Radians per meterRadians per centimeterDegrees
Radians per centimeter
T/F: The phase axis of K space is vertical and is centered in the middle of K space perpendicular to the frequency axis.
True
Which part of K space do steep phase gradients fill? Outer lines of K space, positive onlyOuter lines of K space, both positive and negativeCentral lines of K space, positive onlyCentral lines of K space, both positive and negative
Outer lines of K space, both positive and negative
Which part of K space do shallow phase gradients fill? Outer lines of K space, positive onlyOuter lines of K space, both positive and negative Central lines of K space, positive onlyCentral lines of K space, both positive and negative
Central lines of K space, both positive and negative
T/F: K space is not the image
True
Which gradient locates signal along the LONG axis of the anatomy? Phase encoding gradient Frequency encoding gradient Slice select gradient Isocenter gradient
Frequency encoding gradient
T/F: The scan time is the time to fill K space.
True
T/F: Data in K space are symmetrical.
True
What kind of information is contributed by data collected in the central lines of K space? (Select all that apply) ResolutionSignalContrast*weighting
SignalContrast
What kind of information is contributed by data collected in the outer lines of K space?ResolutionSignalContrast*weighting
Resolution
What controls the polarity of a gradient? The steepness of the slice select gradient The sharpness of the frequency readoutThe direction of the current through the gradient coil The strength of the main magnetic field
The direction of the current through the gradient coil
T/F: Phase encoding gradient positive fills the bottom half of K space.
False
Which gradient performs slice selection for sagital slices?X gradientY gradientZ gradientAny combination of gradients
X gradient
What is another name for the frequency encoding gradient? Phase encoding gradient Short gradient Readout gradient Rephasing gradient
Readout gradient
Where are the data points collected by the system stored?FFTK spaceFrequency domain42.57 MHz
K space
During a typical spin echo sequence, there are three gradient applications. In chronological order they are: Phase encoding, Slice select, Frequency encodingSlice select, Phase encoding, Frequency encoding Frequency encoding, Phase encoding, Slice select Slice select, Frequency encoding, Phase encoding
Slice select, Phase encoding, Frequency encoding
Which gradient lies along the horizontal axis of a typical superconducting MRI system? X gradientY gradientZ gradientW gradient
X gradient
If a 512 phase matrix is selected, which k-space lines are likely to be filled in a normal acquisition? 0 to 512256 to -256 0 to -512 256, 0 to -255
256 to -256
Which of the following statements is true? A data point contains frequency encoding information onlyA data point contains phase encoding information onlyA data point contains both phase and frequency informationA data point represents a specific pixel on the image
A data point contains both phase and frequency information
T/F: A thicker slice has a better SNR than a thinner slice.
True
Decreasing receive bandwidth by half increases the SNR by how much? 60%40% 1/2 .22
40%
T/F: A fine matrix is one with a low number of frequency encodings and/or phase encodings, and results in a small number of pixels in the FOV.
False
Choose three factors that affect the SNR from the list below (there are three factors). Magnetic field strength of the system Proton density of the area under examination The patient’s height and weightReceive bandwidth
Magnetic field strength of the system Proton density of the area under examinationReceive bandwidth
T/F: A long TE increases SNR and a short TE decreases SNR.
False
T/F: TR controls the amount of T2 weighting.
False
Choose the term that best describes “a unit volume of patient tissue” from the list below. Pixel Grayscale value Voxel Slice thickness
Voxel
Which of the following factors affect scan time during a sequential acquisition? (choose all that apply) TRTEPhase MatrixNEXFrequency Matrix
TRPhase MatrixNEX
Which of the following factors affect voxel size (choose all that apply)? Slice thickness Number of pixels or matrix Size of the flip angle FOV
Slice thickness Number of pixels or matrix FOV
T/F: Square pixels ALWAYS provide better spatial resolution than rectangular pixels.
True
If we double the NEX, what does that do to our scan time? Reduces the scan time by 1/2 Doubles the scan time Reduces the scan time by 1.4 Increases the scan time by 1.4
Doubles the scan time
Decreasing the phase matrix does which of the following? Decreases SNR Increases spatial resolution Makes the scan shorter Has no effect on scanning
Makes the scan shorter
Of the following parameters, which would give the best spatial resolution? 256 × 256, 3 mm slice thickness, 12 cm FOV, 1 NEX256 × 128, 8 mm slice thickness, 40 cm FOV, 4 NEX512 × 256, 6 mm slice thickness, 14 cm FOV, 2 NEXNone of the above would give good spatial resolution.
256 × 256, 3 mm slice thickness, 12 cm FOV, 1 NEX
Of the following parameters, which would give the highest SNR? 256 × 256, 3 mm slice thickness, 12 cm FOV, 1 NEX256 × 128, 8 mm slice thickness, 40 cm FOV, 4 NEX512 × 256, 6 mm slice thickness, 14 cm FOV, 2 NEXNone of the above.
256 × 128, 8 mm slice thickness, 40 cm FOV, 4 NEX
Increasing the field strength increases SNR because: The flip angle increasesThe NMV increases in size because the high energy population of spins increases The precessional frequency increasesThe NMV increases in size because the low energy population of spins increases
The NMV increases in size because the low energy population of spins increases
Halving a square FOV reduces the SNR by: 1/21/43/41/8
3/4
Which of the following does NOT occur when the receive bandwidth is reduced? SNR increases Chemical shift artifact improves Number of slices available decreases TE increases
Chemical shift artifact improves
Doubling the number of signal averages changes the SNR by how much? × 21/222 √2
√2
Which of these is a consequence of decreasing the TR from 2500 ms to 500 ms? Scan time decreases T1 weighting decreases Spatial resolution decreases Slice number available increases
Scan time decreases
Do we achieve greater SNR with a long or a short TR? longshort
long
Pixel area = __ / matrix size. SNRResolutionFOVGNR
FOV
Which sequence is considered the gold standard for MR imaging? SSFP Spin EchoGradient Echo Coherent Gradient Echo
Spin Echo
What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of CSF at 1T? 2000 ms150 ms500 ms3000 ms
2000 ms
What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of fat at 1T? 2000 ms200 ms500 ms3000 ms
200 ms
What do T1 images typically best demonstrate? Anatomy Pathology Bright fluid Everything
Anatomy
What does STIR stand for? Short ___ Inversion Recovery.
TautauTAU
When would we be most likely to use a STIR sequence? CSF flow studies MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)Head or Spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions)All studies must include a STIR sequence
MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)
T/F: FLAIR stands for Fluid Low Attenuation Inversion Recovery
False
When would we be most likely to use a FLAIR sequence? MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)Head or spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions) All studies must include a FLAIR sequence To image the great vessels
Head or spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions)
How is time reduced in fast spin echo? (Choose all that apply) The operator must prescribe fewer slicesUse a turbo factor Use thinner slices Use an echo train
Use a turbo factorUse an echo train
What artifact can occur as a result of using long echo trains?Cross talkTruncationImage BlurringAliasing
Image Blurring
An inversion recovery pulse sequence begins with which of the following? 90 degree RF pulse 180 degree inverting pulse180 rephasing pulse Gradient pulse (variable flip angle)
180 degree inverting pulse
Which Fast Inversion Recovery sequence(s) do we often use? STIRSSFPFLAIRIncoherent Gradient Echo
STIRFLAIR
What is Double IR prep used to accomplish? Used to null blood for cardiac imagingFlips the NMV back to zero Imaging large patients FSE sequences
Used to null blood for cardiac imaging
A coherent gradient echo sequence samples which of the following? FID Only Stimulated Echo Only Both the FID and Stimulated Echo T2 Information Only
Both the FID and Stimulated Echo
T/F: During EPI all the lines of K space are filled during one repetition.
True
How is K space filled in Fast Gradient Echo Sequences? (choose all that apply) Elliptical filling Centric filling Keyhole filling Outside to inside
Centric filling Keyhole filling
In which of the following sequences is all the transverse magnetization rewound at the end of each TR period? Coherent gradient echo Incoherent gradient echoEPI
Coherent gradient echo
Which of the following statements is true in an incoherent gradient echo sequence? Residual transverse magnetization has the same phase as the magnetization most recently created The flip angle is always 10°The system discriminates between residual and the most recently created transverse magnetization because it has a different phase value It is not a steady state sequence
The system discriminates between residual and the most recently created transverse magnetization because it has a different phase value
What type of echoes are sampled during SS-FSE? Spin echoes Gradient echoes Incoherent Gradient echoes
Spin echoes
What are the advantages of propeller K Space filling? Better detailLow SNR but high resolution Bright signalRapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact.
Rapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact.
T/F: Using a long echo train decreases the SAR.
False
T/F: STIR sequences should NOT be used in conjunction with contrast enhancement.
True
T/F: Spin echo pulse sequences are classified according to whether the residual transverse magnetization is in phase (coherent) or out of phase (incoherent).
False
SSFP sequences usually produce images that are ___ weighted. T1T2T2T1 or T2
T2
T/F: Parallel imaging is usually used to increase resolution or decrease scan time.
True
Which artifact is produced as a result of motion of flowing nuclei? Zipper effect Aliasing Phase ghosting Truncation
Phase ghosting
Which type of motion can we compensate for in MRI? First order laminar flowSecond order motion accelerationThird order motion jerk All of those listed can be compensated for
First order laminar flow
T/F: TOF phenomenon results in a dark vessel.
True
Which of the following effects does TOF depend on? (Select all that apply) Velocity of flowTE Slice ThicknessTR
Velocity of flowTE Slice Thickness
Choose the two main uses of spatial pre-saturation from the list below. (Select all that apply) Chemical Pre-saturationSTIRFLAIRSPIR
Chemical Pre-saturationSPIR
T/F: Counter current flow occurs when flowing nuclei are traveling in the same direction as slice selection.
False
Which of the following is/are result(s) of time of flight? (Select all that apply) Flow-related enhancement Entry slice phenomenon High velocity signal void Zipper effect
Flow-related enhancement High velocity signal void
In a dual echo sequence, which of the following combinations would result in reduced flow artifact in the second echo? TE 20 and 50 ms TE 20 and 70 ms TE 40 and 80 msTE 40 and 95 ms
TE 40 and 80 ms
What is the chemical shift at 1.5 T? 2.2 Hz22 Hz220 Hz220KHz
220Hz
T/F: STIR is most useful in post contrast imaging.
False
T/F: Even echo rephasing reduces intra-voxel dephasing.
True
T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing results in an increase in total signal amplitude from the voxel.
False
Stationary nuclei always receive both excitation and rephasing pulses, but flowing nuclei present in the slice for the excitation may have exited the slice before rephasing. This is called ______________. Time of Flight Phenomenon Entry Slice PhenomenonIntra-Voxel Dephasing Turbulent Flow Effects
Time of Flight Phenomenon
T/F: As velocity of flow decreases, the time of flight effect decreases.
True
T/F: Another term for time of flight is inflow effect.
False
Determine which of the following parameters would result in the most entry slice phenomenon (i.e. entry slice phenomenon would increase compared to the other options). Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 out of 20, 400 TR, 1.2 mm slice thicknessSlice 10 out of 20, 3000 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness Slice 10 out of 20, 400 TR, .7 mm slice thickness
Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness
T/F: Flow affects image quality.
True
The frequency difference between fat and water is called ___________ and can be used to specifically null the signal from either fat or water. Chemical Pre-Saturation Chemical Shift Precessional Frequency Even Echo Rephasing
Chemical Shift
T/F: Any tissue can be nulled as long as an RF pulse matching its precessional frequency is applied to the imaging volume before excitation.
True
T/F: Pre-saturation techniques increase the RF deposition to the patient.
True
What is another term for phase ghosting?Phase wrapPhase mismappingChemical misregistraionAliasing
Phase mismapping
What is another term for phase ghosting?Phase wrapPhase mismappingChemical misregistraionAliasing
Phase mismapping
In which direction does phase ghosting occur? (Choose all applicable)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior
Phase Axis
Which of the following are methods of reducing phase ghosting? (Choose all that apply)Using respiratory compensation techniquesDecrease the TECarefully explain the procedure to the patientSwap phase and frequencyUse pre-saturation pulsesUse “no phase wrap” software
Using respiratory compensation techniquesCarefully explain the procedure to the patientSwap phase and frequencyUse pre-saturation pulses
In which direction does aliasing occur? (Choose all that apply)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior
Phase AxisFrequency Axis
Which of the following is a remedy for aliasing?Decreasing the slice thicknessDecreasing the size of the FOVDecreasing the TEUsing “no phase wrap” software
Using “no phase wrap” software
Which of the following best describes the appearance of chemical shift artifact on an image?Extra information wraps into the imageThe cancellation of fat and water signals when they are out of phase.Banding artifact at the interfaces of high and low signal.Produces a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.
Produces a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.
In which direction does chemical shift artifact occur? (Choose all that apply)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior
Frequency Axis
What unit is used to express the amount of chemical shift?MHz Hz ppm gyromagnetic ratio
ppm
What is another name for a truncation artifact in a sagital cervical spine?TruncationGyromagnetic ArtifactGibbsFaraday
Gibbs
How can we reduce truncation? Increase the TEIncrease the TRIncrease the number of phase encoding stepsIncrease the number of frequency encoding steps
Increase the number of phase encoding steps
In which direction does truncation occur? (Choose all that apply)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior
Phase Axis
Which best describes the appearance of a zipper artifact?Distortion of the image together with large signal voids.Anatomy folded into the FOVA dense line on the image at a specific point.Tissues return a high signal intensity
A dense line on the image at a specific point.
Which best describes the appearance of a zipper artifact?Distortion of the image together with large signal voids.Anatomy folded into the FOVA dense line on the image at a specific point.Tissues return a high signal intensity
A dense line on the image at a specific point.
Which of the following is a possible cause of shading artifact?A hemorrhageA leak in the RF shielding of the scan roomSpin echo sequencesInhomogeneities in the main magnetic field
Inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field
Which of the following best describes Moire artifact?Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOVFat and water are out of phase and their signals cancel each other out.Different chemical environments of fat and water produce a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.Anatomy from outside the FOV are wrapped into the image.
Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV
T/F: To reduce chemical shift artifact, ALWAYS use the widest receive bandwidth in keeping with good SNR and the smallest FOV possible.
True
T/F: To reduce chemical shift artifact, ALWAYS use the widest receive bandwidth in keeping with good SNR and the smallest FOV possible.
True
In spin echo sequences using a pre-saturation pulse, what would persistent bright signal within the vessel indicate?Slow Flowing BloodFast Flowing BloodBlood ClotVascular Occlusion
Slow Flowing BloodBlood ClotVascular Occlusion
Which of the following best describes what the “P” wave represents?Atrial Systole (Contraction)Ventricular SystoleVentricular DiastoleNone of the above
Atrial Systole (Contraction)
Which of the following best describes what the “QRS” complex represents?Atrial Systole (Contraction)Ventricular SystoleVentricular Diastole (Relaxation)None of the above
Ventricular Systole
Which of the following best describes what the “T” wave represents?Atrial Systole (Contraction)Ventricular SystoleVentricular Diastole (Relaxation)None of the above
Ventricular Diastole (Relaxation)
Which of the following sequence(s)/technique(s) can be used to make vessels appear bright?Gradient Echo ImagingGradient Moment RephasingContrast EnhancementAll of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is used to trigger each pulse sequence when using ECG gating?P waveQ waveR waveS wave
R wave
How much does a typical patient’s heart rate vary during an exam?10- 20 %20- 30%40- 50%60- 70%
10- 20 %
If the R to R interval is 500 ms, the trigger window is 10%, and the trigger delay is 50 ms, what is the time available to acquire data?310 ms400 ms460 ms500 ms
400 ms
If the R to R interval is 500 ms, the trigger window is 10%, and the trigger delay is 50 ms, what is the time available to acquire data?310 ms400 ms460 ms500 ms
400 ms
What determines the length of the R to R interval?The technologist performing the examThe radiologist who establishes the protocolThe patient’s heart rateThe type of sequence
The patient’s heart rate
What is the waiting period before each R wave called?Trigger WindowTrigger DelayR to R IntervalAvailable Imaging Time
Trigger Window
T/F: ECG gating is prospective.
True
When using MRA to evaluate intracranial vascularity, flow within smaller vessels can best be demonstrated by:2D Time of Flight MRA3D Time of Flight MRA3D Phase Contrast MRAAll of the Above
3D Time of Flight MRA
When using MRA to evaluate intracranial vascularity, flow within smaller vessels can best be demonstrated by:2D Time of Flight MRA3D Time of Flight MRA3D Phase Contrast MRAAll of the Above
3D Time of Flight MRA
MRA techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:TOF-MRAPC-MRACE-MRACT-MRA
CT-MRA
Which of the following does NOT reduce flow motion artifact?SATECG gatingGMNSubtraction
Subtraction
Which of the following can be used to improve coverage and at the same time maintain the signal from blood flowing within the larger volume?MC-TOFPC-MRAMOTSAPhase images
MOTSA
The vascular signal, produced on time of flight MRA (TOF-MRA), relies on:MOTAPCFlow related enhancementVelocity-induced phase shifts
Flow related enhancement
The vascular signal, produced on PC-MRA, relies on:MOTAPCFlow related enhancementVelocity-induced phase shifts
Velocity-induced phase shifts
Contrast enhanced MRAs are acquired with all of the following EXCEPT:Test bolusBolus trackingVENC settingsFluoro triggering
VENC settings
Contrast enhanced MRAs are acquired with all of the following EXCEPT:Test bolusBolus trackingVENC settingsFluoro triggering
VENC settings
Multiphase images, acquired with additional modulation of magnetization, are known as:TOF-MRAPC-MRAVENCSPAMM
SPAMM
What is the available imaging time using these parameters? R to R 800 ms, trigger window 10%, delay after trigger 4 ms.688 ms700 ms716 ms800 ms
716 ms
When using MRA to evaluate peripheral vascular flow, such as that within the arteries of the legs, saturation pulses are:Placed superior to the acquired slicesPlaced in the acquired slicesPlaced inferior to the acquired slicesNot necessary
Placed inferior to the acquired slices
When using MRA to evaluate extracranial vascular flow, such as that within common carotid arteries, a recommended technique is:2D time of flight MRA3D time of flight MRA3D phase contrast MRAAll of the above
2D time of flight MRA
When using MRA to evaluate extracranial vascular flow, such as that within common carotid arteries, a recommended technique is:2D time of flight MRA3D time of flight MRA3D phase contrast MRAAll of the above
2D time of flight MRA
Magnetic field strength can be expressed in units of Tesla (T) or gauss (G), where:1 T = 1 G1.5 T = 1500 G3.0 T = 0.3 G1 T = 10 000 G
1 T = 10 000 G
The homogeneity of a magnetic field is expressed in units of:ppm (parts per million)T (Tesla)G (gauss)MHz (megaHertz)
ppm (parts per million)
The homogeneity of a magnetic field is expressed in units of:ppm (parts per million)T (Tesla)G (gauss)MHz (megaHertz)
ppm (parts per million)
Gradient strength is expressed in units of all of the following EXCEPT:w/kgmT/mG/cmT/m/s
w/kg
Gradient strength is expressed in units of all of the following EXCEPT:w/kgmT/mG/cmT/m/s
w/kg
Passive magnetic shielding can be accomplished by lining the scan room walls with:CopperLeadSteelShim plates
Steel
Fourier transform (FT) is a mathematical process that is used to convert MR signal from a FID into a spectrum. FT occurs in the:Image processorArray processorRF coilGradient amplifier
Array processor
What rule determines the direction of current flow through a coil, and the direction of the magnetic field that the current produces?The size of the magnetic fieldRight hand thumb ruleMRI Fringe Field RuleWhether you are using an open or closed configuration
Right hand thumb rule
What is the maximum field strength allowed for clinical imaging of adults in the USA?3 T4 T8 T10 T
8 T
T/F: The purpose of magnetic field shimming is to reduce the size of the fringe field.
False
What is the most common material used to make permanent magnets?TitaniumHeliumIronAlnico
Alnico
Ohm’s law states:B = k (l)V = I (R)B = H (1 x)1 T = 10 kG
V = I (R)
T/F: The law of electromagnetic induction indicates that whenever a charge particle such as an electron exhibits motion, a corresponding magnetic field is induced.
True
Which cryogen is commonly used to super cool wires in MRI?Liquid heliumNiobiumAlnicoHydrogen
Liquid helium
Which material is most commonly used to make superconducting wires?Liquid heliumNiobium-titanium alloyAlnicoHydrogen
Niobium-titanium alloy
Why do we use shimming?To apply a magnetic fieldTo make the field even or homogenousTo make the magnetic field smallerTo induce a current
To make the field even or homogenous
Select all of the following that determine the strength of an electromagnet:The amount of current passed through the windingsThe number of windings in the coilThe distance or spacing between the windingsThe diameter of the wire used in the windings
All of the above
In a typical superconducting magnet, the direction of the magnetic field is:VerticalHorizontalAround the flux linesHard to measure
Horizontal
T/F: The SNR is enhanced when using local coils.
True
T/F: The SNR is enhanced when using local coils.
True
What does BOLD stand for?Blood oxygenation level dependentBlood oxygen line developedBody oriented level dependentType of CT scanning
Blood oxygenation level dependent
Functional imaging techniques include which of the following (check all that apply)?DWIfMRISpectroscopyPerfusion imaging
All of the above
T/F: Functional imaging techniques allow MRI to be used to assess function and physiology as opposed to merely conventional structural imaging.
True
What term is used to describe the net displacement of diffusion spins across a tissue?SWI fMRIADC MRS
ADC
What is the extrinsic parameter that controls the amount of diffusion seen in an image?TRTEflip angleb factor
b factor
What signal intensity is an area of abnormality likely to have on an ADC map?HypointenseHyperintenseIsointense
Hypointense
What signal intensity is an area of abnormality likely to have on a trace image?HypointenseHyperintenseIsointense
Hyperintense
T/F: Perfusion is the regional blood flow in tissues and is defined as the volume of blood that flows into one gram of tissue.
True
Which of the following best describes a use for MR Spectroscopy (MRS)?To show ankle anatomyTo aid in brain tumor stagingTo demonstrate perfusion
To aid in brain tumor staging
T/F: Interventional MRI includes performing biopsies in the MR suite.
True
Chemical shift is measured in which of the following units?mm/sppmT/mG/cm
ppm
T/F: Perfusion is measured using MRI by tagging the fat in arterial blood during image acquisition.
False
The anatomy of white matter tracts can be mapped using strong multi-directional gradients in which of the following?SWIdiffusion tensor imaging (DTI)continuous arterial spin labeling (CASL)CBV
diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
T/F: MR microscopy (MRM) is useful as a research tool when studying detail in a very small area of tissue.
True
T/F: MR microscopy (MRM) is useful as a research tool when studying detail in a very small area of tissue.
True
T/F: Gadolinium chelates are ferromagnetic.
False
After gadolinium administration, it is recommended that which images are acquired?One T1 weighted imageOne T2 weighted imageMultiple T1 weighted imagesMultiple T2 weighted images
Multiple T1 weighted images
Enhanced MR images are evaluated for sensitivity and specificity, where sensitivity is ________ and specificity is ________.The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesionThe ability to classify the lesion/the ability to detect the lesionTE used to evaluate the lesion/TR used to evaluate the lesionTR used to evaluate the lesion/TE used to evaluate the lesion
The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesion
T/F: All gadolinium contrast agents have the same ‘relaxivity’.
False
Choose all of the following that enhancement agents can be useful in detecting.InfectionTumorsInfarctionInflammation
All of the above
On a T1 weighted pre-contrast image, fat appears _____ and water appears _____.Bright, DarkBright, BrightDark, BrightDark, Dark
Bright, Dark
T/F: Scar tissue enhances in the lumbar spine shortly after the injection of contrast.
True
T/F: Scar tissue enhances in the lumbar spine shortly after the injection of contrast.
True
Which sequence would be used to best visualize metastatic lesions in the bone?FLAIR with contrastFat saturation techniques with contrastT2 weighted sequencesNon-contrast imaging
Fat saturation techniques with contrast
T/F: Gadolinium cannot cross the intact blood-brain barrier (BBB).
True
Gadolinium element is ________ and gadolinium chelate contrast media is ________.Ferromagnetic/paramagneticFerromagnetic/ferromagneticParamagnetic/ferromagneticParamagnetic/paramagnetic
Ferromagnetic/paramagnetic
T/F: When using gadolinium, the T1 relaxation time of the water is reduced so enhancing lesions (such as tumors associated with free water) appear bright on a T1 weighted image.
True
Select all of the following that were discussed as possible MR contrast agents in the text.GadoliniumBlueberry juiceMango juiceDilute barium solutions
All of the above
An axial plane divides the body into _______ and ________ portions.Dorsal and ventralUpper and lowerFront and backRight and left
Upper and lower
In standard anatomic position, the hands and feet are:Internally RotatedPronatedDorsaflexedForward
Forward
In standard anatomic position, a sagittal plane is oriented:HorizontallyObliquelyVerticallyAxially
Vertically
Define Anterior/Ventral
Towards the front
Define Superior
Above
Define Posterior/Dorsal
Towards the back
Define Medial
Towards the midline
Define Inferior
Below
Define Lateral
Away from midline
Define Proximal
Towards the origin
Define Deep
Away from skin/surface
Define Cranial/Cephalic
Towards the head
Define Caudal
Towards the feet
Define Distal
Away from the origin
Define Superficial
Towards the skin/surface
Define Ipsilateral
On the same side
Define Plantar
Bottom of foot
Define Contralateral
On the opposite side
Define Palmar
Anterior hand
Define Costal Margin
L3
Define Symphysis Pubis
Coccyx
Define Mastoid Tip
C1
Define Umbilicus
L3/4
Define Iliac Crest
L4
Define ASIS
S1
Define Vertabra Prominens
C7
Define Jugular Notch
T2/3
Define Sternal Angle
T4/5
Most of the Stomach is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RLQLLQLUQRUQ
LUQ
Much of the SB is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RLQLLQLUQRUQ
LLQ
The appendix is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RUQRLQLLQLUQ
RLQ
The cecum is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RUQLLQRLQLUQ
RLQ
The Dorsal cavity is partitioned into what two cavities? (mark all correct)CranialPelvisSpinalMediastinalAbdominal
CranialSpinal
The elbow is _________ to the shoulder.DeepSuperficialProximalDistal
Distal
The gallbladder is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?LLQRLQRUQLUQ
RUQ
The hepatic flexture of the colon is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?LUQRUQRLQLLQ
RUQ
T/F: The kidneys are oriented deep to the muscles of the abdominal wall.
True
The lungs are located within which body cavity?All of the aboveDorsalMediastinumPleural
Pleural
The neck is ________ to the chest.CephalicInferiorCaudalPosterior
Cephalic
The right and left arms would be referred to as:IpsilateralLateralContralateralMedial
Contralateral
The sigmoid colon is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?LLQRUQRLQLUQ
LLQ
The spine is nearest what surface of the body?DorsalRostralVentralAnterior
Dorsal
The spleen is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RLQLLQRUQLUQ
LUQ
The thoracic cavity is further subdivided into what other body cavities? (choose all correct)CranialSpinalPleuralPelvisMediastinal
PleuralMediastinal
The thymus is located within which body cavity?PleuralMediastinumDorsalAll of the above
Mediastinum
The thyroid cartilage is at the level of:C3C4C2C5
C5
The Xiphoid process is at the level of:T12T10T9T11
T10
Which of the following is the largest cavity of the body?DorsalMediastinumCranialVentral
Ventral
Which of the following organs is not located within the mediastinum?None of the aboveThyroidHeartGreat Vessels
Thyroid
Which of these structures are contained within the mediastinum? (choose all correct)ThyroidEsophagusTracheaThymus
EsophagusTracheaThymus
Which of these structures are contained within the pelvic cavity? (choose all correct)OvariesGonadsKidneysRectum
OvariesGonadsRectum
A process of the malar bone joins with which bone of the cranium to form the zygomatic arch?TemporalParietalSphenoidFrontal
Temporal
Internal and external protuberances are processes of what cranial bone?SphenoidParietalEthmoidOccipital
Occipital
Structures within which portion of the ear also control equilibrium and balance?ExternalTympanic portionMiddleInner
Inner
The angle of the mandible is also known as the:GonionRamusAlveolar ProcessBody
Gonion
The bones of the cranium are joined together at immovable joints called:SinusesSuturesSpinesSphenoid
Sutures
T/F: The boney orbit is formed by several bones including the maxillae, frontal, lacrimal, and ethmoid bones.
True
The chin is also called the:GonionRamusMentumAcanthion
Mentum
The cochlea is found in which portion of the ear?InnerMiddleTympanic portionExternal
Inner
The cranium is comprised of how many bones?22814None of the above
8
The external and middle ear are separated by the:Eustachian tubeAuricleTympanic membraneEAM
Tympanic membrane
The external walls of the EAM are formed by which portion of the temporal bone?PetrousSquamousTympanicMastoid
Tympanic
The foramen ovale provides passage for which of the following?Optic NerveMandibular branch of the trigeminal nerveMaxillary NerveMiddle meningeal artery
Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve
The foramen rotundum provides passage for which of the following?Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerveMaxillary NerveMiddle meningeal arteryOptic Nerve
Maxillary Nerve
The foramen spinosum provides passage for which of the following?Maxillary NerveOptic NerveMiddle meningeal arteryMandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve
Middle meningeal artery
The jugular foramen is formed at the junctions of what two bones?Occipital and temporalSphenoid and temporalTemporal and sphenoidTemporal and parietal
Occipital and temporal
The largest immovable bones of the face are which of the following?MaxillaeMandiblePalatineZygoma
Maxillae
The mandible and maxillary bones each have which of the following processes?ZygomaticCondylarAlveolarPalatine
Alveolar
The mandibular condyle articulates with which of the following cranial bones?OccipitalFrontalTemporalParietal
Temporal
The mastoid air cells are found in which of the following cranial bones?TemporalOccipitalSphenoidEthmoid
Temporal
The middle and inner ear are formed by which portion of the temporal bones?SquamousPetrousMastoidTympanic
Petrous
The most superior point of the junction of what two bones is referred to as the vertex of the skull?TemporalParietalSphenoidFrontal
Parietal
The optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery pass through the optic canals in which cranial bone?ParietalSphenoidOccipitalEthmoid
Sphenoid
The perpendicular plate of what bone forms the superior portion of the nasal septum?SphenoidEthmoidPalatineVomer
Ethmoid
The perpendicular plate articulates with which bone to form the boney nasal septum?OccipitalEthmoidVomerSphenoid
Vomer
The posterior portion of the sella turcica is called the:Dorsum SellaeStyloid ProcessGreater wingsTuberculum Sellae
Dorsum Sellae
The sphenoid sinus is located below which aspect of the sphenoid bone?Optic CanalSella turcicaLesser wingGreater wing
Sella turcica
The zygomatic process extends from which portion of the temporal bone?PetrousSquamousTympanicMastoid
Squamous
What single cranial bone articulated with all other cranial bones?OccipitalEthmoidParietalSphenoid
Sphenoid
Which aspect of the ear contains the auditory ausicles?InnerExternalMiddleAuricular portion
Middle
Which boney process within the cranium contains the pituitary gland?Sella TurcicaSphenoid sinusForamen magnumDorsum Sellae
Sella Turcica
Which of the following is not a process of the Ethmoid bone?Inferior nasal conchaeSuperior nasal conchaeMiddle nasal conchaeCribriform plate
Inferior nasal conchae
Which of the following is a process of the sphenoid bone? (choose all correct)Sella TurcicaTuberculum SellaeLesser wingsGreater wings
All of the above
Which of the following is the largest of the facial bones?MaxillaFrontalZygomaMandible
Mandible
Which of the paranasal sinuses is present at birth?SphenoidFrontalEthmoidMaxillary
Maxillary
Which of the sinuses is the largest?FrontalEthmoidMaxillarySphenoid
Maxillary
Which portion of the temporal bone is considered the thickest boney aspect of the cranium?TympanicMastoidSquamousPetrous
Petrous
All of the venous pathways in the brain ultimately drain into which major vessels of the neck?Internal jugular veinsCommon carotid arteriesInternal carotid arteriesVertebral arteries
Internal jugular veins
Blood is supplied to the Circle of Willis by way of which of the following? (mark all correct)Basilar arteryCommunicating arteriesInternal CarotidsCerebral arteries
Basilar arteryInternal Carotids
The basilar artery is formed by the union of what two arteries?Communicating arteriesVertebralsInternal carotidsCerebral arteries
Vertebrals
The cerebellum communicates with other aspects of the brain by way of which of the following?All of the aboveTentoriumPedunclesVermis
Peduncles
The cerebral aqueduct of the ventricular system is a passage way for: which of the following?CSFVenous bloodArterial bloodMyelinated axon bodies
CSF
The cerebrum is connected medially by which of the following structures?VermisInsulaMidbrainCorpus Callosum
Corpus Callosum
The fold of the dura mater extending into the longitudinal fissure is termed the:Falx CerebelliInferior Sagittal SinusSuperior Sagittal SinusFalx Cerebri
Falx Cerebri
The folds of the brain’s surface may be referred to as:SinusesFissuresSulciGyri
Gyri
The lobes of the cerebellum are connected medially by which of the following structures?VermisCorpus CallosumInsulaMidbrain
Vermis
The lobes of the cerebellum are connected medially by way of the:Cerebral CortexInsulaVermisCorpus Callosum
Vermis
The longitudinal fissure separates which aspects of the brain?Cerebral and CerebellarRight and Left Cerebral LobesTemporal and Parietal LobesFrontal and Parietal
Right and Left Cerebral Lobes
The most posterior aspect of the cerebrum is the:DiencephalonBrainstemCerebellumOccipital lobe
Occipital lobe
The pineal gland is the most important feature of which aspect of the diencephalon?HypothalamusThalamusPituitary glandEpithalamus
Epithalamus
The pituitary gland is attached by the infundibulum to what other feature of the diencephalon?ThalamusEpithalamusPituitary glandHypothalamus
Hypothalamus
The pre-central and post-central gyri are adjacent to which fissure of the brain?Longitudinal FissureInterhemispheric FissureLateral FissureCentral Fissure
Central Fissure
The sigmoid sinus is an extension of what vein in the brain?Sigmoid sinusStraight sinusInferior sagittal sinusTransverse sinus
Transverse sinus
The space outside of the dura mater is termed the:Cisterna magnaSubdural spaceSubarachnoid spaceEpidural space
Epidural space
The subarachnoid space is between which meninges?Pia and duraArachnoid and piaDura and arachnoid
Arachnoid and pia
The subdural space is between which layers of the meninges?Dura and arachnoidPia and duraArachnoid and pia
Dura and arachnoid
The superior sagittal sinus continues as what venous pathway in the brain?Inferior sagittal sinusTransverse sinusStraight sinusSigmoid sinus
Transverse sinus
The trigone is a feature of which CSF reservoir?Lateral ventriclesFourth ventricleThird ventricleSuperior Sagittal Sinus
Lateral ventricles
Through which aspect of the brainstem does the cerebral aqueduct transverse?Mid brainPonsNone of the aboveMedulla oblongata
Mid brain
What fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe?Lateral FissureRolandic FissureLongitudinal FissureCentral Fissure
Lateral Fissure
What fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain?Central FissureLongitudinal FissureLateral FissureInterhemispheric Fissure
Central Fissure
Which aspect of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord?Mid brainNone of the abovePonsMedulla oblongata
Medulla oblongata
Which aspect of the diencephalon is considered the master endocrine gland?ThalamusEpithalamusPituitary glandHypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Which aspect of the diencephalon helps to form the lateral walls of the third ventricles?Pituitary glandThalamusEpithalamusHypothalamus
Thalamus
Which aspect of the ventricular system is positioned between the lobes of the thalamus?Fourth ventricleLateral ventriclesSuperior Sagittal SinusThird ventricle
Third ventricle
Which aspect of the ventricular system is shaped like a diamond?Fourth ventricleLateral ventriclesSuperior Sagittal SinusThird ventricle
Fourth ventricle
Which CSF passage allows for communication between the lateral and third ventricles?Cerebral aqueductForamen of LuschkaInterventricular foramenForamen of Magendie
Interventricular foramen
Which fold of the dura mater divides the two lobes of the cerebellum?Falx cerebrumFalx cerebelliTentoriumDiaphragma sellae
Falx cerebelli
Which fold of the dura mater divides the right and left halves of the cerebrum?Diaphragma sellaeTentoriumFalx cerebrumFalx cerebelli
Falx cerebrum
Which fold of the dura mater covers the pituitary gland?Falx cerebrumDiaphragma sellaeFalx cerebelliTentorium
Diaphragma sellae
Which fold of the dura mater separates the cerebrum and cerebellum?TentoriumFalx cerebelliFalx cerebrumDiaphragma sellae
Tentorium
Which of the following is the largest aspect of the brain?CerebrumDiencephalonBrainstemCerebellum
Cerebrum
Which of the following vessels circulate blood from the Circle of Willis into the brain?Cerebral arteriesBasilar arteryInternal carotidsCommunicating arteries
Cerebral arteries
Which of the following arteries circulate blood around the major vessels of the Circle of Willis?Internal carotidsCerebral arteriesCommunicating arteriesBasilar artery
Communicating arteries
Which of the following veins does not directly connect to the Confluence of Sinuses?Straight sinusSigmoid sinusInferior sagittal sinusTransverse sinus
Sigmoid sinus
Which of the following is not an aspect of the cerebrum?InsulaCerebral CortexCorpus CallosumVermis
Vermis
Which of the following is not composed of white brain matter?Myelinated AxonsCerebral cortexNone of the aboveCorpus Callosum
Cerebral cortex
Which of the following is the most inferior aspect of the brainstem?None of the aboveMid brainPonsMedulla oblongata
Medulla oblongata
Which of the following houses most of the thalamus?Mid brainPonsMedulla oblongataNone of the above
None of the above
Which of the following allows for CSF communication between the third and fourth ventricles?Foramen of LuschkaCerebral aqueductForamen of MagendieInterventricular foramen
Cerebral aqueduct
Which of the following connects the ventricular system to the subarachnoid space?Cerebral aqueductInterventricular foramenForamen of MagendieForamen of Luschka
Foramen of Luschka
Which of the following is the largest aperture connection the 4th ventricle to the basal cisterns and central canal of the spinal cord?Interventricular foramenForamen of LuschkaCerebral aqueductForamen of Magendie
Foramen of Magendie
Which of the following structure is responsible for producing CSF?VentriclesBasal cisternsChoroid plexusMeninges
Choroid plexus
Which of the meninges attaches directly to the surface of the brain?ArachnoidAll of the abovePia materDura mater
Pia mater
Which portion of the brainstem is identifiable as a prominent bulge near the center of the brain?None of the aboveMedulla oblongataPonsMid brain
Pons
Widened areas of the subarachnoid space are referred to as:MeningesBasal cisternsChoroid plexusVentricles
Basal cisterns
T/F: All vertebrae of the cervical spine share the same characteristic features.
False
An abnormal forward curvature of the thoracic spine is termed:KyphosisHypnosisPrognosisLordosis
Kyphosis
An exaggerated curve of the lumbar spine is termed:ScoliosisHunchbackKyphosisLordosis
Lordosis
Costo-vertebral joints are a feature unique to which aspect of the vertebral column?CervicalLumbarSacralThoracic
Thoracic
How many vertebra of the spine are movable?24302333
24
Spinal nerves exit the vertebral column via what feature of the spine?Transverse foraminaSpinal canalVertebral canalIntervertebral foramina
Intervertebral foramina
T/F: The 2nd cervical vertebra has both an anterior arch and a posterior arch.
False
The anterior projections of the gray matter within the spinal cord continue outside of the cord as which of the following?Dorsal nerve rootsWhite matterVentral nerve rootsGanglia
Ventral nerve roots
The dens is a feature of which cervical vertebra?C7C1C2C6
C2
T/F: The external borders of the spinal cord are composes of white matter.
True
T/F: The fluid-filled outer ring of the intervertebral discs is termed the nucleus pulpous.
False
T/F: The lateral masses of C1 bear the weight of the head.
True
The nerve bundles extending from the distal end of the spinal cord are termed the:Cauda equinaConus medullarisSella TurcicaMedulla oblongata
Cauda equina
The semispinalis muscles belong to which of the following muscle groups?Splenius musclesTransversospinal musclesPsoas musclesErector spinae muscles
Splenius muscles
The spinal cord continues from what other feature of the CNS?Sella TurcicaConus medullarisCauda equinaMedulla oblongata
Medulla oblongata
The spinal cord ends at the level of which vertebra?C1S1T1L1
L1
The terminal end of the spinal cord is described by which of the following?Sella TurcicaConus medullarisCauda equinaMedulla oblongata
Conus medullaris
The transverse foramina are a pathway for which of the following?Jugular veinsVertebral arteriesSpinal cordSpinal nerves
Vertebral arteries
The vertebral column is composed of how many vertebrae?24332330
33
Which of the following aspects of the spine have a normal kyphotic curve? (choose all correct)LumbarSacrumThoracicCervical
SacrumThoracic
Which of the following lacks a typical vertebral body?C1C7C2C6
C1
Which of the following lacks a bifid spinous process? (Choose all correct answers)C7C1C6C2
C7C1
Which of the following is used a as landmark dividing the abdominal and pelvic cavities?Sacral hiatusLateral massesSacral ForaminaSacral promontory
Sacral promontory
Which of the following is also known as the ala?Lateral massesSacral hiatusSacral ForaminaSacral promontory
Lateral masses
Which of the following describes the large opening on the inferior aspect of the sacrum?Sacral ForaminaLateral massesSacral hiatusSacral promontory
Sacral hiatus
Which of the following is formed within the transverse processes of the sacral vertebrae?Sacral hiatusSacral promontoryLateral massesSI Joint
Lateral masses
Which of the following cavities is not filled by CSF?None of the aboveSubdural spaceSubarachnoid spaceCentral canal
Subdural space
Which of the following is a direct extension of the ventricular system of the brain?None of the aboveCentral canalSubdural spaceEpidural space
Central canal
Which of the following is accessed and injected with contrast for a myelogram?Central canalNone of the aboveSubarachnoid spaceSubdural space
Subarachnoid space
Which of the following is accessed during an epidural to inject anesthetic agents?Central canalSubarachnoid spaceSubdural spaceNone of the above
None of the above
Which of the following terms refers to the lateral aspects of the vertebral arch to which the vertebral body attaches?Articular FacetsPedicleTransverse processLamina
Pedicle
Which of the following muscle groups are the chief extends of the entire spine?Psoas musclesSplenius musclesTransversospinal musclesErector spinae muscles
Erector spinae muscles
Which of the following muscle groups extend from the cervical vertebrae through the upper thoracic spine?Erector spinae musclesSplenius musclesPsoas musclesTransversospinal muscles
Splenius muscles
Which of the following muscle groups attach between the spinous processes and transverse processes of different vertebrae?Erector spinae musclesSplenius musclesPsoas musclesTransversospinal muscles
Transversospinal muscles
Which of the following terms refers to the most lateral appendages of a typical vertebra?Transverse processPedicleArticular FacetsLamina
Transverse process
Which of the following terms refers to the most posterior aspect of the neural arch?Articular FacetsTransverse processLaminaPedicle
Lamina
Which of the following is an insertion site for the transversospinal muscles of the vertebral column?PedicleArticular FacetsTransverse processLamina
Transverse process
Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only cervical vertebrae?Large vertebral bodiesFused transverse processesTransverse foraminaFacets and demi-facets
Transverse foramina
Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only thoracic vertebrae?Facets and demi-facetsFused transverse processesTransverse foraminaLarge vertebral bodies
Facets and demi-facets
Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only lumbar vertebrae?Large vertebral bodiesTransverse foraminaFacets and demi-facetsFused transverse processes
Large vertebral bodies
Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only sacral vertebrae?Facets and demi-facetsLarge vertebral bodiesFused transverse processesTransverse foramina
Fused transverse processes
Which vertebral ligament runs along the ventral surface of the vertebral column?Posterior longitudinal ligamentLigamentum flavumAnterior longitudinal ligamentInterspinous ligament
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Which vertebral ligament attaches between the lamina of adjoining vertebrae?Interspinous ligamentPosterior longitudinal ligamentLigamentum flavumAnterior longitudinal ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Which vertebral ligament covers the dorsal surface of the vertebral bodies of the spine?Posterior longitudinal ligamentAnterior longitudinal ligamentLigamentum flavumInterspinous ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Which vertebral ligament can be seen on sagittal imaging extending between the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae?Posterior longitudinal ligamentAnterior longitudinal ligamentInterspinous ligamentLigamentum flavum
Interspinous ligament
A thoracic vertebra may be identified as it has which of the following?Costal facetsLarge vertebral bodyAll of the aboveTransverse foramina
Costal facets
The first _______ ribs are considered true ribs.EightSixSevenFive
Seven
Which of the following statements describes the 8th, 9th, and 10th ribs?They are fused together by costal cartilageThey do not attach to the sternumThey are considered floating ribsAll of the above
They are fused together by costal cartilage
Which aspect of the sternum is visualized on an axial image displaying the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum?ManubriumXiphoid processAny of the aboveBody
Manubrium
The large projection on the posterior surface of the scapula dividing it into upper and lower fossae is termed the:Coracoid processScapular spineGlenoid fossaAcromion process
Scapular spine
Which aspect of the scapula articulates which the clavicle?Scapular spineGlenoid fossaAcromion processCoracoid process
Acromion process
Which aspect of the scapula articulates with the humeral head?Coracoid processAcromion processGlenoid fossaScapular spine
Glenoid fossa
Which of the following terms describes the posterior-lateral beaklike projection of the scapulae?Coracoid processGlenoid fossaScapular spineAcromion process
Coracoid process
Posteriorly the trachea is in contact with which structure of the mediastinum?Thyroid tissueCarotid arteriesLarynxEsophagus
Esophagus
Anteriorly, the trachea is covered by which of the following structures?Carotid arteriesEsophagusLarynxThyroid tissue
Thyroid tissue
The trachea begins at what level of the spine?T6T12C6T1
C6
Which primary bronchus is longer?LeftRight
Left
Which primary bronchus has a greater diameter?LeftRight
Right
Which primary bronchus divides into three braches?LeftRight
Right
Which primary bronchus has an eparterial branch?RightLeft
Right
Which primary bronchus is directed more inferiorly than laterally?RightLeft
Right
The superior aspect of the lungs are grossly termed the:Diaphragmatic surfaceMediastinal surfaceBaseApex
Apex
The most lateral aspect of the lung base may be described as which of the following?Lung rootCosto-phrenic anglesHilumCostal surface
Costo-phrenic angles
The most medial aspect of the lungs’ surface is termed the: (choose all correct)Costo-phrenic anglesLung rootHilumCostal surface
Lung rootHilum
Which of the following terms are essentially synonymous? (choose all correct)Costal surfaceLung rootHilumCosto-phrenic angles
Lung rootHilum
Which lobe of the left lung comprises most of that lungs anterior surface?SuperiorMiddleAny of the aboveInferior
Superior
Which lobe of the left lung constitutes almost the entire lung base?SuperiorInferiorAny of the aboveMiddle
Inferior
Which lobe of the left lung comprises most of that lungs mediastinal surface?SuperiorInferiorAny of the aboveMiddle
Superior
The left lung has how many fissures?ThreeTwoOne
One
The right lung has how many lobes?ThreeTwoOne
Three
The lungs are connected to the mediastinum via what structure?Mediastinal pleuraLung rootsInterlobular fissuresVisceral pleura
Lung roots
Which of the following describes the anatomical unit of the lungs?LobesAlveoliPrimary lobulesSecondary lobules
Primary lobules
The last airway passage in the bronchial tree is which of the following?Secondary bronchiAlveolar ductsLobular bronchiPrimary bronchi
Alveolar ducts
Which of the following terms is also termed tertiary bronchi?Secondary bronchiLobular bronchiAlveolar ductsPrimary bronchi
Lobular bronchi
Which of the following is formed at the carina?Secondary bronchiLobular bronchiAlveolar ductsPrimary bronchi
Primary bronchi
Which of the following supplies blood to the lungs?Pulmonary arteriesAortaPulmonary veinsCoronary arteries
Pulmonary arteries
Which of the following carries deoxygenated blood?Pulmonary veinsPulmonary arteriesAortaCoronary arteries
Pulmonary arteries
Which of the following emptied blood into the left atrium?Coronary arteriesPulmonary arteriesPulmonary veinsAorta
Pulmonary veins
Which of the following arises from the right ventricle?Pulmonary veinsPulmonary arteriesAortaCoronary arteries
Pulmonary arteries
Which of the following arises from the left ventricle?AortaPulmonary veinsCoronary arteriesPulmonary arteries
Aorta
Which of the following supplies arterial blood to the myocardium?Pulmonary arteriesAortaPulmonary veinsCoronary arteries
Coronary arteries
The primary pulmonary veins are how many in number?FourTwoThree
Four
Which of the following directs blood from the lungs into the heart?Coronary arteriesPulmonary arteriesAortaPulmonary veins
Pulmonary veins
Which of the following supplies blood to the majority of the body?AortaCoronary arteriesPulmonary veinsPulmonary arteries
Aorta
Which of the following is a fibrous tissue lining the inner walls of the hearts chambers?MyocardiumEpicardiumEndocardiumPericardium
Endocardium
Which of the following is the visceral layer of the heart’s serous membrane?EndocardiumEpicardiumPericardiumMyocardium
Epicardium
Which of the following refers to the heart muscle?MyocardiumEpicardiumEndocardium
Myocardium
Deoxygenated blood is emptied into which chamber of the heart?Right VentricleRight AtriumLeft VentricleLeft Atrium
Right Atrium
Deoxygenated blood leaves the heart via what chamber?Right AtriumRight VentricleLeft AtriumLeft Ventricle
Right Ventricle
The coronary arteries extend from what large vessel of the heart?Superior Vena CavaAortaAzygos VeinPulmonary arteries
Aorta
Which of the following is a branch of the left main coronary artery?CircumflexNone of the aboveRight anterior descendingRight main
Circumflex
T/F: The coronary veins drain into the coronary sinus and ultimately into the right atrium.
True
Which of the following is the first branch of the aorta?Brachiocephalic trunkRight common carotidLeft subclavianRight subclavian
Brachiocephalic trunk
The SVC is formed by the joining of which of the following vessels? (choose all correct)IVCAzygos veinLeft brachiocephalic veinRight brachiocephalic vein
Left brachiocephalic veinRight brachiocephalic vein
Which of the following is the chief venous pathway of the trunk and lower body?Right brachiocephalic veinIVCLeft brachiocephalic veinAzygos vein
IVC
Which of the following drains blood from the posterior thorax and abdomen?Right brachiocephalic veinAzygos veinLeft brachiocephalic veinIVC
Azygos vein
Which of these muscles marks the division between the chest and abdominal cavities?DiaphragmQuadratus lumborumIliacPsoas
Diaphragm
Which of the muscles is visualized on the posterior of the abdominal cavity? (select all correct)DiaphragmPsoasQuadratus lumborumIliac
PsoasQuadratus lumborum
The peritoneum is a:Serous MembraneMuscleOrganVessel
Serous Membrane
Which of the following is not a retroperitoneal structure?IVCUretersKidneysTransverse colon
Transverse colon
Which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure? (choose all correct)Small bowelSpleenAscending colonAorta
Ascending colonAorta
The omentum is attaches to which of the following structures?StomachSmall bowelLarge bowelLiver
Stomach
The mesentery is primary attached to which of the following structures?LiverStomachSmall bowelLarge bowel
Small bowel
Which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure?DuodenumIleumJejunumAll of the above
Duodenum
Which of the following is the largest lobe of the liver?LeftRightCaudateQuadrate
Right
Blood from the splenic and mesenteric veins is first directed to the:SVCPortal veinAortaIVC
Portal vein
Arterial blood to the liver is provided by a branch of what artery?Celiac TrunkIMASMA
Celiac Trunk
Which of the following organs helps to produce antibodies?PancreasKidneysLiverSpleen
Spleen
Insulin and glucagon are products of which of the following organs?LiverKidneysSpleenPancreas
Pancreas
The hepatic artery shares a common trunk with which of the following vessels?SMASplenic arteryIMARenal arteries
Splenic artery
The portal vein is formed by the confluence of which of the following vessels? (Choose all correct)Splenic veinSMVIMVRenal veins
Splenic veinSMVIMV
What aspect of the SB is related to the head of the pancreas?JejunumIleumDuodenum
Duodenum
Gerota’s fascia surrounds which of these organs?Small bowelSpleenKidneysPancreas
Kidneys
Which of the following vessels is visualized on the posterior surface of the pancreas?Left gastric arterySMASplenic arteryHepatic artery
Splenic artery
Which of the following in not a branch of the celiac truck?SMASplenic arteryHepatic arteryLeft gastric artery
SMA
Which kidney is usually positioned higher than the other?LeftRight
Left
Renal pyramids are apparent in which aspect of the kidney?UretersMedullaCollecting systemCortex
Medulla
The major calyces are formed by which of the following?Renal pelvisMinor calycesUretersRenal cortex
Minor calyces
The kidneys receive oxygenated blood via what vessel?IMASMASplenic ArteryNone of the above
None of the above
Generally, the most superior structure of the renal hilum is the:UreterAny of the aboveRenal veinRenal artery
Renal artery
The adrenal glands are visualized in relation to what other structures of the abdomen?Small bowelPancreasSpleenKidneys
Kidneys
Which of the following is the most superior aspect of the stomach?AntrumPylorusCardiaFundus
Fundus
Which of the following marks the beginning of the distal stomach?CardiaAntrumFundusPylorus
Antrum
Which of these continues as the duodenum?CardiaFundusAntrumPylorus
Pylorus
Which of these structures describes the junction of the stomach and the esophagus?PylorusCardiaAntrumFundus
Cardia
Which of the major braches of the aorta feed the stomach?SMACeliac TrunkIMAAll of the above
Celiac Trunk
The renal arteries extend form what structure?IVCAortaRenal pelvis
Aorta
The SB receives arterial blood from what branch of the aorta?SMACeliac TrunkIMAAll of the above
SMA
The descending colon is visualized in what portion of the abdomen?RightLeftCentralNone of the above
Left
Which of the following continues as the sigmoid colon?Transverse colonAscending colonDescending colonCecum
Descending colon
Which of these is found between the hepatic and splenic flextures?Transverse colonAscending colonDescending colonCecum
Transverse colon
The appendix extends from what portion of the colon?Ascending colonDescending colonCecumTransverse colon
Cecum
Which of these is the only portion of the colon that is peritoneal?CecumTransverse colonAscending colonDescending colon
Transverse colon
Most venous blood from the lower abdomen travel back to the heart via what vessel?SVCPortal veinAortaIVC
IVC
The aorta bifurcates at what level?None of the aboveT12DiaphragmUmbilicus
Umbilicus
The crus, covering the aorta, are an extension of what structure?IVCLungsDiaphragmPeritoneum
Diaphragm
The right sided branch of the celiac trunk is which of the following?Left gastricHepatic arterySplenic arterySMA
Hepatic artery
Which of the follow list in order from superior to inferior the major branches of the abdominal aorta:Celiac Trunk, SMA, IMA, Renal ArteriesCeliac Trunk, SMA, Renal Arteries, IMASMA, IMA, Celiac Trunk, Renal ArteriesCeliac Trunk, Renal Arteries, SMA, IMA
Celiac Trunk, SMA, Renal Arteries, IMA
The whitish opaque portion of the eye is termed the:ScleraCorneaLensConjunctiva
Sclera
The transparent anterior bulge of the bulbus oculi is termed the:ConjunctivaLensScleraCornea
Cornea
The thin membrane protected the anterior portion of the eye is termed the:ScleraLensConjunctivaCornea
Conjunctiva
The structure responsible for directing light onto the retina is termed:ConjunctivaLensCorneaSclera
Lens
T/F: The large nerve exiting the eye is termed the ophthalmic nerve.
False
The ophthalmic artery is a direct branch of which of the following vessels?Common carotidInternal carotidInternal jugularExternal carotid
Internal carotid
Which of the following is not a salivary gland?ParotidSubmandibularParathyroidSublingual
Parathyroid
Which of the following vessels typically arises directly from the aortic arch?Right common carotidBasilarLeft common carotidVertebral
Left common carotid
The parotid glands are oriented posterior to what aspect of the mandible?None of the aboveBodyMentumRamus
Ramus
The submandibular glands are located medially to what aspect of the mandible?RamusBodyNone of the aboveMentum
Body
Which of the following glands are positioned directly below the tongue?ParotidSublingualLacrimalSubmandibular
Sublingual
Each common carotid artery bifurcated into internal and external carotid arteries at the level of the:Jugular notchEAMForamen magnumThyroid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Which of the following vessels do not enter the skull?None of the aboveExternal CarotidVertebralsInternal Carotid
External Carotid
Which of the following vessel pairs ultimately merge and form the basilar artery?Internal CarotidsExternal CarotidsVertebralsInternal Jugulars
Vertebrals
Which of the following vessels supply blood to the face and scalp?External CarotidsInternal JugularsVertebralsInternal Carotids
External Carotids
Which of the following does not help supply blood to the Circle of Willis?Internal CarotidsExternal CarotidsNone of the aboveVertebrals
External Carotids
T/F: The vertebral arteries pass through the vertebral foramina of the cervical spine on the way to the cranium.
False
T/F: If it weren’t for your awesome instructor you wouldn’t love cross sectional anatomy nearly as much as you do now.
True
The basilar artery is formed at the level of which of the following structure?Thyroid cartilageEAMJugular notchForamen magnum
Foramen magnum
T/F: The anterior and external jugular veins usually drain superficial areas such as the face and scalp.
True
What structure marks the beginning of the lower respiratory system?LarynxOropharynxNasopharynxNone of the above
Larynx
The most inferior portion of the pharynx is the:None of the aboveNasopharynxLaryngopharynxOropharynx
Laryngopharynx
Which of the following is the lower border of the oropharynx?EpiglottisSoft palateThyroid cartilagePalatine tonsils
Epiglottis
The thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, and the epiglottis are all structures of the:EsophagusOropharynxTracheaLarynx
Larynx
Which of the following structures marks the transition of the larynx into the trachea?Cricoid cartilageEpiglottisSoft palateThyroid cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
Which aspect of the larynx covers the trachea during swallowing?Soft palateEpiglottisCricoid cartilageThyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Which structure is positioned closest to the spine?EsophagusTrachea
Esophagus
The trachea bifurcates into the right and left mainstem bronchi at what spinal level?T10-T11T2-T3T4-T5C7-T1
T4-T5
Which of the following marks the superior margin of the pelvis?Quadratus lumborumIliac bonesAbdominal musclesSacral Prominens
Sacral Prominens
Which of the following defines the anterior border of the pelvis?Abdominal musclesSacral ProminensIliac bonesQuadratus lumborum
Abdominal muscles
Which of the following is least likely to be identified in the pelvis?JejunumDuodenumCecumIleum
Duodenum
Which of the following may be found in the pelvis but not in the abdomen?GI tractUrinary systemPeritoneumReproductive organs
Reproductive organs
T/F: The appendix extends from the cecum.
True
What term describes the s-shaped portion of the large bowl in the LLQ?Descending colonSigmoid colonRectumAnus
Sigmoid colon
What term describes the last segment of the GI tract?Descending colonRectumSigmoid colonAnus
Rectum
T/F: The appendix is always found directly behind the cecum at the level of S1.
False
Which of the following describes an organ with thin muscular walls located on the anterior abdominal wall?ProstateUterusRectumBladder
Bladder
Which of the following is the most posterior structure in the male pelvis?Iliac musclesUterusProstateRectum
Rectum
Which of the following structures is sometime situated above and behind the bladder?RectumIliac musclesUterusProstate
Uterus
Which of the following may be found below and behind the urinary bladder?RectumProstateUterusIliac muscles
Prostate
Which of the following describes the most anterior structure of the female pelvis?RectumBladderProstateUterus
Bladder
Which of the following describes a sac-like organ with variable appearance and orientation located in the center of the pelvic floor?BladderUterusRectumProstate
Uterus
The ureters joint to the bladder on which of its surfaces?InferiorAnteriorSuperiorPosterior
Posterior
The ph of the fluid secreted by the prostate is acidic or alkaline?AlkalineAcidic
Alkaline
The urethra in males passes through which of these organs?ProstateUterusRectumIliac muscles
Prostate
T/F: The uterus appears as the same shape and same orientation in all women.
False
During menstruation the walls of the uterus may appear thicker or thinner usual?ThickerThinner
Thicker
T/F: During ovulation the ovaries decrease in size.
False
The most superior bone of the pelvic bone is the:IliumIschiumPubis
Ilium
The most anterior bone of the pelvic bone is the:PubisIschiumIlium
Pubis
Which of the following does not form the rami of the obturator foramen?PubisIliumIschium
Ilium
Which of the following forms the wings attaching to the sacrum?PubisIliumIschium
Ilium
Which of the following bones joint at the acetabulum? (select all correct)IliumIschiumPubis
All of the above
Which of the following bone forms an uncomfortable tuberosity on your posterior?IliumPubisIschium
Ischium
The aorta bifurcates into which of the following at the level of L4?Common femoral arteriesInternal iliac arteriesIVCCommon iliac arteries
Common iliac arteries
The confluence of the common iliac veins forms which of the following?Common iliac arteriesIVCCommon femoral arteriesInternal iliac arteries
IVC
As it passes behind the inguinal ligament, the external iliac artery becomes which of the following?Common iliac arteriesIVCInternal iliac arteriesCommon femoral arteries
Common femoral arteries
Which of these terms specifically describes a cancerous tumor?AbscessMalignantNeoplasmBenign
Malignant
T/F: Imaging studies alone always allow for differentiation between benign and malignant neoplasms.
False
Which of these conditions appears as inflammation in the bowel?ColitisAbscessCancerAscites
Colitis
Which of the following is the most common primary cancer?ProstateLungColorectalBreast
Prostate
What term describes a cancer in one organ/tissue but originated from a different organ/tissue?Metastatic neoplasmPrimary cancerBenign neoplasmMalignant neoplasm
Metastatic neoplasm
T/F: The terms inflammation and infection are synonymous.
False
Define Ascites
The condition of pathological fluid collection within the abdominal cavity
Define Abscess
A localized collection of infection in any part of the body
Define Hematoma
A collection of blood, usually clotted, outside of a blood vessel
Define Colitis
inflammation of the colon
Which of these pathologic processes is most likely to be associated with hepatitis or malignancy?AscitesCystsAbscessHematoma
Ascites
Which of these conditions might appear as a walled cavity filled with infected fluid, blood, and sometimes air?HematomaAscitesInflammationAbscess
Abscess
Which of these conditions appears as excessive fluid inside the abdomen but outside of the GI tract?Ascites AbscessColitisInflammation
Ascite
Which of these conditions may be further categorized as infectious, ulcerative, or ischemic?CystsAbscessColitisCancer
Colitis
Which of the following is a common cause of cancer? (choose all correct)RadiationImmune conditionsInherited mutationsChemicals
All of the above
Define Organ Laceration
A tear in the body of an organ that results in bleeding
Define Organ Infarct
Tissue deprived of blood supply
Define Cyst
An abnormal, a sac-like structure usually containing a gaseous, liquid or semisolid substance
Define Aneurysm
An abnormal widening or ballooning of a portion of an artery
Which of these conditions describes a blood vessel partitioned by an intimal flap into a true and false lumen?CystDissecting AneurysmAneurysmAbscess
Dissecting Aneurysm
An organ infarct may be linked to which of the following? (choose all correct)LacerationStenosisEmboliDissection
All of the above
Which of the following is a kind of organ infarct? (Choose all correct)MIAscitesTIA/CVAMalignancy
MITIA/CVA
Which of these conditions appears in imaging as tissue ischemia and/or areas of poor contrast perfusion?MalignancyAbscessAneurysmInfarct
Infarct
Which of these skull fractures is least likely to require intervention?Linear skull fracturePing-pong fractureBasilar skull fractureDepressed skull fracture
Linear skull fracture
What is the most significant complication often associated with a depressed skull fracture?All of the aboveEpidural hemorrhageCSF leakingDural tearing
Epidural hemorrhage
Which of these fractures are most likely to result in CSF leakage? (choose all correct)Diastatic fracturePing-pong fractureDepressed skull fractureBasilar skull fracture
Diastatic fractureBasilar skull fracture
Which of these fractures are most likely to affect children? (choose all correct)Diastatic fractureDepressed skull fractureBasilar skull fracturePing-pong fracture
Diastatic fracturePing-pong fracture
Which of these fractures is most likely to be comminuted?Basilar skull fracturePing-pong fractureDiastatic fractureDepressed skull fracture
Depressed skull fracture
Which of these fractures occur only along suture lines?Diastatic fractureBasilar skull fracturePing-pong fractureDepressed skull fracture
Diastatic fracture
Which of these fractures is comparable to a green stick fracture in long bones?Basilar skull fractureDepressed skull fracturePing-pong fractureDiastatic fracture
Ping-pong fracture
Which of these fractures is least likely to cause boney protrusion into the cranium?Ping-pong fractureNone of these fractures intrude into the cranium.Linear skull fractureDepressed skull fracture
Linear skull fracture
Which of the following is considered the most serious linear skull fracture?Diastatic fractureBasilar skull fractureDepressed skull fracturePing-pong fracture
Basilar skull fracture
Which of these areas are usually affected in a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture? (choose all correct)Nasal bonesZygomatic archOrbital wallMaxillary sinus
Zygomatic archOrbital wallMaxillary sinus
Which of these fractures is associated with a floating face?LeFort fracturesZygomaticomaxillary complex fracturesBlow-out fracturesNasal fractures
LeFort fractures
Which of these are common complications associated with zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures? (Choose all correct)Blood in the maxillary sinus“Floating face”Ocular injuriesDural tearing
Blood in the maxillary sinusOcular injuries
Which of these fractures may result in injury to the maxillary sinus? (choose all correct)Mandibular fractureZygomaticomaxillary complex fracturesNasal fracturesBlow-out fractures
Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracturesBlow-out fractures
Which of these fractures follows the “ring rule”?Blow-out fracturesNasal fracturesMandibular fracturesZygomaticomaxillary complex fractures
Mandibular fractures
Which of these fractures is most often related to a blow to the orbit?Nasal fracturesZygomaticomaxillary complex fracturesLeFort fracturesBlow-out fractures
Blow-out fractures
Which of these injuries can sometime be associated with more serious injuries to the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses?Nasal fracturesZygomaticomaxillary complex fracturesBlow-out fracturesLeFort fractures
Nasal fractures
Which of these conditions may result in or contribute to dental abscess formation? (Choose all correct)diabetesradiation/chemotherapytooth infectionautoimmune disorders
All of the above
Which of these brain neoplasms is potentially fatal? (choose all correct)Secondary brain cancerBenign brain neoplasmPrimary brain cancerMetastatic brain cancer
All of the above
What is the most common lesion of the brain?Primary brain cancerGliomasBenign brain neoplasmMetastatic brain cancer
Metastatic brain cancer
What is the most common primary brain tumor?MedulloblastomaPituitary adenomaMeningiomasAcoustic NeuromaAstrocytoma
Astrocytoma
What is the most aggressive brain tumor?MeningiomasAcoustic NeuromaMedulloblastomaAstrocytomaPituitary adenoma
Medulloblastoma
Which of these lesions are most often malignant? (choose all correct)Correct!AstrocytomaAcoustic NeuromasMeningiomasPituitary adenomaMedulloblastoma
Medulloblastoma
Which of these brain lesions is most likely to appear in multiples?Metastatic brain cancerBenign brain neoplasmPrimary brain cancerGliomas
Metastatic brain cancer
Which of these lesions generally grows on the periphery of the brain? (Choose all correct)AstrocytomaMeningiomasAcoustic NeuromasMedulloblastomaPituitary adenoma
MeningiomasAcoustic Neuromas
Which of these lesions grows from the Schwann cell’s of the 8th cranial nerve?MedulloblastomaAcoustic NeuromasPituitary adenomaMeningiomasAstrocytoma
Acoustic Neuromas
Which of these lesions are most likely to be associated with hormonal imbalances?AstrocytomaAcoustic NeuromasPituitary adenomaMeningiomasMedulloblastoma
Pituitary adenoma
Which of these lesions grow primarily in the cerebellum/posterior fossa of the cranial cavity?MedulloblastomaAstrocytomaPituitary adenomaMeningiomasAcoustic Neuromas
Medulloblastoma
Lesions in the brain may be associated with which of these intracranial conditions? (choose all correct)BleedingMass effectIschemiaEdema
All of the above
Ischemic stroke may be a result of arterial interruption in which of these vessels? (choose all correct)Descending aortaInternal carotidsBasilar arteryCerebral arteries
Internal carotidsBasilar arteryCerebral arteries
Which of these conditions is the result of thrombosis or arterial stenosis? (choose one or both)Hemorrhagic strokeIschemic stroke
Ischemic stroke
Which of these conditions causes a permanent loss of neurologic function? (choose one or both)Hemorrhagic strokeIschemic stroke
All of the above
Which of these conditions is caused by blood extravasation in the brain? (choose one or both)Hemorrhagic strokeIschemic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Which of these conditions is also called an “intracranial bleed”? (choose one or both)Hemorrhagic strokeIschemic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Which of these conditions will always present in imaging as an area of infarct in the brain? (choose one or both)Hemorrhagic strokeIschemic stroke
Ischemic stroke
Which of these conditions is the most likely to be lethal?Ischemic strokeHemorrhagic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Which of these bleeds generally occurs in the parenchyma (substance) of the brain? (choose all correct)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Intracranial bleed (ICB)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)
Intracranial bleed (ICB)
Which of these conditions can be further defined with angiographic/contrast enhanced imaging? (Choose all correct)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Intracranial bleed (ICB)Ischemic strokeSubdural Hemorrhage (SDH
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Ischemic stroke
Which of these conditions is most likely to be associated with an aneurysm? (Choose all correct)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Intracranial bleed (ICB)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)
Which of these conditions causes blood accumulation on the periphery of the brain? (Choose all correct)You AnsweredSubarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Intracranial bleed (ICB)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)
Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)
Which of these conditions is almost always the result of trauma to the brain? (Choose all correct)Intracranial bleed (ICB)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)
Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)
Traumatic contusions in the brain are one form of which of the following conditions?Intracranial bleed (ICB)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)
Intracranial bleed (ICB)
Which of these conditions is almost always associated with a skull fracture? (Choose all correct)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)Intracranial bleed (ICB)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)
Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)
Which of following describes the appearance of a brain abscess in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct)Often associated with hemorrhageOften rim-enhancingMay shows areas of necrosisMay be associated with edema
Often rim-enhancingMay shows areas of necrosisMay be associated with edema
Which of these conditions is a result of infection in the brain? (Choose all correct)EncephalitisMeningitisICBBrain abscess
EncephalitisMeningitisBrain abscess
Which of these conditions is rarely associated with bleeding in the brain? (Choose all correct)You AnsweredMetastatic brain cancerIschemic strokeMeningitisCerebral Aneurysm
Ischemic strokeMeningitis
Which of these conditions results in bleeding focused in the suprasellar cistern?Intracranial bleed (ICB)Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)
Which of these conditions may be secondary to cerebral atrophy?HydrocephalusMeningitisICBBrain abscess
Hydrocephalus
Define Chiari Malformation
best imaged in the sagittal plane
Define Cerebral Atrophy
related to dementia and aging
Define Arachnoid Cyst
presents as abnormal CSF collections formed by the subarachnoid membrane
Define Hydrocephalus
imaged as CSF engorgement in the ventricles
Define Multiple Sclerosis
active lesions enhance with contrast
Which of these conditions sometimes coexist? (Choose two)Spina BifidaTethered cordSpinal MeningiomaAnkylosing Spondylitis
Spina BifidaTethered cord
Which of these conditions results in abnormal stiffening of the vertebral column?Spinal MeningiomaTethered cordAnkylosing SpondylitisSpina Bifida
Ankylosing Spondylitis
What is the most common primary neoplasm of the spinal cord?Spinal MetastasisSpinal MeningiomaAstrocytomaSpinal Ependymoma
Spinal Ependymoma
What is most common area of the spine to identify spinal metastasis?Thoracic SpineLumbar SpineSacral SpineCervical spine
Thoracic Spine
Define Ankylosing Spondylitis
chronic spine inflammation resulting in abnormal vertebral stiffening and fusion
Define Spinal Stenosis
progressive narrowing of the spinal canal and eventual impingement of the spinal cord
Define Spondylolisthesis
anteriorly displacement of a vertebrae relative to the vertebra below it
Define Subluxation
dislocation or displacement
Define Compression fracture
result of excessive compressive force on spine
Which of these lesions is most likely to appear in multiples?Spinal EpendymomaSpinal MeningiomaSpinal MetastasisAstrocytoma
Spinal Metastasis
Which of the lesions may grow from the spinal cord itself? (Choose all correct)Spinal EpendymomaSpinal MeningiomaSpinal Metastasis
Spinal EpendymomaSpinal Metastasis
Which of these lesions is most likely to be imaged growing in the vertebral column?Spinal MetastasisSpinal MeningiomaSpinal Ependymoma
Spinal Metastasis
Which of these lesions will only be seen growing near the periphery of the spinal cord?Spinal EpendymomaSpinal MeningiomaSpinal Metastasis
Spinal Meningioma
Which of these neoplasms is most likely to be associated with cystic developments in the intramedullary canal?Spinal MeningiomaSpinal EpendymomaSpinal Metastasis
Spinal Ependymoma
Define Ankylosing Spondylitis
an autoimmune condition
Define Tethered cord
visualized as an abnormally low conus medullaris
Define Spina Bifida
characterized by incomplete closure in the vertebral canal
Define Compression Fracture
caused by axial loading
Which of the following tumors are malignant? (Choose all correct)Spinal EpendymomaSpinal MetastasisAstrocytomaSpinal Meningioma
Spinal MetastasisAstrocytoma
Which of these pathologies is sometimes accompanied by meningocele formation?Spinal MeningiomaSpina BifidaTethered cordAnkylosing Spondylitis
Spina Bifida
Which of these conditions is sometimes accompanied by an intradural lipoma? Spinal MeningiomaSpina BifidaAnkylosing SpondylitisTethered cord
Tethered cord
Define Spina bifida occulta
incomplete closure of the spinal column
Define Meningocele
a collection of CSF formed by herniation of the meninges through an opening in the vertebral canal
Define Myelomeningocele
herniation of the spinal cord through an opening in the vertebral canal
Which of the following is a form of lung cancer? (choose all correct)Bronchogenic CarcinomaPrimary lung cancerMetastatic Lung CancerInterstitial Lung Disease
Bronchogenic CarcinomaPrimary lung cancerMetastatic Lung Cancer
Which of the following describes the appearance of lung cancer in specialty imaging? (choose all correct)Poorly defined neoplasmSingle lesions onlyMost common in the mediastinumRim-enhancing
Most common in the mediastinumRim-enhancing
Pulmonary Fibrosis is a severe form of which of these conditions?Interstitial Lung DiseaseCOPDBronchogenic CarcinomaTuberculosis
Interstitial Lung Disease
Which of the following describes the imaging characteristics of pneumonia? (choose all correct)small to large accumulationsrim-enhancingWell-defined bordersCommon near the fissures of the lower lobes
small to large accumulationsCommon near the fissures of the lower lobes
T/F: Pneumonia can infect the entire lung.
True
Which of these pathologies are defined as an abnormal fluid accumulation in the thoracic cavity? (choose all correct)PneumothoraxPleural effusionPericardial EffusionPneumonia
Pleural effusionPericardial EffusionPneumonia
Which of these conditions might demonstrate necrosis and cavity formation in specialty imaging?PneumoniaTuberculosisPleural effusionPericardial Effusion
Tuberculosis
What may be responsible for the formation of a pneumothorax? (choose all correct)HemothoraxSurgeryTraumaSpontaneous
SurgeryTraumaSpontaneous
Which of these conditions appear most similar on sectional imaging? (choose two)Bronchogenic CarcinomaHemothoraxPleural EffusionTuberculosis
HemothoraxPleural Effusion
Which of these conditions are most likely to co-exist with a hemothorax? (choose all correct)FracturesAtelectasisInterstitial Lung DiseasePneumothorax
FracturesAtelectasisPneumothorax
Which of these conditions commonly exist secondary to primary or metastatic lung cancer? (choose all correct)Pulmonary EmbolismNecrosisPleural effusionsAbscess formations
NecrosisPleural effusionsAbscess formations
Which of the following are common causes of pneumonia? (choose all correct)Chest traumaFungal infectionsChemical inhalationAspiration
All of the above
Which of these conditions appear most similar in sectional imaging? (choose two)Interstitial Lung DiseaseCOPDPneumothoraxHemothorax
Interstitial Lung DiseaseCOPD
Which of these pathologies have the most similar presentation in diagnostic imaging? (choose two)Pleural effusionTuberculosisPrimary lung cancerPneumonia
TuberculosisPneumonia
Which of these conditions is imaged as progressive scarring of the lung tissue?HemothoraxPneumothoraxCOPDInterstitial Lung Disease
Interstitial Lung Disease
Define Cardiomegaly
enlargement of the heart for any reason
Define CHF
a syndrome in which the heart can not adequately circulate blood through the body
Define Myxoma
the most common beign tumors of the heart
Define CAD
can resuly in myocardial infarction (MI)
Define Pericardial Effusion
exccess fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac
T/F: A patient diagnosed with CAD will invariably exhibit symptoms characteristic of MI.
False
Which of the following is possible etiology of cardiomegaly? (choose all correct)MVPCardiomyopathyHTNCHF
All of the above
Which of these conditions is most likely to be associated with compensatory mechanism such as increased blood volume and increased myocardium muscle mass?CADPericardial EffusionMyxomaCHF
CHF
Which of these conditions are most likely to be associated with changes in cardiac function? (choose all correct)Pericardial effusionCHF MyxomaMI
Pericardial effusion CHF MI
Where is a myxoma most likely to be imaged?Right AtriumLeft AtriumRight VentricleLeft Ventricle
Left Atrium
Which of the following pathologies is imaged as filling a defect(s) in the coronary circulatory system?CADPericardial EffusionCHFMyxoma
CAD
Which of these conditions will be accompanied by hematoma formation? Choose multiple if applicable.Simple aneurysmRuptured AneurysmDissecting aneurysm
Ruptured Aneurysm
Which of these conditions appears in sectional imaging as an enlarged artery? Choose multiple if applicable.Simple aneurysm Ruptured AneurysmDissecting aneurysm
All of the above
Which of these conditions will present with an intimal flap? Choose multiple if applicable.Dissecting aneurysmSimple aneurysmRuptured Aneurysm
Dissecting aneurysm
Which of these conditions is most likely to show contrast extravasation? Choose multiple if applicable.Dissecting aneurysmRuptured AneurysmSimple aneurysm
Ruptured Aneurysm
Which of these conditions appears in sectional imaging with a true and false lumen? Choose multiple if applicable.Simple aneurysmRuptured AneurysmDissecting aneurysm
Dissecting aneurysm
Which of these conditions may account for the formation of a PE? (choose all correct) Recent respiratory infectionpregnancyrecent surgeryimmobility
All of the above
What is the origin of a pulmonary embolism?Peripheral artery thrombus formationDVT dislodgment from the lower extremitiesDVT dislodgement from the upper extremitiesSpontaneous formation in the pulmonary trunk
DVT dislodgment from the lower extremities
Which of the following describe imaging characteristics of pancreatitis? (Choose all correct)AscitesReactive fluidPancreas inflammationPancreatic pseudocysts
All of the above
Which of the following correctly describes the appearance of gastric cancer in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct)gas-filled ulcerationfocal wall thickening with mucosal irregularitywall thickening with loss of normal rugal folding patternfocal mass/polyp with or without ulceration
All of the above
What is the most common location to visualize Crohn’s disease?Terminal IleumJejunumDuodenumVesicular-Ureteral Junction
Terminal Ileum
Which of the following statements are true concerning imaging of Crohn’s disease? (Choose all correct)May be associate with abscessMay affect the mesenteryShows chronic inflammation without remissionImaged primarily as large bowel thickening
May be associate with abscessMay affect the mesentery
Which of the following may be an underlying cause of SBO? (Choose all correct)LesionCrohn’s diseasePregnancyVolvulus
All of the above
What is the most common cancer of the GI tract?Esophageal CancerSmall Bowel CancerGastric CancerColo-rectal Cancer
Colo-rectal Cancer
Which of these conditions is related to vascular insufficiency?Ischemic colitisCrohn’s diseaseInfectious colitisUlcerative colitis
Ischemic colitis
With of these conditions can be identified as bowel wall thickening? (Choose all correct)Ischemic colitisSBOUlcerative colitisCrohn’s disease
Ischemic colitisUlcerative colitisCrohn’s disease
Which of these conditions is likely to be accompanied by ascites? (Choose all correct)You AnsweredAppendicitisSBOUlcerative colitisCirrhosis
Ulcerative colitisCirrhosis
Which of these conditions are idiopathic? (Choose all correct)CirrhosisUlcerative ColitisSBOCrohn’s disease
Ulcerative ColitisCrohn’s disease
What is the most important indication of SBO?Bowel distentionAbscessBowel inflammationHemorrhage
Bowel distention
What is the most common etiology of colon cancer?Crohn’s diseaseUlcerative colitisColic ulcerPolyp neoplasm
Polyp neoplasm
What other pathologies are commonly associated with colon cancer? (Choose all correct) HerniationAbscessBowel obstructionInflammation
AbscessBowel obstructionInflammation
Which of these conditions might be viewed as surface and parenchymal nodularity in the liver?Secondary liver cancerCirrhosisLacerationPrimary liver cancer
Cirrhosis
Which of these conditions is most likely to present as standing and abscess formation in the RLQ?Ulcerative colitisAppendicitisSBOColon cancer
Appendicitis
Which of the following statement concerning liver cancer are true? (choose all correct)Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imagingMetastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focalPrimary liver cancer is more common than secondary liver cancerPrimary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging
Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imagingMetastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focalPrimary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging
T/F: Hemangiomas appear only in the liver.
False
What is the most significant indication of hemangioma in sectional imaging?Rim-enhancementDelayed contrast enhancementAbsence of venous enhancementNo contrast enhancement
Delayed contrast enhancement
Which of these are common causes of liver cirrhosis? (Choose all correct)Renal failureAlcoholismPancreatitisHepatitis
AlcoholismHepatitis
Pericholecystic fluid accumulation is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?CholelithiasisPancreatic CancerCirrhosisPancreatitis
Cholelithiasis
Which of the following are imaging indications of organ laceration? (Choose all correct)Limited or absence of contrast perfusion through the organHematoma in the area of the organContrast extravasation in or around the organAtypical contrast perfusion through the organ
All of the above
Which of the following is a likely cause of organ infarct? (Choose all correct)lacerationembolithrombusarterial dissection
All of the above
T/F: Lymphoma primarily affects the spleen.
False
T/F: Malignant lesions identified in the spleen are most likely lymphoma.
True
Which of the following statements are true concerning imaging of the spleen? (Choose all correct)Malignant splenic lesions may appear as single or multi-focalPatchy contrast enhancement during arterial imaging indicates splenic infarct or lacerationDuring the venous phase of contrast enhancement the spleen should appear homogenous
Malignant splenic lesions may appear as single or multi-focalDuring the venous phase of contrast enhancement the spleen should appear homogenous
Pancreatic cancers primarily affect what aspect of the pancreas?TailBodyHead
Head
Which of the following best describe contrast enhancement of pancreatic tumors?Delayed enhancementHighly vascularNo contrast enhancementAbsence of venous enhancement
Delayed enhancement
Gallstones can be related to which of the following conditions? (Choose all correct)CirrhosisCholecystitisPancreatitisGall bladder cancer
CholecystitisPancreatitisGall bladder cancer
What is the typical presentation of GB cancer? (Choose all correct)Mass completely replacing the gallbladderNotable GB atrophyWall thickeningIntraluminal mass
Mass completely replacing the gallbladderWall thickeningIntraluminal mass
From where do renal stones originate?Collecting systemVUJBladderUreters
Collecting system
Which of the following statements correctly describe PKD? (Choose all correct)May be unilateralPotentially affects other organsCommonly associated with renal stonesOften results in renal failure
Potentially affects other organsOften results in renal failure
Uterine fibroids are also known as:LeiomyomaBPHendometrial cancerTCC
Leiomyoma
Which of the following are common causes of renal stones? (Choose all correct)low fluid intakemetabolic abnormalitiesrecurrent yeast infectionsdehydration
low fluid intakemetabolic abnormalitiesdehydration
T/F: Wilm’s tumor is usually unilateral.
True
Which of the following describes the early-stage appearance of endometrial cancer?hemorrhageloculationsnecrosiswall thickening
wall thickening
Which of these conditions may be secondary to renal stone formation?HydronephrosisRenal cancerPKDHorseshoe kidney
Hydronephrosis
What aspect of the kidney can be affected by renal cell carcinoma (RCC)? (Choose all correct)collecting systemmedullaGerota’s fasciacortex
collecting systemmedullacortex
What is the most common cause of kidney laceration?InfarctHemorrhageTraumaThrombus
Trauma
Which of the following statements are true concerning RCC? (Choose all correct)unifocal or multifocalgeneral kidney atrophynecrosis in large lesionscalcification in 30% of lesions
unifocal or multifocalnecrosis in large lesions calcification in 30% of lesions
Wilm’s tumor is most likely to affect which of the following demographics?SmokersMalesElderlyChildren
Children
Define Horseshoe kidney
Congenital condition in which the kidneys are fused together at the upper and lower poles.
Define Wilm’s tumor
visualized as a large mass completely replacing the kidneys and filling one side of the abdominal cavity.
Define Renal Cancer
most common malignancy of the kidneys
Which of the following are likely indicators of bladder cancer? (Choose all correct)hydronephrosisasymmetrical wall thickeningrenal stonefocal mass lesion
asymmetrical wall thickeningfocal mass lesion
Which of the following describes potential characteristics of adrenal lesions (Choose all correct)metastaticcysticmalignantbenign
All of the above
Which of the following describes the appearance of uterine fibroids in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct)SolidCalcifiedCysticVariable size
Variable size
What is the distinguishing feature of ovarian cancer?Wall thickeningGeneral enlargementCystic changesRim-enhancement
General enlargement
Which of the following imaging characteristics indicate prostate cancer as opposed to BPH? (Choose all correct)General enlargementurine outflow obstructionslymphadenopathyasymmetry
lymphadenopathyasymmetry
By what age will 90% of men have some degree of BPH?80609070
90
Which of these conditions is most likely to metastasize?Wilm’s tumorUrolithiasisBPHUterine leiomyoma
Wilm’s tumor
